College Physics Test Bank - 3821 Verified Questions

College Physics

Test Bank

Course Introduction

College Physics provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of physics, emphasizing both conceptual understanding and practical problem-solving skills. Topics covered include mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, sound, electricity, magnetism, optics, and an introduction to modern physics. The course integrates laboratory experiences to reinforce theoretical concepts, promote scientific inquiry, and develop analytical skills necessary for various academic and professional pathways in the sciences, engineering, and related fields.

Recommended Textbook College Physics A Strategic Approach 3rd Edition by Randall D. Knigh

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30 Chapters

3821 Verified Questions

3821 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Representing Motion

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113 Verified Questions

113 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the result of the calculation (0.410 + 0.021) × (2.20 × 10³)?

A) 880

B) 946

C) 948

D) 950

Answer: C

Q2) What is \(\frac { 0.674 } { 0.74 }\) expressed to the correct number of significant figures?

A) 0.91

B) 0.911

C) 0.9108

D) 0.9

Answer: A

Q3) How many significant figures are in the number 0.0037010?

A) four

B) five

C) six

D) seven

E) eight

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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174 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A car accelerates from \(5.0 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s }\) to \(21 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s }\) at a constant rate of \(3.0 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s } ^ { 2 }\)

How far does it travel while accelerating?

A) 69 m

B) 207 m

C) 41 m

D) 117 m

Answer: A

Q2) A ball is thrown straight up, reaches a maximum height, then falls to its initial height. Which of the following statements about the direction of the velocity and acceleration of the ball as it is going up is correct?

A) Both its velocity and its acceleration point upward.

B) Its velocity points upward and its acceleration points downward.

C) Its velocity points downward and its acceleration points upward.

D) Both its velocity and its acceleration points downward.

Answer: B

Q3) A water rocket can reach a speed of 75 m/s in 0.050 seconds from launch. What is its average acceleration?

Answer: 1500 m/s²

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) On a calm day with no wind, you can run a 1500-m race at a velocity of 4.0 m/s. If you run the same race on a day when you have a constant headwind that slows your speed by 2.0 m/s, how much time would it take you to finish the race?

A) 250 s

B) 750 s

C) 1125 s

D) 9000 s

Q2) An airplane undergoes the following displacements, all at the same altitude: First, it flies \(59.0 \mathrm {~km}\) in a direction 30.0° east of north. Next, it flies \(58.0 \mathrm {~km}\) due south. Finally, it flies \(100 \mathrm {~km}\) 30.0° north of west. Use components to determine how far the airplane ends up from its starting point.

A) 71.5 km

B) 73.0 km

C) 74.4 km

D) 70.1 km

E) 68.7 km

Q3) A velocity vector has components 36 m/s westward and 22 m/s northward. What are the magnitude and direction of this vector?

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 45.0-kg person steps on a scale in an elevator. The scale reads 460 N. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the elevator?

A) 4.91 m/s²

B) 9.81 m/s²

C) 46.9 m/s²

D) 0.206 m/s²

E) 0.422 m/s²

Q2) A satellite is in orbit around the earth. Which one feels the greater force?

A) the satellite because the earth is so much more massive

B) the earth because the satellite has so little mass

C) Earth and the satellite feel exactly the same force.

D) It depends on the distance of the satellite from Earth.

Q3) An elevator suspended by a vertical cable is moving downward but slowing down. The tension in the cable must be

A) greater than the weight of the elevator.

B) less than than the weight of the elevator.

C) equal to the weight of the elevator.

Q4) A catcher stops a 0.15-kg ball traveling at 40 m/s in a distance of 20 cm. What is the magnitude of the average force that the ball exerts against his glove?

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Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bulldozer attempts to drag a log weighing 500 N along the rough horizontal ground. The cable attached to the log makes an angle of 30° above the ground. The coefficient of static friction between the log and the ground is 0.50, and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.35. What minimum tension is required in the cable in order for the log to begin to slide?

Q2) You push downward on a trunk at an angle 25° below the horizontal with a force of \(750 \mathrm {~N}\) If the trunk is on a flat surface and the coefficient of static friction between the surface and the trunk is 0.61, what is the most massive trunk you will be able to move?

A) 81 kg

B) 93 kg

C) 73 kg

D) 112 kg

Q3) A 5.0-kg box slides on the surface on a ramp that rises at 37° above the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the surface of the ramp is 0.60. What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the box if it is sliding (a) up the ramp, (b) down the ramp?

