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Cognitive Psychology explores the mental processes that underlie human behavior, including perception, attention, memory, language, problem-solving, and decision-making. The course examines how people acquire, process, and store information, drawing on experimental research and real-life applications. Students will explore key theories and models in cognitive psychology, study the biological foundations of cognition, and critically analyze the ways in which cognitive processes impact everyday life. Throughout the course, emphasis is placed on scientific methods used to investigate cognitive functions and the practical implications of cognitive research in areas such as education, technology, and mental health.
Recommended Textbook
The Principles of Learning and Behavior 7th Edition by Michael Domjan
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Q1) Describe the definition of learning and how learning is distinguished from other forms of behavior change.
Answer: Answer not provided
Q2) Why is learning defined in terms of the mechanisms of behavior rather than by a behavior change itself?
A)Behavior changes are short-lived; changes in the mechanisms are enduring.
B)Behavior is due to many factors besides learning.
C)Behavior does not change due to interaction with environmental stimuli.
D)Behavior cannot be quantified; mechanisms can be.
Answer: B
Q3) The generation of new, previously unknown facts about behavior must come from A)computer modeling.
B)studying live organisms.
C)studying live humans.
D)studying live non-humans.
Answer: B
Q4) What is the general-process approach? What evidence supports adopting such an approach in the study of learning phenomena? Why should caution be used in interpreting this evidence?
Answer: Answer not provided

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Q1) A loud tone is repeatedly presented to a group of rats.Initially, there is a large startle response that decreases across trials.The response decrease across trials may be due to
A)habituation.
B)fatigue.
C)sensory adaptation.
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Describe how researchers ensure that fatigue and sensory adaptation are not the cause of response decrements in experiments investigating habituation.
Answer: Answer not provided
Q3) The dual-process theory assumes which of the following?
A)One neural process is responsible for increases and decreases in responsiveness to stimulation.
B)Different types of neural mechanisms are responsible for increases and decreases in responsiveness to stimulation.
C)Habituation and sensitization effects are essentially the same.
D)Habituation is due to fatigue; sensitization is due to learning.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following best describes backward conditioning?
A)The US follows the CS.
B)The US begins with the CS and continues after the CS terminates.
C)The CS follows the US.
D)The CS begins with the US and continues after the US terminates.
Answer: C
Q2) How does classical conditioning contribute to our understanding of causal judgments?
Answer: Answer not provided
Q3) One reason there is no best classical conditioning procedure is
A)because we are still determining the best interstimulus interval.
B)because we are still determining the best intertrial interval.
C)because subjects learn about CS-US associations and CS-US timing.
D)because eyeblink conditioning always leads to the strongest responses.
Answer: C
Q4) What are the five common procedures for classical conditioning? Provide an example from common human experience that illustrates the CS-US timing of each procedure.
Answer: Answer not provided
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Q1) Using the Rescorla-Wager model, predict V of stimulus B during conditioning trials with compound stimulus A/B when the associative value of A at the beginning of the trial is lambda and the associative value of B at the beginning of the trial is lambda.
A)lambda
B)1/2 lambda
C)0
D)< 0
Q2) From the choices below, the best evidence that the CS-US interval is a determining factor of the CR is
A)that taste aversion conditioning occurs only with short CS-US intervals.
B)that in quail, short and long presentations of the CS elicit similar responding in a sexual conditioning study.
C)if a car is only 1-2 s away you will jump, if it is 20 s away you will move away, but not jump.
D)These findings are not consistent with the CS-US interval determining the CR.
Q3) What, if any, limits are there on the kinds of stimuli that can serve as conditioned and unconditioned stimuli in Pavlovian conditioning?
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of (positive) punishment?
A)Dora is sent to her room without dessert because of her poor manners.
B)Steve has his mouth washed out with soap for swearing.
C)Bobby is not allowed to buy cigarettes because he is too young.
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
A)Stella changes the oil in her car to avoid engine seizure.
B)Mark hits his little brother because the brother broke Mark's bike.
C)Suzie cries after losing the card game.
D)Ed gets a gold star because he didn't act out.
