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Collaborative Nursing Practice focuses on developing the skills essential for effective teamwork and interprofessional communication in diverse healthcare settings. The course emphasizes the roles and responsibilities of nurses within multidisciplinary teams, fostering mutual respect, shared decision-making, and the integration of ethical principles. Students will learn conflict resolution strategies, patient-centered care approaches, and techniques to enhance positive patient outcomes through collaboration with patients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Through case studies, simulations, and experiential learning, this course prepares future nurses to actively contribute to quality, safety, and holistic care in their practice.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Nursing Active Learning for Collaborative Practice 1st Edition by Yoost
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1050 Verified Questions
1050 Flashcards
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Q1) The nursing instructor is researching the five proficiencies regarded as essential for students and professionals. Which organization, if explored by the instructor, would be found to have added safety as a sixth competency?
A) Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
B) Institute of Medicine (IOM)
C) American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
D) National League for Nursing (NLN)
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who lost a large amount of blood during childbirth. The nurse provides the opportunity for the patient to maintain her activity level while providing adequate periods of rest and encouragement. Which nursing theory would the nurse most likely choose as a framework for addressing the fatigue associated with the low blood count?
A) Watson Human Caring Theory
B) Parse's Theory of Human Becoming
C) Roy's Adaptation Model
D) Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings
Answer: C
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Q1) A group of students are discussing the history of nursing. A student states, "Yea, nurses used to be called the doctor's handmaiden." This type of comment is known as a:
A) prejudice.
B) generalization.
C) stereotype.
D) belief.
Answer: C
Q2) Patients who enter the health care system have two reasonable expectations. The first is not to be harmed, and the second is that the nurses providing care will be both competent and compassionate. Provision of care that is consistent and delivered in a predictable way can make the experience less intimidating for the patient. The nurse provides predictable care by:
A) Explaining what is going to take place beforehand.
B) Never making promises to patients.
C) Assuring the patient that his/her requests will get done eventually.
D) Protect the patient from knowing why things are happening.
Answer: A
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Q1) The nurse is admitting a patient with a foul smelling leg wound. Which behavior by the nurse indicates an understanding of appropriate body language?
A) Using hand gestures to enhance verbal communication
B) Standing at the end of the bed with arms crossed
C) Facial grimacing at the sight of the wound
D) Gentle touching of the patient's shoulder
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse observes a confused patient pacing back and forth in the dining room. The patient yells, "The doctor is going to make us all drink poison!" The most appropriate intervention at this time would be to:
A) ask the patient why he would say something like that.
B) change the subject to disrupt the patient's thought process.
C) tell the patient that he should probably think of something else.
D) quietly ask the patient to explain the statement.
Answer: D
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Q1) The nurse has been hired for her first job and is nervous about making errors in clinical judgment. It is important for the nurse to realize that clinical reasoning and the ability to make decisions in a clinical setting:
A) has been instilled in the content covered in nursing school. B) is solely based in clinical experience.
C) develops over time with increased knowledge and expertise. D) is an expectation of all nurses regardless of experience.
Q2) The nurse is taking an advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) recertification class. As part of that class, the nurse, and other nurses in the group, rotates responsibilities during multiple mock code exercises simulating cardiac arrest scenarios. The process of assigning nurses to different responsibilities is known as:
A) concept mapping.
B) simulation.
C) role playing.
D) literature review.
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Q1) The nurse is gathering data on a patient with acute bacterial pneumonia. This is an example of which step of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Q2) The nurse is completing the health history on a patient admitted for cardiac rehabilitation. The health history is conducted in which step of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Q3) The nursing process is the foundation of professional nursing practice. As such, the nursing process can be defined as:
A) The framework that nurses used to provide care.
B) A complex process during which nurses think about their thinking.
C) The process that allows nurses to collect essential data.
D) Thinking like a nurse in developing plans of care.
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Q1) A nurse is conducting a health interview on a newly admitted patient. To establish a trusting relationship with the patient, the nurse:
A) avoids eye contact to appear less threatening.
