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This course explores the history of North America from the age of European colonization through the American Revolution and the formation of the United States. Students examine the cultural, social, economic, and political developments that shaped colonial societies, the interactions between Indigenous peoples, Europeans, and Africans, and the causes and consequences of the Revolutionary War. The course also considers the intellectual origins of independence, the creation of new governments, and the impact of revolution on diverse groups within early America. Through analysis of primary sources and scholarly interpretations, students gain a deeper understanding of how the colonial and revolutionary periods laid the foundation for the modern United States.
Recommended Textbook
AMERICA A Narrative History 10th Edition by David Emory Shi
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT characterize the Mississippian Indian culture?
A) towns built around plazas and temples
B) cliff dwellings and widespread use of irrigation
C) cultivation of corn, beans, and squashes
D) mound-building societies
E) extensive trading activities
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following was NOT true of the Algonquians?
A) lived in wigwams or longhouses
B) villages numbered from 500 to 2,000 people
C) often moved their villages with the seasons
D) lived along the New England Seaboard and into the Upper Midwest
E) built mounds like the Mississippians
Answer: E
Q3) The Church of England was established by gradually integrating Calvinism with English Catholicism.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the Iroquois League?
A) was governed by the Great Law of Peace
B) was primarily based along the Mississippi River C) was involved in the beaver pelt trade with the Dutch and English D) was made up of the Seneca, Onondaga, Oneida, Mohawk, and Cayuga E) believed in principles of equity and justice
Answer: B
Q2) The Virginia Company was a joint-stock company.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Delaware was originally part of Pennsylvania.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) As a result of the Glorious Revolution, England abolished the monarchy and became a republic.
A)True
B)False Answer: False

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Q1) The covenant theory from which the Puritans drew their ideas contained:
A) the justification for New England's strict theocracy
B) the notion that the king replaced God as the head of the government of the people
C) the notion that men were capable of governing themselves well because they had been absolved of all sin when they entered the church
D) a fundamental belief in democracy
E) certain kernels of democracy in both church and state
Answer: E
Q2) New England was settled by:
A) a joint-stock company
B) religious fundamentalists
C) military officers
D) the king and his family
E) ex-convicts and debtors
Answer: B
Q3) New Englanders, more than southerners, turned to the sea for their livelihood.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Discuss how the concept of mercantilism impacted exploration and colony building in the seventeenth century.
Q2) Benjamin Franklin headed the committee that produced the Plan of Union in 1754.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As royal governor of the Dominion of New England, Sir Edmund Andros:
A) was popular in Boston
B) increased the authority of the Massachusetts assembly
C) was deposed as a result of the Glorious Revolution
D) initiated the prosecution of Salem's witches
E) recognized the Puritan monopoly of religion
Q4) The Navigation Act of 1660 specified "enumerated" goods that:
A) Americans were not allowed to export
B) could only be purchased with gold or silver
C) would not be taxed once imported into the mother country
D) could only be shipped to England or its colonies
E) could be sold at discount prices
Q5) In what ways did the French and Indian War pave the way for the Revolution?
Q6) Describe the background, major events, and results of the French and Indian War.
Q7) What were the various effects of the Glorious Revolution in America?
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Q1) During the war, Tories:
A) refused to take prisoners
B) probably outnumbered Patriots
C) generally lived at peace with their Whig neighbors
D) controlled large areas for an extended time
E) came from all classes of society
Q2) On the western frontier, Indian tribes such as the Mohawks, Shawnees, and Cherokees:
A) stayed neutral
B) supported the Americans
C) fled further west to escape the fighting
D) attacked frontier settlements in Virginia and the Carolinas
E) switched sides constantly
Q3) On Christmas night 1776, Washington crossed the Delaware to defeat the:
A) Loyalists
B) Hessians
C) British
D) Iroquois
E) Tories
Q4) Trace the negotiations and details of the Treaty of Paris of 1783.
