College Physics Practice Exam - 2135 Verified Questions by Quizplus

College Physics

Practice Exam

Course Introduction

College Physics is an introductory course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles of physics. Topics typically include mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, electricity and magnetism, optics, and modern physics concepts. The course emphasizes conceptual understanding, problem-solving skills, and practical applications, often supported by laboratory experiments and demonstrations. Students learn to apply mathematical techniques to analyze physical phenomena and gain a foundational appreciation for how physics governs the natural world and informs modern technology. College Physics is ideal for students pursuing studies in health sciences, life sciences, or pre-professional tracks, as well as those seeking a solid grounding in physical science.

Recommended Textbook

Physics 10th Edition by John D. Cutnell

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

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Q1) The mass of a raindrop is 4 milligrams. Which one of the following statements indicates the correct mass of the raindrop in grams?

A)The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 106 grams.

B)The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 10-3 grams.

C)The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 10-1 grams.

D)The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 103 grams.

E)The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 10-6 grams.

Answer: B

Q2) Town A lies 20 km north of town B. Town C lies 13 km west of town A. A small plane flies directly from town B to town C. What is the displacement of the plane?

A)33 km, 33° north of west

B)19 km, 33° north of west

C)24 km, 57° north of west

D)31 km, 57° north of west

E)6.6 km, 40° north of west

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Kinematics in One Dimension

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Q1) A ball is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. The ball rises to some maximum height and falls back toward the surface of the earth. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true if air resistance is neglected?

A)As the ball rises, its acceleration vector points upward.

B)The ball is a freely falling body for the duration of its flight.

C)The acceleration of the ball is zero when the ball is at its highest point.

D)The speed of the ball is negative while the ball falls back toward the earth.

E)The velocity and acceleration of the ball always point in the same direction. Answer: B

Q2) Which statement accurately describes the motion of the particle?

A)The particle travels 4 meters during each second.

B)The particle travels 4 meters during the first second only.

C)The speed of the particle increases by 4 m/s during each second.

D)The acceleration of the particle increases by 4 m/s2 during each second.

E)The final velocity of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.

Answer: C

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Kinematics in Two Dimensions

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Q1) An eagle is flying due east at 8.9 m/s carrying a gopher in its talons. The gopher manages to break free at a height of 12 m. What is the magnitude of the gopher's velocity as it reaches the ground? Note: effects of air resistance are not included in this calculation.

A)22 m/s

B)18 m/s

C)11 m/s

D)9.8 m/s

E)8.9 m/s

Answer: B

Q2) What was the magnitude of the displacement of the spaceship during the 25 seconds?

A)2.0 × 104 m

B)1.4 × 104 m

C)2.8 × 104 m

D)1.0 × 104 m

E)1.7 × 102 m

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Q1) What is the acceleration of the "two block" system?

A)1 m/s2

B)2 m/s2

C)3 m/s2

D)6 m/s2

E)15 m/s2

Q2) At a playground, a child slides down a slide that makes a 42° angle with the horizontal direction. The coefficient of kinetic friction for the child sliding on the slide is 0.20. What is the magnitude of her acceleration during her sliding?

A)4.6 m/s2

B)5.1 m/s2

C)5.4 m/s2

D)6.3 m/s2

E)9.8 m/s2

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Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Q1) At the instant shown in the drawing, which arrow indicates the direction of the acceleration of the rocket?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5

Q2) What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the Jeep as it travels from B to C?

A)2 m/s2

B)5 m/s2

C)10 m/s2

D)20 m/s2

E)zero m/s2

Q3) Determine the magnitude of the net force that acts on the vehicle.

A)390 N

B)1800 N

C)8.5 × 103 N

D)1.5 × 104 N

E)zero newtons

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Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Q1) Larry's gravitational potential energy is 1870 J as he sits 2.20 m above the ground in a sky diving airplane before it takes off. What is Larry's gravitational potential energy when be begins to jump from the airplane at an altitude of 923 m?