B) demonstrates professionalism by not smiling.
C) sits close and leans in slightly toward the patient.
D) speaks in a slow rate of speech and low tone.
Q2) The triage nurse in a hospital emergency department is determining the order of care for several patients. Which of the following would the nurse consider as having the highest priority?
A) A 68-year-old patient suffering from dehydration and disorientation
B) A 14-year-old patient having respiratory distress and increasing anxiety
C) A 46-year-old patient with multiple cuts and abrasions to the upper extremities
D) A 38-year-old patient with a broken right hip and in severe pain
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Q1) The nurse is admitting a patient with severe dehydration. Assessment data reveal a decreased blood pressure, an increased pulse rate, and a low circulating blood volume. The student observes that the patient is confused and restless. Which patient information would the nurse consider as a contributing factor when choosing the nursing diagnostic label?
A) Blood pressure, pulse rate
B) Blood pressure, pulse rate, blood volume
C) Blood pressure, pulse rate, blood volume, mental status
D) Blood pressure, pulse rate, blood volume, mental status, dehydration
Q2) The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with gastritis and an inflammation of the intestines. The patient is complaining of severe abdominal discomfort and nausea. The patient also reports having restless leg syndrome and an inability to urinate. As a problem statement of the nursing diagnosis, the nurse should write:
A) Gastritis related to inflammation.
B) Alterations in comfort and ability to void.
C) Abdominal pain and nausea related to inflammation.
D) Alteration in comfort related to restless leg syndrome and inflammation.
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Q1) An example of a measurable goal would be:
A) "The patient will be able to lift 10 lb by the end of week one."
B) "The patient will be able to lift weights by the end of the week."
C) "The patient will be able to lift his normal weight amount."
D) "The patient will be able to life an acceptable amount of weight by week one."
Q2) The nurse is accurate when stating that adequate discharge planning:
A) "May decrease the incidence of patients required to return to the hospital."
B) "Increases complications and readmissions in most cases."
C) "Adapts to the situation as the patient's conditions changes."
D) "Should begin as soon as the patient is discharged home."
Q3) In developing the nursing care plan, the nurse creates goals:
A) with the patient and possibly the family.
B) that the nurse wants the patient to achieve.
C) and actions needed to accomplish the goal.
D) that are aggressive to ensure success.
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Q1) Of the following interventions, which are prevention oriented? (Select all that apply.)
A) Immunization programs
B) Cleansing an incision
C) Cardiac education related to risk factor modification
D) Placing infants prone when they sleep
E) Teaching patients to ask their physicians to wash their hands
F) None of the above
Q2) After the nurse completes a patient's initial assessment and develops a plan of care:
A) continual reassessment of the patient is required.
B) no changes to the care interventions should be allowed.
C) reassessment should be done randomly.
D) the nursing process becomes static to maintain the course of the cure.
Q3) Which of the following is a direct care intervention?
A) Administration of an injection
B) Making the change-of-shift report
C) Collaborating with members of the health care team
D) Ensuring availability of needed equipment
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Q1) Accurate documentation by the nurse is necessary since proper documentation:
A) is needed for proper reimbursement.
B) must be electronically generated.
C) does not involve e-mails or faxes.
D) is only legal if written by hand.
Q2) Nursing documentation is an important part of effective communication among nurses and with other health care providers. As such, the nurse:
A) documents facts.
B) documents how he/she feels about the care being provided.
C) documents in a "block" fashion once per shift.
D) double documents as often as possible in order to not miss anything.
Q3) Paper records are being replaced by other forms of record keeping because:
A) paper is fragile and susceptible to damage.
B) paper records are always available to multiple people at a time.
C) paper records can be stored without difficulty and are easily retrievable.
D) paper records are permanent and last indefinitely.
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Q1) The nurse realizes that a medication error has been made. The nurse then reports the error and takes responsibility to ensure patient safety despite personal consequences. This nurse has exhibited:
A) autonomy.
B) accountability.
C) justice.
D) advocacy.