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A particularly scary roller coaster contains a loop-the-loop in which the car and rider are completely upside down. If the radius of the loop is \(13.2 \mathrm {~m}\) with what minimum speed must the car traverse the loop so that the rider does not fall out while upside down at the top? Assume the rider is not strapped to the car.

A) 11.4 m/s

B) 12.5 m/s

C) 10.1 m/s

D) 14.9 m/s

Q2) As a 70-kg person stands at the seashore gazing at the tides (which are caused by the Moon), how large is the gravitational force on that person due to the Moon? The mass of the Moon is 7.35 × 10²² kg, the distance to the Moon is 3.82 × 10⁸ m, and G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m²/kg².

A) 0.24 N

B) 0.024 N

C) 0.0024 N

D) 0.00024 N

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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Express the angular speed of an old 33 1/3 rpm LP in rad/s.

Q2) When an old LP turntable was revolving at 33 \(\frac { 1 } { 3 }\) rpm, it was shut off and uniformly slowed down and stopped in 5.5 seconds.

(a) What was the magnitude of its angular acceleration (in rad/s²) as it slowed down?

(b) Through how many revolutions did it turn while stopping?

Q3) A wheel of diameter 0.70 m rolls on the floor without slipping. A point at the top of the wheel moves with a speed 2.0 m/s relative to the floor.

(a) At what speed is the central axis of the wheel moving relative to the floor?

(b) What is the angular speed of the wheel?

Q4) Two children, Ahmed and Jacques, ride on a merry-go-round. Ahmed is at a greater distance from the axis of rotation than Jacques. Which of the following are true statements? (There could be more than one correct choice.)

A) Jacques has a greater angular speed than Ahmed.

B) Jacques and Ahmed have the same angular speed.

C) Jacques has a smaller angular speed than Ahmed.

D) Ahmed has a greater tangential speed than Jacques.

E) Jacques and Ahmed have the same tangential speed.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Equilibrium Ad Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) An aluminum wire 2.0 m long and 2.0 mm in diameter supports a 10.0-kg fixture. What is the stress in the wire? Young's modulus for aluminum is 7.0 × 10¹⁰ N/m².

A) 3.1 × 10⁷ N/m²

B) 6.2 × 10⁷ N/m²

C) 9.3 × 10⁷ N/m²

D) 1.2 × 10⁸ N/m²

Q2) A 50-kg air conditioner is placed on top of a concrete pad that is 20 cm thick and has a cross-sectional area of 3.0 m². What is the change in thickness of the pad caused by the air conditioner? Young's modulus for concrete is 2.3 × 10¹⁰ N/m².

A) 1.4 × 10^-9 m

B) 2.8 × 10^-9 m

C) 1.4 × 10^-8 m

D) 1.4 × 10^-7 m

E) 2.8 × 10^-8 m

Q3) As one stretches a metal wire, which condition is reached first?

A) the elastic limit

B) the breaking point

C) the proportional limit

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Chapter 9: Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are standing on a skateboard, initially at rest. A friend throws a very heavy ball towards you. You have two choices about what to do with the ball: either catch the ball or deflect it back toward your friend with the same speed as it was originally thrown. Which choice should you make in order to maximize your speed on the skateboard?

A) Catch the ball.

B) Deflect the ball back.

C) Your final speed on the skateboard will be the same regardless whether you catch the ball or deflect the ball.

Q2) A solid wood door, 90.0 cm wide by 2.00 m tall has a mass of 35.0 kg. It is open and at rest. A small 500-g ball is thrown perpendicular to the door with a speed of 20.0 m/s and hits the door 60.0 cm from the hinged side. The ball rebounds with a speed of 16.0 m/s along the same line. What is the angular speed of the door just after the collision with the ball?

A) 0.127 rad/s

B) 0.925 rad/s

C) 1.14 rad/s

D) 2.28 rad/s

E) 4.57 rad/s

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11

Chapter 10: Energy and Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) A solid uniform disk of diameter 3.20 m and mass 42 kg rolls without slipping to the bottom of a hill, starting from rest. If the angular speed of the disk is 4.27 rad/s at the bottom, how high did it start on the hill?