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Q1) Just before he left office, Adams:
A) repealed Hamilton's tax policies
B) questioned the fair outcome of the election
C) cemented Federalism within the judiciary
D) destroyed his official records
E) renewed his friendship with Jefferson
Q2) The phrase "Critical Period" refers to:
A) the time of the Revolutionary War
B) the summer the Constitution was written
C) America under the Articles of Confederation
D) George Washington's presidency
E) the years of tension over British taxes
Q3) Shays's Rebellion was led by:
A) merchants
B) factory workers
C) bankers
D) indebted farmers
E) ambitious politicians
Q4) Examine the importance of the Bill of Rights regarding the establishment of trust and law between the new nation and its citizens.
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Q1) Thomas Jefferson
A)appointed justice of the peace in the District of Columbia
B)elected president in 1804
C)negotiated the Louisiana Purchase
D)was a naval hero against the Barbary pirates
E)was a war hawk from Kentucky
F)saw the British attack of Fort McHenry from Baltimore Harbor
G)became vice president in 1801
H)was chief justice
I)was an American naval hero in the War of 1812
J)explored the Louisiana Purchase and Far West
Q2) Explain the Treaty of Ghent and the end of the War of 1812.
Q3) Political dissension seemed to be an important factor in the era of Jefferson. This can be seen in the appearance of, among other things, the Burr conspiracy and the Hartford Convention. How can you account for these examples, and what generalizations can you draw from them?
Q4) Thomas Jefferson's decision to enact the embargo is one of the most criticized moments in American history. Did he make the right decision?
Q5) What were the short-term and long-term results of the War of 1812?
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Q1) Commonwealth v. Hunt:
A) ruled that it was legal to force members of labor unions to work unpaid overtime
B) declared that forming a trade union was not illegal
C) failed to win Supreme Court approval for mandatory union membership
D) applied to labor organizing on the factory floor
E) made the sabotage of equipment by striking workers a federal offense
Q2) The New England textile industry's use of water power:
A) dramatically altered the region's ecology
B) made its products more expensive
C) was never a source of controversy
D) largely ended by 1850 as factories switched to steam power
E) dried up some rivers completely
Q3) Trade associations, or guilds, formed by artisans in the early 1800s attempted to do all the following EXCEPT:
A) recruit unskilled workers
B) improve working conditions
C) influence politicians to support protective tariffs
D) uphold standards of quality production
E) maintain decent wage levels
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Q1) Which of the following opposed a national bank in 1816?
A) John C. Calhoun
B) Daniel Webster
C) Henry Clay
D) James Madison
E) John Quincy Adams
Q2) The Bank of the United States quickly ended the Panic of 1819 by making credit more easily available.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Second Bank of the United States was chartered in 1826.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In 1819, Spain decided to take the following stand concerning its claim to the Oregon Country:
A) abandon its claim above the 42nd parallel
B) abandon all claims to lands west of the Rockies
C) insist it still owned all the land above the 42nd parallel
D) give its claim to above the 42nd parallel to France
E) increase its military presence in the Pacific Northwest
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Q1) Osceola led the Seminole resistance to their removal from their lands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the growth of democracy during the Jacksonian era is true?
A) Land ownership guaranteed a person's right to political participation.
B) Race had less meaning as a national voting qualification than it had during Jefferson's time.
C) Women were commonly voting in state and local elections, but not yet in national races.
D) Politics was no longer the realm of the prominent and wealthy.
E) While Jackson touted democratic gains, the reality was greater restriction.
Q3) Anti-democratic voices freely acknowledged that democracy was incompatible with:
A) intelligence
B) slavery
C) informed political participation
D) a successful republic
E) the natural order
Q4) Discuss the diverse coalition of the Whigs. What were the major characteristics of "Whiggery"?
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Q1) Free blacks in the South:
A) sometimes owned slaves
B) were always of mixed race
C) enjoyed full legal equality
D) outnumbered slaves
E) mostly emigrated to Africa
Q2) Nat Turner
A)plotted a slave revolt near Richmond in 1800
B)was hanged for killing her master when defending herself against a sexual assault
C)ran away from slavery in Maryland and became an outspoken critic of the institution
D)plantation mistress who was a critic of the plantation system
E)led a successful slave revolt on Saint-Domingue
F)allegedly plotted slave rebellion in South Carolina
G)free black man kidnapped and sold into slavery in the South
H)led the largest slave revolt in American history just north of New Orleans
I)author of Uncle Tom's Cabin
J)led a slave revolt in 1831 in Southampton County, Virginia
Q3) What roles did religion, folklore, and family life play in the lives of slaves?