Q2) The nurse frequently cares for patients who are nearing the end of life. A strategy that is designed to prolong the time of death rather than restoring life is:
A) establishing a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order.
B) adherence to living will requests.
C) removal of extraordinary measures already in place.
D) continuance of futile care.
Q3) Which of the following statements indicates an appropriate understanding by the student nurse (SN)?
A) "I will be held to the same ethical standards as professional nurses."
B) "I will not be held ethically accountable until I graduate."
C) "My nurse educators are responsible for my ethical standards."
D) "Ethics are not important as a student."
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Q1) A patient is found unresponsive and pulseless. The nurse begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and calls for help. When help arrives, the nurse should take on the role of:
A) autocratic leader.
B) democratic leader.
C) laissez-faire leader.
D) bureaucratic leader.
Q2) The manager of the intensive care unit is accepting an award for excellence and efficiency in the provision of patient care. The manager accepts the award for the unit and cites the contributions of her staff since, without their expertise and dedication, the award may not have been achieved. The manager is demonstrating the quality of:
A) dedication.
B) openness.
C) magnanimity.
D) creativity.
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Q1) An institutional review board (IRB) is a review committee established to:
A) approve research involving animal subjects.
B) approve research that is not government funded.
C) function differently than scholarly journals do.
D) protect the rights of human research subjects.
Q2) While conducting a controlled research study, the nurse wants greater assurance that the result is due to treatment itself and not another factor. For this purpose, the researcher should include:
A) a treatment group.
B) an independent variable.
C) a dependent variable.
D) a control group.
Q3) The acronym PICO assists in remembering the steps to constructing a good research question. The "O" in the acronym stands for:
A) objectivity.
B) ordinal approach.
C) outcome.
D) observer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must provide patient education to a patient who has just been told by the patient that he has stage III lung cancer. The patient is complaining of chest and bone discomfort. Before providing the needed education, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A) draw the curtain in the semi-private room.
B) medicate the patient to ease his pain.
C) place the patient in a private room if possible.
D) perhaps wait until later in the day.
E) keep the room dark to provide solitude.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to teach a 90-year-old patient. In teaching an elderly patient, the nurse realizes that:
A) most elderly patients are highly literate.
B) cognitive abilities always decline with age.
C) sensory alterations often occur with aging.
D) teaching methods are the same as for the middle aged.
Q3) In determining patient goals, the nurse should:
A) allow patients to identify what is most important to them.
B) take the lead and determine what is best for the patient.
C) should focus on health promotion and staying healthy.
D) explain the importance of avoiding complications.
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Q1) Computerized provider order entry (CPOE) allows orders to be directly communicated to the appropriate department. Other advantages of CPOE include:
A) decrease in number of transcribing errors.
B) enhanced provider acceptance because of new technology.
C) decreased work flow issues in general.
D) less dependence on technology and computers.
Q2) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996: (Select all that apply.)
A) requires the user to have verification codes.
B) ensures access to information without fear of audits.
C) sets the standards on how information is maintained.
D) sets the penalties for any breach in security of health data.
E) has no legal authority relative to security issues.
Q3) One classification system for nursing informatics competencies uses technical, utility, and leadership categories. Leadership competencies involve:
A) maintaining privacy and confidentiality.
B) using computers and other technological equipment.
C) using a variety of software programs.
D) addressing critical thinking applications.
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Q1) A patient presents to the clinic for illness, and the sick role is legitimized by the provider. The nurse recognizes this as what stage of illness according to Suchman's Model?
A) III
B) II
C) I
D) IV
Q2) The nurse is discussing immunizations for infants and children with new parents. The nurse should focus on:
A) providing scientific evidence to parents.
B) stressing that non-immunization is a crime.
C) acknowledging that immunizations are not needed.
D) informing the parents that they have no choice.
Q3) The patient asks the nurse to explain collaborative health care partnerships. The nurse gives a correct description when stating that collaborative care:
A) does not require participation of the patient.
B) is individual and cannot be mandated or legislated.
C) education needs are delegated to assistive personnel.