A) 3.57 m

B) 2.68 m

C) 3.14 m

D) 4.28 m

Q2) Two objects of different mass have equal, non-zero kinetic energies. Which object has the greater magnitude momentum?

A) the heavier object

B) the lighter object

C) They both have the same magnitude momentum.

Q3) A child pulls on a wagon with a force of 75\({~N}\) If the wagon moves a total of \(42 \mathrm {~m}\) in \(3.1 \mathrm {~min} \text {, }\) what is the average power delivered by the child?

A) 17 W

B) 21 W

C) 22 W

D) 26 W

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Using Energy

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106 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two ideal Carnot heat engines have the same efficiency. One operates between 5.0 × 10² K and 3.0 × 10² K, and the other between 4.0 × 10² K and some lower temperature. What is the lower temperature?

A) 200 K

B) 220 K

C) 240 K

D) 260 K

E) 280 K

Q2) Which one of the following is a true statement?

A) The second law of thermodynamics is a consequence of the first law of thermodynamics.

B) It is possible for heat to flow spontaneously from a hot body to a cold one or from a cold one to a hot one, depending on whether or not the process is reversible or irreversible.

C) It is not possible to convert work entirely into heat.

D) It is impossible to transfer heat from a cooler to a hotter body.

E) All of these statements are false.

Q3) What is absolute zero on the (a) Celsius scale and (b) on the Fahrenheit scale?

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dust particles in a grain elevator frequently have masses of the order of 1.0 × 10^-9 kg. If, to a first approximation, we model the dust particles as an ideal gas, what would be the rms speed of such a particle in air at 27°C? The Boltzmann constant is 1.38 × 10^-23 J/K .

A) 3.5 × 10^-6 m/s

B) 5.6 × 10^-5 m/s

C) 7.8 × 10^-4 m/s

D) 5.2 × 10^-3 m/s

E) 4.9 × 10^-2 m/s

Q2) A sealed container holds 0.020 moles of ideal nitrogen (N₂) gas, at a pressure of 1.5 atm and a temperature of 290 K. The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14.0 g/mol. What is the average translational kinetic energy of a nitrogen molecule? The Boltzmann constant is 1.38 × 10^-23 J/K.

A) 4.0 ×10²¹ J

B) 6.0 ×10²¹ J

C) 8.0 ×10²¹ J

D) 10 ×10²¹ J

E) 12 ×10²¹ J

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fluid flows at 2.0 m/s through a pipe of diameter 3.0 cm. What is the volume flow rate of the fluid?

A) 1.4 × 10^-3 m³/s

B) 5.7 × 10^-3 m³/s

C) 14 m³/s

D) 57 m³/s

Q2) An object has a volume of 4.0 m³ and weighs 40,000 N. What will its apparent weight be in water of density 1000 kg/m³?

A) 40,000 N

B) 39,200 N

C) 9,800 N

D) 800 N

Q3) A steel ball sinks in water but floats in a pool of mercury, which is much denser than water. Where is the buoyant force on the ball greater?

A) floating on the mercury

B) submerged in the water

C) It is the same in both cases.

D) It cannot be determined from the information given.

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15

Chapter 14: Oscillations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 0.150-kg air track cart is attached to an ideal spring with a force constant (spring constant) of 3.58 N/m and undergoes simple harmonic oscillations. What is the period of the oscillations?

A) 2.57 s

B) 0.527 s

C) 0.263 s

D) 1.14 s

E) 1.29 s

Q2) In 1851 Jean Bernard Leon Foucault demonstrated the rotation of the earth using a pendulum 11.0 m long, which was set up in the Paris Observatory. How long would it have taken for Foucault's pendulum to make one complete swing back to its starting point if g = 9.81 m/s² at the observatory?

A) 6.65 s

B) 5.63 s

C) 1.79 s

D) 2.12 s

E) 2.58 s

Q3) If a pendulum makes 12 complete swings in 8.0 s, what are its (a) frequency and (b) period?

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the intensity of a 70-dB sound? The threshold of human hearing is 1.0 × 10^-12 W/m².

A) 10^-4 W/m²

B) 10^-5 W/m²

C) 10^-6 W/m²

D) 10^-7 W/m²

Q2) You are driving along a highway at 35.0 m/s when you hear the siren of a police car approaching you from behind at constant speed and you perceive the frequency as 1310 Hz. You are relieved that he is in pursuit of a different driver when he continues past you, but now you perceive the frequency as 1240 Hz. What is the frequency of the siren in the police car? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s.