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Q1) Members of the Shaker community:
A) believed that Jesus Christ had returned to Earth in the 1820s
B) practiced free love and polygamy
C) were not permitted to leave after their "initiation"
D) practiced celibacy and owned everything in common
E) increased their numbers by having large families
Q2) Why were working-class people attracted to Universalism?
A) It encouraged sinning.
B) It advocated for slavery and white superiority.
C) It claimed that people's fates had already been determined by God.
D) It stressed the possibility of salvation of all people.
E) It claimed that eternal punishment for sinners was not all that bad.
Q3) Deists:
A) believed in an all-powerful God
B) argued for the literal truth of the Bible
C) included Founding Fathers such as Jefferson and Franklin
D) were basically atheists
E) felt the United States should have an official religion
Q4) Describe the various facets and accomplishments of the women's movement of the first half of the nineteenth century.
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Q1) Mexico's winning of independence from Spain slowed American expansion westward.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There were more than 200 different Indian tribes west of the Mississippi River in 1840.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What was a main reason the Mexican government attempted to curtail American settlement of Texas?
A) racism against Americans
B) worry about the behavior and intentions of the Americans living there
C) a preference for Indian settlement of the land
D) the Spanish forcing them to exclude the Americans
E) the British claim to the territory
Q4) President Tyler infuriated Henry Clay by vetoing his bill in support of:
A) Texas annexation
B) higher tariffs
C) Indian removal
D) pensions for veterans
E) a new national bank
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Q1) John C. Calhoun believed that the Wilmot Proviso:
A) would help keep the Union together
B) protected the interests of slaveholders
C) violated property rights
D) blamed the South for the Mexican-American War
E) would never pass Congress
Q2) The Republican party reflected a combination of all of the following groups EXCEPT:
A) northern Whigs
B) anti-slavery Democrats
C) Free-Soilers
D) cotton Whigs
E) abolitionists
Q3) The Republican party platform supported all of the following in 1860 EXCEPT:
A) a transcontinental railroad
B) a higher protective tariff
C) no further extension of slavery
D) John Brown's raid
E) free farms on federal lands out west
Q4) Detail the Wilmot Proviso. What impact did it have on the debate over slavery?
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Q1) Slavery was ultimately eradicated by:
A) the Emancipation Proclamation
B) Lee's surrender
C) the Thirteenth Amendment
D) an act of Congress
E) divine intervention
Q2) All of the following battles resulted in Confederate victories EXCEPT:
A) Vicksburg
B) First Bull Run
C) Second Bull Run
D) Chancellorsville
E) Fredericksburg
Q3) Lincoln stressed repeatedly that the "paramount object in this struggle is to save the Union."
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe briefly the reasons why the North won the Civil War. What were the North's strengths and advantages?
Q5) Why did the South lose the war? What were its weaknesses and disadvantages?
Q6) Discuss how the Civil War was "the most traumatic event in American history."
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Q1) After the House of Representatives impeached President Johnson, the Senate failed to convict him by just one vote.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Radical Republicans understood that essential to maintaining Republican control of the federal government was:
A) a quick restoration of the Union
B) continued military occupation of the South
C) close cooperation with President Johnson
D) pardons for ex-Confederates
E) the right of ex-slaves to vote
Q3) The Fourteenth Amendment recognized the validity of Confederate debts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most carpetbaggers were:
A) corrupt and greedy
B) illiterate
C) wealthy business owners
D) Union veterans
E) former Confederates
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1860-1900
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Q1) President Grover Cleveland's response to the Pullman strike was to:
A) declare his sympathy for the strikers
B) order George Pullman to restore his workers' wages
C) appoint Eugene Debs to his cabinet
D) send federal troops to keep the trains running
E) socialize the industry by allowing the government to manage the company
Q2) The invention of electric motors did all of the following EXCEPT:
A) make it possible for factories to locate wherever they wished
B) lead to the development of streetcars
C) lead to the bankruptcy of the Edison Electric Illuminating Company
D) lead to the development of elevators
E) contribute to the development of suburbs
Q3) The golden spike used to connect the final rails symbolized:
A) the uniting of North and South
B) the uniting of East and North
C) the uniting of North and West
D) the uniting of East and South
E) the uniting of East and West
Q4) What factors account for the dramatic growth in business after the Civil War? Write an essay that explains why each factor you identify was significant.