D) is designed to provide care to the patient as a whole.
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Q1) A home health care nurse notes a parent becoming irritated when his toddler repeatedly throws his rattle from the high chair to the floor. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Teach the parent about age-appropriate discipline.
B) Educate the parent on age-appropriate behaviors.
C) Tell the parent to stop giving the rattle back to the child.
D) Assess the child for signs of abuse or neglect.
Q2) A school-aged child is scheduled for a minor procedure and is very nervous. What response by the nurse is best?
A) Reassure the child the procedure is too minor to worry about.
B) Read the child a pamphlet about what to expect during the procedure.
C) Tell the child you will have the provider "put her to sleep" during the procedure.
D) Explain the procedure and what to expect in simple terms.
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Q1) The nurse working with older adults encourages them to stay healthy. What instruction by the nurse takes priority?
A) Eat at least seven servings of produce a day.
B) Get at least 8 hours of sleep a night.
C) Get some exercise at least most days of the week.
D) Stay away from people who are ill.
Q2) A nurse notes an older adult puts excessive amounts of salt on her food. What intervention by the nurse is best?
A) Teach the adult how salt intake relates to hypertension.
B) Ask the older adult why she puts so much salt on food.
C) Encourage the older adult to use less salt on her food.
D) Explore other herbs and flavor enhancers with the adult.
Q3) The nurse is performing wellness checks at a community center for older adults. Which person would the nurse evaluate as having the highest risk of stroke?
A) White, 55 years of age, BP 148/92 mm Hg
B) African-American, 70 years of age, BP 150/100 mm Hg
C) Asian-American, 40 years of age, BP 146/78 mm Hg
D) White, 74 years of age, BP 150/82 mm Hg
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Q1) The nursing faculty member is observing a student taking a patient's carotid pulse. What action by the student requires intervention by the faculty member?
A) Counts pulse for 30 seconds and multiplies by two.
B) Performs hand hygiene prior to patient contact.
C) Compares pulses in both carotid arteries at the same time.
D) Assesses pulse on one side then assesses the other side.
Q2) The nurse understands that which factors can increase blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Head injury
B) Decreased fluid volume
C) Increasing age
D) Recent food intake
E) Pain
Q3) The nurse receives a handoff report on four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
A) Pain rating 4/10 after pain medication
B) Blood pressure 102/62 mm Hg
C) Pulse 42 beats/min
D) Respiratory rate 18 breaths/min
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Q1) The nurse reads in a chart that a patient has a paronychia. What assessment technique is most appropriate?
A) Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds.
B) Test the cranial nerves for sensory function.
C) Inspect the patient's nails and surrounding skin.
D) Inspect the skin using the ABCDE mnemonic.
Q2) A nurse is assessing a patient's abdomen and hears bowel sounds every 20 to 25 seconds. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Avoid palpating this patient's abdomen.
B) Document the findings in the patient's chart.
C) Have another nurse verify the findings.
D) Ask the patient when the last food intake was.
Q3) A nurse has conducted an Allen's test on a patient and the result was 8 seconds. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Document the findings and continue the assessment.
B) Notify the health care provider immediately.
C) Elevate the patient's arm above the level of the heart.
D) Assess the patient for other signs of circulatory problems.
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Q1) A nursing student wants to observe enculturation practices of an ethnic minority community. What action by the student is best?
A) Attend a community dance.
B) Learn to cook an ethnic meal.
C) Visit the group's worship service.
D) Observe a grandmother teaching a child.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient from a different culture. After assessing the patient and formulating the care plan, what action by the nurse is best?
A) Review the care plan for acceptance by the patient.
B) Delegate appropriate tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel.
C) Go over the care plan with the charge nurse.
D) Begin implementing the planned interventions.
Q3) A nurse is working with a patient who has limited English proficiency. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Use a qualified interpreter.
B) Ask family members to translate.
C) Use drawings and pictures.
D) Speak in simple sentences.