A) 1300 Hz

B) 1320 Hz

C) 1270 Hz

D) 1360 Hz

E) 1370 Hz

Q3) An elephant can hear sound with a frequency of 15 Hz. What is the wavelength of this wave if the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s?

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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) An organ pipe open at both ends has a length of 0.80 m. If the velocity of sound in air is \(340 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s } \text {, }\) what is the frequency of the second harmonic of this pipe?

A) 213 Hz

B) 425 Hz

C) 638 Hz

D) 850 Hz

Q2) Two in-phase loudspeakers are 3.0 m apart. They emit sound with a frequency of 490 Hz. A microphone is placed half-way between the speakers and then moved along the line joining the two speakers until the first point of constructive interference is found. At what distance from that midpoint is that first point? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s.

A) 0.18 m

B) 0.35 m

C) 0.50 m

D) 0.70 m

E) There is no point in that line where constructive interference occurs.

Q3) An organ pipe that is 1.75 m long and open at both ends produces sound of frequency 303 Hz when resonating in its second overtone. What is the speed of sound in the room?

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Chapter 17: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What principle is responsible for light spreading as it passes through a narrow slit?

A) refraction

B) polarization

C) diffraction

D) dispersion

Q2) Two thin slits are 6.00 m apart. Monochromatic coherent light falls on these slits, and produces a fifth-order bright interference fringe at an angle of 32.3° away from the centerline. What is the wavelength of the light?

A) 164 nm

B) 416 nm

C) 614 nm

D) 641 nm

Q3) When light illuminates a diffraction grating with 7000 lines per centimeter, its second order maximum is at 62.4°. What is the wavelength of the light?

A) 336 nm

B) 363 nm

C) 633 nm

D) 752 nm

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Chapter 18: Ray Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) An object is placed 15 cm to the left of a double-convex lens of focal length 20 cm. Where is the image of this object located?

A) 60 cm to the right of the lens

B) 60 cm to the left of the lens

C) 8.6 cm to the right of the lens

D) 8.6 cm to the left of the lens

E) 30 cm to the left of the lens

Q2) Tan's face is 20 cm in front of a concave shaving mirror. If he observes his image to be twice as big and upright, what is the focal length of the mirror?

A) 10 cm

B) -40 cm

C) -50 cm

D) 40 cm

E) 50 cm

Q3) An object 2.0 cm tall is placed 24 cm in front of a convex mirror having a focal length of magnitude 30 cm.

(a) Where is the image formed and how far is it from the mirror?

(b) How tall is the image?

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Chapter 19: Optical Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nearsighted person wears contact lenses having a power of -0.15 diopters. What is the person's uncorrected far point?

A) 1.5 m

B) 3.3 m

C) 6.0 m

D) 6.7 m

Q2) A magnifying glass has a focal length of 7.0 cm. What is the angular magnification if the image is viewed by a person having a relaxed eye with the near point of 25 cm?

A) 1.6

B) 2.6

C) 3.6

D) 4.6

Q3) Spherical lenses suffer from

A) both spherical and chromatic aberration.

B) spherical aberration, but not chromatic aberration.

C) chromatic aberration, but not spherical aberration.

D) neither spherical nor chromatic aberration.

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21

Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two electrons are \(20.0 \mathrm {~mm}\) apart at closest approach. What is the magnitude of the maximum electric force that they exert on each other?

(e = 1.60 × 10^-19 C, k = 1/4 ₀ = 9.0 10⁹ N m²/C²)

A) 5.8 × 10^-25 N

B) 2.3 × 10¹⁰ N

C) 2.3 N

D) 5.8 × 10^-27 N

Q2) A proton is placed in an electric field of intensity 800 N/C. What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the proton due to this field? (e = 1.60 × 10^-19C, m_proton = 1.67 × 10^-27 kg)

A) 7.66 × \(10 ^ { 9 }\) m/\(s ^ { 2 }\) opposite to the electric field

B) 7.66 × \(10^{10}\) m/\(s ^ { 2 }\) opposite to the electric field

C) 7.66 × \(10^{10}\) m/\(s ^ { 2 }\) in the direction of the electric field

D) 76.6 × \(10^{10}\) m/\(s ^ { 2 }\) opposite to the electric field

E) 76.6 × \(10^{10}\) m/\(s ^ { 2 }\) in the direction of the electric field

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Chapter 21: Electric Potential

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Sample Questions

Q1) A proton and an electron are released from rest, with only the electrostatic force acting. Which of the following statements must be true about them as they move toward each other? (There could be more than one correct choice.)