A)7.85 × 105 J

B)1.87 × 103 J

C)3.29 × 104 J

D)9.36 × 102 J

E)4.22 × 106 J

Q2) An experimental 1500-kg car travels at a constant speed of 22 m/s around a circular test track that is 80 m across. What is the kinetic energy of the car?

A)zero joules

B)3.6 × 105 J

C)3.3 × 104 J

D)1.6 × 104 J

E)7.2 × 105 J

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Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Q1) Complete the following statement: A collision is elastic if

A)the final velocities are zero.

B)the objects stick together.

C)the final kinetic energy is zero.

D)the final momentum is zero.

E)the total kinetic energy is conserved.

Q2) A stunt person jumps from the roof of a tall building, but no injury occurs because the person lands on a large, air-filled bag. Which one of the following best describes why no injury occurs?

A)The bag provides the necessary force to stop the person.

B)The bag reduces the impulse to the person.

C)The bag increases the amount of time the force acts on the person and reduces the change in momentum.

D)The bag decreases the amount of time during which the momentum is changing and reduces the average force on the person.

E)The bag increases the amount of time during which the momentum is changing and reduces the average force on the person.

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Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Q1) A wheel with a 0.10-m radius is rotating at 35 rev/s. It then slows uniformly to 15 rev/s over a 3.0-s interval. What is the angular acceleration of a point on the wheel?

A)-2.0 rev/s2

B)0.67 rev/s2

C)-6.7 rev/s2

D)42 rev/s2

E)-17 rev/s2

Q2) What is the ratio of the angular speed (at any instant) of a point on the end of the rod to that of a point a distance L/2 from the end of the rod?

A)1:1

B)1:2

C)2:1

D)4:1

E)1:4

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Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) A meter stick is pivoted at the 0.50-m line. A 3.0-kg object is hung from the 0.15-m line. Where should a 5.0-kg object be hung to achieve equilibrium (the meter stick oriented horizontal and motionless)?

A)0.06-m line

B)0.24-m line

C)0.56-m line

D)0.71-m line

E)A 5.0-kg object cannot be placed anywhere on the meter stick to result in equilibrium in this system.

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the angular momentum of this hoop?

A)It points into the paper.

B)It points out of the paper.

C)It points to the left.

D)It points to the right.

E)It varies from point to point on the hoop.

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Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Q1) A 0.750-kg object hanging from a vertical spring is observed to oscillate with a period of 1.50 s. When the 0.750-kg object is removed and replaced by a 1.50-kg object, what will be the period of oscillation?

A)1.55 s

B)2.58 s

C)2.12 s

D)3.38 s

E)4.49 s

Q2) A cable stretches by an amount d when it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is then cut into three equal pieces. If the same crate is supported by any one of these pieces, by how much will the cable stretch?

A)d

B)d/3

C)d/6

D)3d

E)9d

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Chapter 11: Fluids

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Q1) What is the total force exerted on the bottom of the swimming pool?

A)2.40 × 107 N

B)5.40 × 107 N

C)3.92 × 107 N

D)7.50 × 107 N

E)8.40 × 107 N

Q2) Complete the following statement: Bernoulli's principle is a statement of A)hydrostatic equilibrium.

B)thermal equilibrium in fluids.

C)mechanical equilibrium in fluids.

D)energy conservation in dynamic fluids.

E)momentum conservation in dynamic fluids.

Q3) Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of A)Pascal's principle.

B)Bernoulli's principle.

C)Archimedes' principle.

D)irrotational flow.

E)the continuity equation.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Q1) The coefficient of volumetric expansion for gold is 4.20 × 10-5/C°. The density of gold is 19 300 kg/m3 at 0.0 °C. What is the density of gold at 1050 °C?

A)20 200 kg/ m3

B)19 300 kg/m3

C)19 000 kg/m3

D)18 800 kg/m3

E)18 500 kg/m3

Q2) What is the minimum amount of energy required to completely melt a 7.25-kg lead brick which has a starting temperature of 18.0 °C? The melting point of lead is 328 °C. The specific heat capacity of lead is 128 J/(kg · C°); and its latent heat of fusion is 23 200 J/kg.