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Chapter 18: The New South and the New West, 1865-1900
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Q1) Redeemers were all of the following EXCEPT:
A) conservative
B) pro-business
C) members of the Republican party
D) white politicians
E) members of the Democratic party
Q2) Describe the government's policy toward Indians. How did this policy develop over the years, and what were the main factors that influenced its development?
Q3) The main goal in passing the Dawes Severalty Act of 1887 was to swindle the Indians out of their remaining lands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The frontier Indian wars began with the closing of the frontier in 1890.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how the pervasive use of tenancy and sharecropping affected the environment.
Q6) One of the goals of the New South prophets was a diversified agriculture. What factors stood in the way of this goal?
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Q1) Realists' emphasis on closely observing everyday life grew out of:
A) transcendentalism
B) reform Darwinism
C) social Darwinism
D) socialism
E) the scientific spirit
Q2) The public health officials and municipal engineers that tried to clean up the city and its public health dangers were called:
A) garbage men
B) health care professionals
C) missionaries
D) sanitary reformers
E) cowboys
Q3) One of the causes of the 1893 depression was failure of:
A) the Philadelphia and Reading Railroad
B) the stock market
C) the commodity price index
D) housing starts in 1891 and 1892
E) President Cleveland to regulate the railroads
Q4) Describe how living in an urban environment impacted women's lives.
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Q1) Why did President Theodore Roosevelt feel compelled to mediate a reduction of tension in Europe, and how did the president show the world, literally, that America had become a world power?
Q2) Theodore Roosevelt led troops into battle in the Philippines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Hay-Herrán Treaty:
A) ended the Spanish-American War
B) ended the insurrection in the Philippines
C) concerned America's right to build a canal in Panama
D) failed to pass the U.S. Senate
E) made the purchase of Alaska possible
Q4) Which of the following statements about the American acquisition of Puerto Rico is true?
A) The Foraker Act of 1900 eliminated the island's government.
B) Puerto Rico was denied the right to have an elected legislature.
C) Puerto Rico had little strategic value to the United States.
D) The Jones Act of 1917 made residents of Puerto Rico U.S. citizens.
E) Puerto Rico became a U.S. state.
Q5) What was the Open Door policy, and how did it come about?
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Q1) WCTU:
A) was the first radio station in America
B) stood for Women's Christian Temperance Union
C) was the radio station Roosevelt made famous while president
D) stood for Western Colorado Teamsters Union
E) was the abbreviation of Western Connecticut University, where Wilson got his start as a professor
Q2) Who stated, "most of us in the North do not believe in any real democracy between white and colored men"?
A) Booker T. Washington
B) Ray Stannard Baker
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) Upton Sinclair
E) Ida Turnbell
Q3) The originator of the Wisconsin idea of efficient government was:
A) Lewis Hine
B) Hiram Johnson
C) Florence Kelley
D) Robert M. La Follette
E) Louis Brandeis
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Chapter 22: America and the Great War, 1914-1920
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Q1) One dramatic example of labor unrest in 1919 was a strike in:
A) Boston, Massachusetts
B) San Francisco, California
C) Seattle, Washington
D) Chicago, Illinois
E) Atlanta, Georgia
Q2) J. Luz Sáenz:
A) was the energetic leader of the War Labor Policies Board
B) was a Mexican American World War I veteran who, three days after his discharge, was denied service at various restaurants
C) was the first and most celebrated conviction under the Espionage Act of 1917
D) was convicted under the "clear and present danger" doctrine
E) led the Fifth Army in the Mediterranean during World War I
Q3) Women in "war work" were usually able to keep their jobs after the war.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why did the reservationists and the irreconcilables oppose the Treaty of Versailles? How effective was their opposition?