A) Their electric potential energy keeps increasing.

B) Their kinetic energy keeps increasing.

C) Their electric potential energy keeps decreasing.

D) Their kinetic energy keeps decreasing.

E) Their acceleration keeps decreasing.

Q2) An ideal parallel-plate capacitor having circular plates of diameter D that are a distance d apart stores energy U when it is connected across a fixed potential difference. If you want to triple the amount of energy stored in this capacitor by changing only the size of its plates, the diameter should be changed to A) 9D.

B) 3D.

C) D \(\sqrt { 3 }\)

D) \(\frac { \mathrm { D } } { \sqrt { 3 } }\)

E) \(\frac { \mathrm { D } } { 3 }\)

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Current and Resistance

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Sample Questions

Q1) A metal bar is 20 cm long and has a rectangular cross-section measuring 1.0 cm × 2.0 cm. What is the voltage drop along its length when it carries a 4000-A current? The resistivity of the metal is 1.68 × 10^-8 m.

A) 0.67 V

B) 0.34 V

C) 0.067 V

D) 0.034 V

Q2) A 10-A current flows through a wire for 2.0 min. (e = 1.60 × 10^-19C)

(a) How much charge has passed through this wire?

(b) How many electrons have passed any point in the wire?

Q3) A 9.0-V battery costs $1.49 and will run a portable CD player for 6.0 hours before running down and needing to be replaced. If this battery supplies a current of 25 mA to the player, what is the cost of the energy provided by the battery in dollars per kWh?

A) $11/kWh

B) $110/kWh

C) $1100/kWh

D) $11,000/kWh

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Chapter 23: Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) When unequal resistors are connected in series across an ideal battery,

A) the same power is dissipated in each one.

B) the potential difference across each is the same.

C) the current flowing in each is the same.

D) the equivalent resistance of the circuit is less than that of the smallest resistor.

E) the equivalent resistance of the circuit is equal to the average of all the resistances.

Q2) A resistor, an uncharged capacitor, a dc voltage source, and an open switch are all connected in series. The switch is closed at time t = 0 s. Which one of the following is a correct statement about the circuit?

A) The capacitor charges to its maximum value in one time constant.

B) The capacitor charges to its maximum value in two time constants.

C) The potential difference across the resistor is always equal to the potential difference across the capacitor.

D) Current flows through the circuit even after the capacitor is essentially fully charged.

E) Once the capacitor is essentially fully charged, there is no current in the circuit.

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25

Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) A wire carrying a current is shaped in the form of a circular loop of radius 4.0 mm. If the magnetic field strength at its center is \(1.1 \mathrm { mT }\) with no external magnetic fields present, what is the magnitude of the current flowing through the wire? ( ₀ = 4 × 10^-7 T m/A)

A) 7.0 A

B) 28 A

C) 14 A

D) 17 A

Q2) An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 3.75 kV. It enters a region where a uniform 4.0-mT magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron. Calculate the radius of the path this electron will follow in the magnetic field. (e = 1.60 × 10^-19 C, m_electron = 9.11 × 10^-31 kg)

A) 1.2 cm

B) 2.2 cm

C) 3.2 cm

D) 4.2 cm

E) 5.2 cm

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Page 26

Chapter 25: EM Induction and Em Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) The magnetic flux through a coil changes steadily from 4.0 × 10^-5 T m² to 5.0 × 10^-5 T m² in 0.10 s. What emf is induced in this coil?

A) 5.0 × 10^-4 V

B) 4.0 × 10^-4 V

C) 1.0 × 10^-4 V

D) None of the given answers are correct.

Q2) By what primary heat transfer mechanism does the sun warm the earth?

A) convection

B) conduction

C) radiation

D) All of the above processes are equally important in combination.

Q3) At what rate are photons emitted by a 50.0-W sodium vapor lamp if it is producing monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm? (c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s)

Q4) A flat circular loop having one turn and radius 5.0 cm is positioned with its plane perpendicular to a uniform 0.60-T magnetic field. The area of the loop is suddenly reduced to essentially zero in 0.50 ms. What emf is induced in the loop?