A)1.20 × 105 J

B)1.68 × 105 J

C)2.88 × 105 J

D)4.56 × 105 J

E)7.44 × 105 J

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Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Q1) Which one of the following objects, all initially at the same temperature, will be most efficient in losing heat?

A)a dull black box in vacuum

B)a dull black box in air

C)a box with an emissivity of 0.1

D)a polished silver box in air

E)a polished silver box in vacuum

Q2) Assuming a filament in a 100 W light bulb acts like a perfect blackbody, what is the temperature of the hottest portion of the filament if it has a surface area of 6.3 × 10-5 m2? The Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.67 × 10-8 W/(m2 · K2).

A)130 K

B)1100 K

C)2300 K

D)5800 K

E)30 000 K

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Page 15

Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Q1) A tank contains 135 moles of the monatomic gas argon at a temperature of 15.3 °C. How much energy must be added to the gas to increase its temperature to 45.0 °C?

A)2.50 × 103 J

B)3.33 × 104 J

C)5.00 × 104 J

D)5.70 × 105 J

E)7.50 × 106 J

Q2) How many moles are in a 0.53-kg sample of sulphur dioxide, SO2? (atomic masses: C = 32 u; O = 16 u)

A)5.2

B)8.3

C)48

D)1.6 × 104

E)5.0 × 1024

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Q1) A Carnot engine has a heat input of 3700 J and heat exhaust of 1400 J. What is the ratio of the Kelvin temperature of the hot reservoir to that of the cold reservoir, TH/TC?

A)3.6

Q2) Under which one of the following conditions would a Carnot heat engine be 100% efficient?

A)The engine discharges heat at 0 K.

B)The engine uses no heat.

C)The engine does no work.

D)The engine can be operated in reverse.

E)The engine uses an ideal gas.

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Q1) What is the minimum time required for the particles to return to their respective positions at t = 0 s?

A)0.1 s

B)0.2 s

C)0.3 s

D)0.4 s

E)0.7 s

Q2) What is the frequency of the wave?

A)0.67 Hz

B)1.33 Hz

C)13 Hz

D)30 Hz

E)57 Hz

Q3) How far has the initial compression traveled when the second compression is emitted?

A)0.77 m

B)1.56 m

C)7.7 m

D)15.5 m

E)35 m

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Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and Interference

Phenomena

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Q1) Two identical tuning forks vibrate at 587 Hz. After a small piece of clay is placed on one of them, eight beats per second are heard. What is the period of the tuning fork that holds the clay?

A)1.68 × 10-3 s

B)1.70 × 10-3 s

C)1.73 × 10-3 s

D)1.76 × 10-3 s

E)1.80 × 10-3 s

Q2) What is the lowest possible frequency for standing waves on this string?

A)50.0 Hz

B)33.3 Hz

C)25.0 Hz

D)16.7 Hz

E)8.33 Hz

Q3) How many antinodes will be found on the 112 Hz resonance?

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) A charge Q exerts a 1.2 N force on another charge q. If the distance between the charges is doubled, what is the magnitude of the force exerted on Q by q?

A)0.30 N

B)0.60 N

C)2.4 N

D)3.6 N

E)4.8 N

Q2) Is it possible to choose the value of Q (that is non-zero) such that the force on Q is zero? Explain why or why not.

A)Yes, because the forces on Q are vectors and three vectors can add to zero.

B)No, because the forces on Q are vectors and three vectors can never add to zero.

C)Yes, because the electric force at the mid-point between B and C is zero whether a charge is placed there or not.

D)No, because the forces on Q due to the charges at B and C point in the same direction.

E)No, because a fourth charge would be needed to cancel the force on Q due to the charge at A.

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Q1) Suppose that a dielectric sheet is inserted to completely fill the space between the plates and the potential difference between the plates drops to 1000 V. What is the capacitance of the system after the dielectric is inserted?

A)1.8 × 10-10 F

B)2.7 × 10-10 F

C)5.4 × 10-10 F

D)6.2 × 10-10 F

E)6.8 × 10-10 F

Q2) If a proton, which has a charge of +1.60 × 10-19 C, is moved from rest at A to rest at B, what is change in electrical potential energy of the proton?