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Q1) A patient, who is an adherent Muslim, is in a burn unit with severe burns. The patient has high caloric requirements but is refusing to eat during Ramadan. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Insert a feeding tube and provide enteral feedings.
B) Ask the provider about Total Peripheral Nutrition.
C) Call the patient's religious leader for advice.
D) Tell the patient he has to eat to get better.
Q2) When does the nurse assess patients' spirituality? (Select all that apply.)
A) Upon admission
B) New diagnosis
C) Life-changing diagnosis
D) When the chaplain makes rounds
E) When facing treatment decisions
Q3) A patient is scheduled to have an MRI and has a metal religious icon pinned to his gown, which can't go in the scanner. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Take the icon off the patient's gown until she returns.
B) Give the icon to the patient's family for safekeeping.
C) Pin the icon to the patient's pillow so it can go to radiology.
D) Explain the restriction and ask the patient's preference.
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Q1) The nurse is conducting a windshield survey. What items does the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Types of housing available
B) Recreational facilities
C) Cars seen in parking lots
D) Health care facilities
E) Places of worship
Q2) The nurse has implemented a community-wide immunization program for seasonal influenza. Once the program has ended, what action by the nurse is best?
A) Begin planning for next year's program.
B) Send mail surveys to participants.
C) Determine financial gains or losses.
D) Evaluate the program and outcomes.
Q3) The student learns that which is the best definition of a public health nurse?
A) Works with the public
B) Works in public areas
C) Works with the greater community
D) Works with public funding
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Q1) A woman complains that her partner threatens her and berates her in front of the children. She denies being in an abusive relationship or being the victim of physical violence. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Tell the woman to leave the abusive partner.
B) Educate the woman on forms of domestic abuse.
C) Help the woman work on a physical safety plan.
D) Insist the woman take written information.
Q2) The nursing student learns that the function of the hypothalamus is to do which of the following?
A) Cause lactation to begin
B) Produce spermatozoa
C) Release follicle-stimulating hormone
D) Release gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Q3) A nurse is caring for a victim of domestic violence. What charting by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Patient allegedly beat up by her boyfriend.
B) Patient has several bruises on the legs.
C) Patient states, "My boyfriend hit me with a hammer."
D) Patient claims she was assaulted last night.
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that a patient is using a portable generator in the house as a power source. What source of poisoning does the nurse appropriately identify?
A) Lead
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Antifreeze
D) Pesticide
Q2) Individual factors affecting safety include those that are related to the functioning of body systems and those that are directly associated with a person's particular lifestyle. Changes in which body system affect overall mobility increasing the propensity of falling?
A) Neurologic
B) Hepatic
C) Cardiopulmonary
D) Musculoskeletal
Q3) The nurse knows that which of the following is not used to assess fall risk?
A) Glasgow Falls Scale
B) Johns Hopkins Hospital Fall Assessment Tool
C) Morse Fall Scale
D) Hendrich II Fall Risk Model
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Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient who is being discharged home on antibiotic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) by the patient indicates further education is needed? (Select all that apply.)
A) "I should take antibiotics every time I am sick."
B) "I should take all antibiotics as prescribed."
C) "I should save all unused antibiotics."
D) "I should stop taking antibiotics when I feel better."
Q2) Which statement regarding handwashing indicates a need for further education? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wash hands first, then wrists.
B) Rinse from fingertips to wrists.
C) Dry using a scrubbing motion.
D) Turn off faucet with clean, dry paper towel.
Q3) The antigen-antibody reaction is an example of what type of immunity?
A) Humoral
B) Cellular
C) Innate
D) Passive
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Q1) Which tool is used to determine risk for impaired skin integrity?
A) Braden scale
B) Glasgow scale
C) Vanderbilt scale
D) MMSE scale
Q2) What statement is true regarding oral care of patients on anticoagulants?
A) Use an electric toothbrush daily.
B) Avoid oral care.
C) Use mouthwash only.
D) Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
Q3) Which statement by the patient indicates a teaching need?
A) "I use bobby pins to remove excessive ear wax."
B) "I use soap and a warm cloth to clean the outside of my ear."