Q5) Trace America's attempt at neutrality prior to its entry into World War I.
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Q1) The novels of Ernest Hemingway:
A) portrayed utopian communities in a socialist society
B) attacked the corruption of machine politics in the large cities
C) traced the philosophical connections between twentieth-century America and eighteenth-century Britain
D) described the frenetic, hard-drinking lifestyle and the cult of robust masculinity that Hemingway himself epitomized
E) documented "the greatest, gaudiest spree in history"
Q2) The Waste Land, a poem that became the favorite of many modernist readers because of its sense of disillusionment and its suggestion of a burned-out civilization, was written by:
A) Franz Boas
B) T. S. Eliot
C) Ezra Pound
D) Gertrude Stein
E) E. E. Cummings
Q3) Jazz music inspired rural youth to remember their culture's musical roots.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Harding's secretary of the treasury, who pushed tax cuts for the wealthy, was:
A) Herbert Hoover
B) Calvin Coolidge
C) Charles Evans Hughes
D) Albert Fall
E) Andrew Mellon
Q2) The immigration quota laws passed in the 1920s favored immigrants from northern and western Europe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The immigration quota laws passed in the 1920s:
A) favored immigrants from northern and western Europe
B) encouraged Asians to immigrate to America
C) set strict limits on immigration from Mexico
D) rescinded the Gentlemen's Agreement accepted during Theodore Roosevelt's administration
E) favored immigrants from southern and eastern Europe
Q4) The biggest scandal under President Hoover was the Teapot Dome scandal of 1930.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Who headed the Works Progress Administration (WPA) at its creation in 1935?
A) Frances Perkins
B) John Nance Garner
C) Henry Wallace
D) Hugh Johnson
E) Harry Hopkins
Q2) The greatest failure of the New Deal was its inability to:
A) restore economic prosperity and end record levels of unemployment
B) end segregation
C) be duplicated in Europe
D) prevent World War II
E) end partisan politics
Q3) During the 1936 election, Roosevelt wound up carrying every state except:
A) Maine and Ohio
B) Iowa and Vermont
C) Maine and Vermont
D) New Jersey and Florida
E) Texas and Utah
Q4) How did the political pressure, and opposing views shape New Deal policies?
Q5) Why did Roosevelt attempt to "pack" the Supreme Court? Did he achieve his goals?
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Q1) The agreements at the Yalta Conference included Stalin's pledge to enter the war against Japan, but he demanded territories from Japan and China in exchange.
A)True
B)False
Q2) J. Robert Oppenheimer
A)American admiral in the Pacific
B)Republican appointed secretary of war in 1940
C)Democratic presidential candidate in 1940
D)elected vice president in 1944
E)directed the construction of atomic bombs
F)was in charge of all U.S. forces in east Asia
G)lost the presidential election in 1940
H)drew up the Atlantic Charter with an American president
I)senator who led the committee that coined term "merchants of death"
J)lost the presidential election in 1944
Q3) Hitler portrayed himself as Germany's savior from the humiliation of having lost the Great War.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Servicemen's Readjustment Act was also known as the GI Bill of Rights.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Trace the development of building the United Nations. What issues did the United Nations have to deal with almost immediately after the war?
Q3) As a result of the Truman Doctrine:
A) Greece and Turkey were less vulnerable to communism
B) Yugoslavia went Communist
C) the United Nations carried out its first military intervention
D) U.S.-Soviet relations improved
E) Truman became less concerned about the Soviet threat
Q4) Due to shrinking military production, a deep recession followed the end of World War II.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the causes and major events that led to the announcement of the Truman Doctrine.
Q6) Describe the social and economic effects of demobilization.
Q7) Trace the major developments in the cold war from 1945 to 1948.
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Q8) What did Truman mean by a Fair Deal? How did it compare to FDR's New Deal?