A)+2.1 × 10-14 J

B)+3.2 × 10-14 J

C)- 4.3 × 10-15 J

D)- 5.4 × 10-15 J

E)zero joules

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Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Q1) Which one of the following quantities can be converted to kilowatt . hours (kWh)?

A)2.0 A

B)8.3 V

C)5.8 J

D)9.6 W

E)6.2 C/V

Q2) Determine the total charge on both capacitors two time constants after the switch is closed.

A)1.3 × 10-3 C

B)2.2 × 10-3 C

C)4.7 × 10-3 C

D)6.1 × 10-3 C

E)8.3 × 10-3 C

Q3) Determine the numerical value of the resistance R.

A)0.37 \(\varOmega\)

B)2.70 \(\varOmega\)

C)5.0 × 104 \(\varOmega\)

D)2.0 × 105 \(\varOmega\)

E)4.3 × 105 \(\varOmega\)

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Q1) An electron traveling due south enters a region that contains both a magnetic field and an electric field. The electric field lines point due west. It is observed that the electron continues to travel in a straight line due south. In which direction must the magnetic field lines point?

A)up

B)down

C)east

D)west

E)south

Q2) A single circular loop of wire of radius 0.45 m carries a constant current of 2.4 A. The loop may be rotated about an axis that passes through the center and lies in the plane of the loop. When the orientation of the normal to the loop with respect to the direction of the magnetic field is 36°, the torque on the coil is 1.5 N . m. What is the magnitude of the uniform magnetic field exerting this torque on the loop?

A)0.37 T

B)1.7 T

C)3.0 T

D)0.46 T

E)0.80 T

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?

A)The temperature of the circuit remains constant.

B)The induced current flows clockwise around the circuit.

C)Since the circuit moves with constant speed, the force F does zero work.

D)If the circuit were replaced with a wooden loop, there would be no induced emf.

E)As the circuit moves through the field, the field does work to produce the current.

Q2) If the magnetic field is held constant at 3.0 T and the loop is pulled out of the region that contains the field in 0.2 s, what is the magnitude of the average induced emf in the loop?

A)8.6 × 10-3 V

B)9.8 × 10-2 V

C)2.7 × 10-2 V

D)5.4 × 10-2 V

E)6.4 × 10-2 V

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Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) Determine the peak voltage of the generator.

A)180 V

B)255 V

C)300 V

D)360 V

E)480 V

Q2) A series RCL circuit is comprised of a 3.00-mH inductor and a 5.00-µF capacitor. What is the resonant frequency of this circuit?

A)11.9 Hz

B)69.4 Hz

C)1.06 × 102 Hz

D)8.27 × 102 Hz

E)1.30 × 103 Hz

Q3) What is the average power supplied to the circuit?

A)48 W

B)54 W

C)63 W

D)83 W

E)112 W

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) The average distance between the surface of the earth and the surface of the sun is 1.49 × 1011 m. How much time, in minutes, does it take light leaving the surface of the sun to reach the earth?

A)zero minutes

B)2.9 × 10-3 min

C)8.3 min

D)74 min

E)500 min

Q2) An FM radio station generates radio waves that have a frequency of 101.3 MHz. The frequency of the waves from a competing station have a frequency of 107.1 MHz. What is the difference in wavelength between the waves emitted from the two stations?

A)0.22 m

B)0.45 m

C)0.84 m

D)2.4 m

E)0.16 m

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Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning rays is false?

A)Rays point in the direction of the wave velocity.

B)Rays point outward from the wave source.

C)Rays are parallel to the wave front.

D)Rays are radial lines that originate from a point source of waves.

E)Rays for a plane wave are parallel to each other.

Q2) The focal length of a spherical concave mirror is 25 cm. What is its radius of curvature?

A)5 cm

B)10 cm

C)25 cm

D)40 cm

E)50 cm

Q3) Santa Claus looks at his reflection in a spherical Christmas tree ornament. Which one of the following statements concerning Santa's image is true?

A)The image must be real.

B)The image is farther from the ornament than Santa is.

C)The image is larger than Santa.