C) "My doctor sometimes gives me oil drops for my ears."
D) "I never use Q-Tips."
Q4) The nurse knows that routine hygienic care does not include:
A) massage with lotion.
B) oral care with a toothbrush.
C) shaving with a disposable razor.
D) ear hygiene with cotton-tipped applicators.
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Q1) The nurse knows the knee-high SCD sleeves are correctly placed on the patient when the following conditions are met: (Select all that apply.)
A) Both sleeves are connected to the SCD device.
B) Two fingers fit inside when the SCDs are inflated.
C) There are no kinks in the tubing.
D) The ankle pressure is 55 to 65 mm Hg.
E) The cooling control is on.
Q2) The nurse appropriately delegates care to the UAP when she:
A) instructs the UAP to assess the patient's skin during a bath.
B) instructs the UAP to reposition the patient using the trapeze.
C) instructs the UAP to assess the patient's ability to perform range-of-motion exercises.
D) instructs the UAP to notify the health care provider of any changes.
Q3) The nurse correctly selects which intervention to avoid causing shear or friction when moving a patient in bed?
A) Using an airflow bed
B) Using a slide board
C) Using a trochanter roll
D) Using a gel mattress
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has had abdominal surgery and whose wound has completely eviscerated when she walks into the room. In addition to notifying the physician, what should the nurse do?
A) Cover the wound with a sterile gauze pad.
B) Cover the wound with a transparent dressing.
C) Put pressure on the wound with a sterile gauze pad.
D) Cover the wound with gauze soaked with normal saline.
Q2) The nurse is educating the patient about the use of heat/cold therapy at home. The following statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?
A) "I should fill my ice bag 2/3 full of ice."
B) "I should use distilled water in my Aqua-K pad."
C) "I can warm up my hot pack in the microwave."
D) "I should check the order for how long to leave the compress on."
Q3) The nurse understands the rationale for drying a wound after irrigation is:
A) to ensure the new dressing adheres to the wound.
B) to ensure the new dressing remains occlusive.
C) to prevent skin breakdown from moisture.
D) to prevent infection from irrigate solution.
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Q1) The nurse is helping a patient understand the difference between macronutrients and vitamins and minerals. She is correct when she lists the following items as macronutrients: (Select all that apply.)
A) Water
B) Potassium
C) Starches
D) Fiber
E) Riboflavin
Q2) The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube in her patient. Which of the following steps in the process indicates a need for further education?
A) The nurse lubricates 4 inches of the tube prior to insertion.
B) The nurse marks the length of the tube with a marker for insertion.
C) The nurse measures the length of tube needed using the nose-earlobe-xiphoid process.
D) The nurse applies clean gloves for the procedure.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is complaining of tingling in her hands and fingers. The nurse knows this is a sign of what electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypernatremia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypercalcemia
Q2) The nurse is educating the family of a patient in the intensive care unit about the patient's cognitive status, including her current problem of delirium. Which statement by the family indicates a need for further education?
A) "The delirium can be caused by sensory overload."
B) "The delirium is reversible."
C) "The delirium is a mood disorder."
D) "The delirium is a state of confusion."
Q3) An appropriate goal for a patient with a diagnosis of social isolation is:
A) the patient will participate in cognitive exercises.
B) the patient will interact with other residents during activities.
C) the patient will communicate basic needs through use of photos.
D) the patient will remain within the unit while in long-term care.
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Q1) The nurse is teaching her patient about the difference between mild anxiety and moderate anxiety. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?
A) "Mild anxiety can help me remember things."
B) "Moderate anxiety will narrow my focus."
C) "Mild anxiety will help me be creative."
D) "Moderate anxiety will increase my perception."
Q2) The nurse manager of the unit is implementing a program to assist the nursing staff in managing compassion fatigue. Which intervention will be the most successful?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Support group that nurses can participate in that meets on the unit
B) Exercise completion to encourage nurse to exercise and log their time
C) Organized break times so nurses can get off the unit for breaks and lunches
D) Quiet area on the unit where the nurses can go during break
E) Promotion of work-life balance
F) None of the above
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Q1) The nurse knows that polysomnograpy is:
A) the recording of brain waves and other variables.