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Q1) The GI Bill of Rights provided financial assistance for home loans and college expenses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Elvis Presley's first national smash hit was "Heartbreak Hotel."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many adults, having experienced the Depression and wartime rationing, were eager to consume more in the 1950s.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Who wrote that he and other writers felt estranged "from a government that extolled business and mediocrity"?
A) James Jones
B) Ralph Ellison
C) John Updike
D) William Styron
E) Saul Bellow
Q5) Compare the achievements of Eisenhower's "dynamic conservatism" to those of the New Deal.
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Chapter 29: A New Frontier and a Great Society, 1960-1968
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Q1) The Voting Rights Act of 1965:
A) was passed by Congress over Johnson's opposition
B) ended black protest movements
C) dramatically expanded black votes in the South
D) made the South more strongly Democratic
E) was successfully resisted in the Deep South
Q2) Had Kennedy lived, he would certainly have removed U.S. troops from Vietnam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Beginning with Watts, the major race riots of 1965 and 1966:
A) occurred in large cities
B) started when white mobs attacked blacks
C) resulted from blacks being denied the vote
D) were led by the Black Panthers
E) proved the increasing irrelevance of Martin Luther King
Q4) Lyndon Johnson's domestic program was called the Great Society.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The year 1968 has been called the most turbulent year of the 1960s. Explain why some people believe this.
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Q1) All of the following are true of Cesar Chavez EXCEPT that he:
A) used boycotts to pressure grape growers
B) was founder and leader of the United Farm Workers
C) as a young man, worked as a migrant laborer in farm fields
D) was committed to nonviolent tactics
E) failed to secure collective bargaining rights for farm workers
Q2) Tom Hayden
A)was shot and left paralyzed in 1972
B)was secretary of state in 1975
C)founded NOW
D)founded SDS and authored the Port Huron Statement
E)was convicted for the My Lai Massacre
F)gave testimony before a Senate committee that linked Nixon directly to the Watergate cover-up
G)was one of the organizers of the Weather Underground
H)was a philosophy major who led UC Berkeley's free-speech movement (FSM)
I)lost the presidential election of 1976
J)led the United Farm Workers
Q3) Detail all aspects of the counterculture in the United States during the 1960s.
Q4) Describe the domestic policy of the Nixon administration.
Page 32
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Q1) Sandra Day O'Connor
A)championed women's roles as wives and mothers
B)was the Republican vice-presidential candidate in 1980
C)led the Moral Majority
D)was the former governor of California
E)was budget director in the Reagan administration
F)was the main actor in the Iran-Contra affair
G)was a Supreme Court justice
H)was the Democratic presidential candidate in 1988
I)was a vice-presidential candidate in 1984
J)said, "[My opponent] will raise taxes, and so will I. He won't tell you. I just did."
Q2) The 1991 Persian Gulf War resulted in:
A) massive American casualties
B) the U.S. capture of Baghdad
C) Saddam Hussein remaining in power
D) trench warfare
E) Bush's guaranteed reelection
Q3) What was America's role in world affairs during the Reagan and Bush years?
Q4) Describe and illustrate the main features of Reaganomics.
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Chapter 32: Twenty-first-century America, 1993-present
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Q1) Sarah Palin
A)was an Alaska governor and Tea Party favorite
B)carried Florida by 537 votes in 2000
C)became House Speaker as a result of the 2006 election
D)was the independent counsel who prosecuted Bill Clinton
E)finished third in the 1992 and 1996 presidential elections
F)authored the Contract with America
G)was appointed secretary of state by Barack Obama
H)was the Federal Reserve Board chairman
I)was appointed secretary of defense by Barack Obama
J)was a central figure in a major sex scandal
Q2) The major purpose of the passage of NAFTA was to:
A) give Clinton an easy political victory
B) protect American industries such as steel and textiles
C) reward Clinton's supporters in organized labor
D) promote freer trade with Canada and Mexico
E) send American jobs overseas
Q3) Discuss the issue of increasing polarization in American politics. How has President Obama tried to lessen the tension, and has he been successful?
Q4) Briefly assess Clinton's achievements in domestic policy.
Page 34
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