D)The image must be inverted.

E)The image must be smaller than Santa.

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) When certain light rays pass from a vacuum into a block of an unknown material, the measured index of refraction of the material is 3.00. What is the speed of light inside the block?

A)9.9 × 106 m/s

B)4.8 × 107 m/s

C)1.0 × 108 m/s

D)1.9 × 108 m/s

E)2.9 × 108 m/s

Q2) Determine the largest value of the angle \(\alpha\) so that the ray is totally reflected at the face ac if the prism is immersed in a liquid with refractive index 1.12.

A)21°

B)34°

C)69°

D)78°

E)Total internal reflection will not occur for any value of \(\alpha\).

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) Which fringe is the third order maximum? A)A B)B

D)D

E)E

Q2) Light from two sources, \(\lambda\)1 = 623 nm and \(\lambda\)2 = 488 nm, is incident on a diffraction grating that has 5550 lines/cm. What is the angular separation, \(\theta\)1\(\theta\)2, of the second order maxima of the two waves?

A)11.0°

B)15.0°

C)25.0°

D)32.8°

E)43.8°

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Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning the proper length of a meter stick is true?

A)The proper length is always one meter.

B)The proper length depends upon the speed of the observer.

C)The proper length depends upon the acceleration of the observer.

D)The proper length depends upon the reference frame in which it is measured.

E)The proper length is the length measured by an observer who is moving with respect to the meter stick.

Q2) A spaceship leaves our solar system at a constant speed of 0.920c and travels to a point in the Andromeda galaxy. According to astronomers in an inertial reference frame on Earth, the distance to the galaxy is 2.081 × 1022 m. What distance does the crew on the ship measure on its journey?

A)9.07 × 1021 m

B)9.85 × 1021 m

C)1.91 × 1022 m

D)8.16 × 1021 m

E)4.77 × 1022 m

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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Q1) The Hubble Space Telescope has an orbital speed of 7.56 × 103 m/s and a mass of 11 600 kg. What is the de Broglie wavelength of the telescope?

A)8.77 × 107 m

B)5.81 × 10-26 m

C)6.63 × 10-34 m

D)3.78 × 10-40 m

E)7.56 × 10-42 m

Q2) The work function for a particular metal is 4.0 eV. Which one of the following best describes the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation needed to eject electrons from this metal?

A)310 nm or greater

B)310 nm or smaller

C)620 nm or greater

D)620 nm or smaller

E)800 nm or greater

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Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following electronic configurations corresponds to an atomic ground state?

A)1s2 2s1 2p6 B)1s1 2s1 2p1 C)1s1 2s2 3p1 D)1s2 2s2 2p1 E)1s1 2s2 2p1

Q2) The ground state electronic configuration of a neon atom is 1s2 2s2 2p6. How many of these electrons have magnetic quantum number ml = 0?

A)2

B)4

C)6

D)8

E)10

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Complete the following sentence: In a \(\beta\)+ decay process, the emitted particle is

A)an electron.

B)a neutron.

C)a positron.

D)a proton.

E)a photon.

Q2) Determine the activity of 6.0 × 1012 atoms of Rn-220 that has a half-life of 56 s.

A)2.0 Ci

B)2.5 Ci

C)3.0 Ci

D)3.5 Ci

E)4.0 Ci

Q3) Which one of the following descriptive terms does not apply to nuclear forces?

A)strong

B)charge-independent

C)weak

D)short-range

E)long-range

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Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following processes causes the explosion of a nuclear bomb?

A)beta decay

B)alpha decay

C)moderation

D)photon absorption

E)chain reaction

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the proton?

A)The proton cannot be further subdivided.

B)The proton is composed of two up quarks and a down quark.

C)The proton is composed of two down quarks and an up quark.

D)The proton is composed of a down quark and an up antiquark.

E)The proton is composed of an up quark and a down antiquark.

Q3) A biological tissue is irradiated with neutrons. The biologically equivalent dose of the neutrons is 2.6 × 102 rem. Determine the RBE of the neutrons if the absorbed dose is 130 rd.

A)0.5

Page 34

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