B) the relay of motor impulse to the hypothalamus.
C) the patterns of biological functioning.
D) the recording of seizure activity in the brain.
Q2) The nurse knows that cataplexy includes:
A) an uncontrolled desire to sleep.
B) falling asleep for several minutes.
C) loss of voluntary muscle tone.
D) a sleep cycle that begins with NREM.
Q3) The nurse knows the reticular activating system (RAS):
A) records brain waves and other variables.
B) relays motor impulse to the hypothalamus.
C) influences patterns of biological functioning.
D) is affected by the light-dark cycle.
Q4) The nurse knows an appropriate goal for the nursing diagnosis Insomnia is:
A) The patient will report an ability to concentrate on tasks.
B) The patient will repeat medication instructions on discharge.
C) The patient will be able to sleep for at least 2 hours at a time.
D) The patient will be able to fall asleep within 15 minutes.
Page 35
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who recently had a liver biopsy. To whom must the nurse give the results?
A) The patient
B) The patient's physician
C) The patient's insurance provider
D) The patient's spouse
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a deep leg wound that is badly infected. Which laboratory test results will the nurse expect to find in the patient's chart?
A) C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.5 mg/dL
B) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C) Serum bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL
D) Prothrombin time (PT) 11.5 sec
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who will be receiving iodine-based contrast medium for a CT scan. Which allergy should be reported to the technician and radiologist before the test is performed?
A) Gluten and lactose
B) Strawberries
C) Peanuts and cashews
D) Shrimp and scallops
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is in agonizing pain. All of the following options are listed on the patient's medication order sheet to relive pain. Which will provide the most rapid pain relief for the patient?
A) Morphine 10 mg PO
B) Dilaudid 1 mg IV push
C) Demerol 75 mg IM
D) Duragesic 50 mcg transdermal patch
Q2) The nurse begins a shift on a busy medical-surgical unit. The nurse will be caring for multiple patients. Which patient will the nurse assess first?
A) A patient who would like some acetaminophen (Tylenol) for a mild headache
B) A patient who has a question about her daily medications
C) A patient who needs discharge teaching about an antibiotic
D) A patient who just received nitroglycerin for chest pain
Q3) Which medication has the highest potential for abuse?
A) Methylphenidate (Ritalin) - schedule II
B) Alprazolam (Xanax) - schedule IV
C) Acetaminophen & codeine (Tylenol #3) - schedule III
D) Diphenoxylate & atropine (Lomotil) - schedule V
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Q1) The nurse is checking on the patient after administering pain medication 30 minutes previously. Which assessment finding best indicates to the nurse that the pain medication was effective?
A) The patient is sleeping quietly.
B) The patient states that she has no pain.
C) The patient's respirations are slow and regular.
D) The patient's blood pressure has returned to baseline.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who only speaks a foreign language. What is the best method for the nurse to assess the patient's pain level?
A) Perform a pain assessment using a translator.
B) Check the patient's vital signs and pulse oximetry.
C) Check the patient's respiratory rate, depth, and rhythm.
D) Look to see if the patient appears to be resting comfortably.
Q3) Which assessment question helps the nurse determine the character of the patient's pain?
A) "What does the pain feel like, i.e. stabbing, burning or throbbing?"
B) "When did the pain first start?"
C) "What interventions make the pain better?"
D) "Is there any pattern to when the pain occurs?"
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been brought to the postoperative unit following major surgery. The patient has many tubes and monitors in place. Which will the nurse assess first?
A) The patient's intravenous lines
B) The patient's urinary catheter
C) The patient's nasogastric tube
D) The patient's endotracheal tube
Q2) The nurse is walking a postoperative patient in the hallway when she notices a large red stain of fresh blood on the patient's gown over the abdominal incision. The patient states, "I felt something just ripped open." What is the priority action of the nurse?