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Chapter 26: AC Electricity

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Q1) The inductance of a solenoid that is 16.0 cm long and has a cross-sectional area of 1.00 × \(10^{ - 4}\) \(m ^ { 2 }\) is \(1.00 \mathrm { mH }\) How many turns of wire does this solenoid have? ( ₀ = 4 × 10^-7 T m/A)

A) 318,000

B) 159,000

C) 1130

D) 282

E) 150

Q2) A 6.0- F capacitor is connected to an ac signal with a frequency of 60 Hz. If the maximum voltage applied to the capacitor is 8.0 V, what is its capacitive reactance?

A) 6.0

B) 440

C) 7.5 × \(10^{ - 6}\)

D) 740

E) 160

Q3) American power plants usually supply 120 V ac.

(a) At what frequency is this voltage supplied?

(b) What is the maximum voltage?

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28

Chapter 27: Relativity

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Q1) If the kinetic energy of a particle is 3.00 times its rest energy, the speed of the particle is closest to which of the following values?

A) 0.950c

B) 0.968c

C) 0.976c

D) 0.984c

E) 0.990c

Q2) A spaceship visits a star that is 4.5 light-years from Earth, and the spaceship travels at one-half the speed of light for the entire trip.

(a) How long did the trip take according to an observer on Earth?

(b) How long did the trip take according to an observer on the spaceship?

Q3) A really high-speed train moves in a direction parallel to its length with a speed that approaches the speed of light. The height of the train, as measured by a stationary observer on the ground,

A) approaches infinity.

B) approaches zero.

C) increases slightly.

D) decreases slightly.

E) does not change due to the motion.

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Quantum Physics

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Q1) A photocathode having a work function of 2.8 eV is illuminated with monochromatic electromagnetic radiation whose photon energy is 4.0 eV. What is the threshold (cutoff) frequency for photoelectron production? (1 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s)

A) 6.8 × 10¹⁴_Hz

B) 2.9 × 10¹⁴_Hz

C) 7.7 × 10¹⁴_Hz

D) 8.6 × 10¹⁴_Hz

E) 9.7 × 10¹⁴_Hz

Q2) When a photoelectric surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 437 nm, the stopping potential is measured to be 1.67 V. (1 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J, e = 1.60 × 10^-19 C, m_electron = 9.11 × 10^-31 kg, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s)

(a) What is the work function of the metal, in eV?

(b) What is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons?

Q3) Calculate the kinetic energy, in electron-volts, of a neutron that has a de Broglie wavelength of \(7.2 \times 10 ^{- 12 }\mathrm {~m}\) (m_neutron = 1.675 × 10^-27 kg, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10^-19 J, h = 6.626 × 10^-34J s)

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Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules

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Q1) A hydrogen atom with a barely bound electron may have an average radius as large as a bacterium, which is a radius of \(14 \mu \mathrm { m } .\) What is the nearest principal quantum number of the atom in this state? The radius for ground state hydrogen is 0.0529 nm.

A) 514

B) 51

C) 16

D) 264,650

Q2) How many values of the magnetic quantum number, m, are possible if the orbital angular momentum quantum number is = 2?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

Q3) The distance between adjacent orbits in a hydrogen atom

A) increases with increasing values of n.

B) decreases with increasing values of n.

C) remains constant for all values of n.

D) varies randomly with increasing values of n.

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics

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Q1) Bismuth \( ^{212}

_{83} \) Bi is known to be radioactive. The stability of \(\ ^{212}

_{83}\) Bi with respect to alpha, beta-plus and beta-minus decay is to be determined.

The following atomic masses are known: \( ^{4}

_{2} \) He: 4.002603 u \(^{208} _{81} \) Tl: 207.981998 u \( ^{212}

_{82}\) Pb: 211.991871 u \(^{212}

_{83} \)Bi: 211.991255 u \(^{212}

_{84}

Po\): 211.988842 u The \(^{212} _{83}

Bi\) nucleus is

A) subject to alpha decay only.

B) subject to beta-plus decay only.

C) subject to beta-minus decay only.

D) subject to alpha or beta-plus decay, but not beta-minus decay.

E) subject to alpha or beta-minus decay, but not beta-plus decay.

Q2) The mean life (time constant) of rubidium-86 is 26.8 d. What is its half-life?

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