A) Lift up the patient's gown and assess the incision.
B) Assist the patient to the floor and call for assistance.
C) Return the patient to bed and irrigate the wound with sterile saline.
D) Check the patient's vital signs and pulse oximetry.
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Q1) The nurse finds the patient in cardiopulmonary arrest with no pulse or respirations. Which oxygen delivery device will the nurse use for this patient?
A) Non-rebreather mask
B) Bag-valve-mask unit
C) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D) High-flow nasal cannula
Q2) The preceptor is working with a new nurse to suction a patient through his new tracheostomy. Which actions by the new nurse indicate need for additional teaching about the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) The suction is not applied to the catheter until it is being withdrawn.
B) The patient is placed in the supine position prior to suctioning.
C) The suction catheter is twirled side to side as it is being withdrawn.
D) Suction is applied continuously as the catheter is withdrawn.
E) The patient's oxygen is reapplied between suction attempts.
F) Water-soluble lubricant is applied to the suction catheter before insertion.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted with a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L. Which is the most important intervention for the nurse to perform?
A) Perform regular neurologic checks and institute seizure precautions.
B) Encourage the patient to eat foods that are high in sodium.
C) Administer hypotonic IV solutions as ordered by the physician.
D) Assess for signs and symptoms of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with renal failure who has a serum potassium level of 7.1 mEq/L and serum magnesium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to administer 10 units of insulin and an ampule of 50% dextrose to the patient. The patient asks why he will be receiving insulin when he is not diabetic. What is the nurse's best answer?
A) "The doctor has prescribed these medications for you to help heal your kidneys."
B) "These medications will lower your potassium level and prevent an irregular heart rate."
C) "These medications will prevent you from having a seizure from too little magnesium."
D) "These medications will increase your urine output until your kidneys recover."
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who takes laxatives and enemas regularly to ensure that he has a large daily bowel movement. The patient states that he feels constipated if he does not defecate every day. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Health-seeking behaviors related to self-prescribed daily bowel regimen
B) Perceived constipation related to professed need for daily laxatives
C) Effective therapeutic regimen management related to defecation routine
D) Disturbed thought processes related to obsession with daily bowel movements
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to have testing for fecal occult blood. What step will the nurse perform during this testing?
A) Keep the patient on a clear liquid diet for 72 hours.
B) Send the samples to the laboratory while they are still warm.
C) Inform the patient that several stool samples will be needed.
D) Use a sterile container when collecting the stool samples.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with the nursing diagnosis of Urge urinary incontinence related to urinary tract infection. Which statement is appropriate for the "as evidenced by" portion of the patient's diagnosis?
A) Sudden leakage of urine when patient is unable to get to the toilet in time.
B) Continuous urine flow from the bladder regardless of attempts to use the toilet
C) Leakage of urine from the bladder when the patient coughs, sneezes, or laughs
D) Leakage of urine because the patient is unable to indicate need to use the toilet
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has urinary retention resulting from benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The patient requires catheterization in order to drain the urine from his bladder. Which action will the nurse take to facilitate this procedure?
A) Use a double-lumen Coudé catheter.
B) Attach a leg bag to the catheter prior to insertion.
C) Trim the pubic hair before cleaning the perineal area.
D) Wait until the bladder is full to perform catheterization.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just died. Which assessment findings by the physician and nurse are used to confirm that death has occurred? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient was incontinent of bowel and bladder.
B) The patient's pupils are fixed and dilated.
C) The physician does not hear a heartbeat.
D) The patient's extremities are cool and mottled.
E) The patient has no palpable peripheral pulses.
F) The patient's face is relaxed and the mouth is open.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who died a few minutes ago. The patient's family is at the bedside and very demonstrative in their grief, weeping loudly and holding on to the patient's body. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
A) Inform the family that the patient's body must be taken to the morgue shortly.
B) Ask the family members to step outside while postmortem care is provided.
C) Obtain required signatures for the body to be taken to the funeral home.
D) Provide privacy and allow the patient's family to grieve over the body.
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