Q3) Jeff always wears red socks on test days because he believes they allow him to earn good grades.Skinner would attribute this behavior to
A)a positive response-reinforcer contingency.
B)adventitious reinforcement.
C)interim reinforcement.
D)terminal reinforcement.
Q4) What are the effects of a delay of reinforcement on instrumental learning and what causes these effects?
Q5) What factors contribute to the effectiveness of an instrumental reinforcer?
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Q1) A cumulative recorder marks a scalloped pattern of responding when subjects are on a
A)fixed ratio schedule.
B)fixed interval schedule.
C)variable ratio schedule.
D)variable interval schedule.
Q2) How are concurrent-chain schedules different from concurrent schedules, and what kinds of research questions require the use of concurrent-chain schedules?
Q3) According to molar maximizing theories of matching,
A)organisms always choose whichever response alternative is most likely to be reinforced at that time.
B)organisms change from one response to another to improve on the local rate of reinforcement.
C)the local rate of response is calculated over just the time the organism devotes to that particular response.
D)organisms distribute their responses so as to maximize the amount of reinforcement they receive over the long run.
Q4) Describe various theoretical explanations of the matching law.
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Q1) Hull and Spence added a classical conditioning component to Thorndike's Law of Effect by suggesting that the presence of stimuli S
A)elicits the response.
B)elicits an expectation of the response.
C)elicits the outcome.
D)elicits an expectation of the outcome.
Q2) Bob was washing dishes to avoid getting fired.Just then he heard the sound of his crazy boss arriving at the restaurant.According to the two-process theory, he will now wash the dishes
A)more rapidly.
B)less rapidly.
C)at the same rate.
D)more rapidly at first and then less rapidly.
Q3) Describe what an S-O association is and what research tactic provides the best evidence for it.
Q4) What is the unconstrained baseline/behavioral bliss point? How does an experimenter determine this? How does the baseline/bliss point approach account for reinforcer effects?
Q5) Describe what is an S-R association and what provides the best evidence for it.
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Q1) Assume you have a new position as a therapist.What are four things you can do to ensure that the treatment outcomes for your clients will generalize to settings outside your office?
Q2) The fact that you are less likely to cheer in class than at a football game is an indication that
A)the peak-shift phenomenon occurs in humans as well as animals.
B)contextual cues can be involved in discrimination training.
C)blocking effects occur across contexts.
D)you are stuck with a boring professor.
Q3) When the S+ and S- differ only in terms of one stimulus feature, the training procedure is called
A)intradimensional discrimination.
B)interdimensional discrimination.
C)extradimensional discrimination.
D)hypodimensional discrimination.
Q4) Which of the following tones will result in the greatest peak-shift phenomenon?
A)S+ = 1000 Hz: S- = no tone
B)S+ = 1000 Hz: S- = 990 Hz
C)S+ = 1000 Hz: S- = 1030 Hz
D)S+ = 1000 Hz: S- = 900 Hz

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Q1) Extinction of a classically conditioned response occurs
A)with the passage of time.
B)when the subject becomes sensitized to the CR.
C)when the CS is presented without the US.
D)when the subject habituates to the UR.
Q2) According to the concept of renewal,
A)frustration has only minor effects on extinction.
B)contextual cues are important only for excitatory associations.
C)a change in context after extinction will recover acquisition performance.
D)S-S associations are developed in acquisition and disrupted by extinction.
Q3) What are the two major behavioral effects of conducting an extinction procedure? Provide an example from everyday life to illustrate these effects.
Q4) According to the discrimination hypothesis, the partial reinforcement extinction effect is due to
A)the extinction burst that occurs at the beginning of extinction trials.
B)learning to respond in the face of expected nonreward.
C)a subject's memories of whether or not it was rewarded for performing the instrumental response in the recent past.
D)a subject's decreased ability to notice when extinction procedures begin.
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Q1) The difference between an escape trial and an avoidance trial is that
A)escape is active avoidance and avoidance trials are passive avoidance.
B)escape trials are passive avoidance and avoidance trials are active.
C)the aversive US is delivered during an escape trial but not in an avoidance trial.
D)the aversive US is delivered during an avoidance trial but not in an escape trial.
Q2) Compare discriminated avoidance to free-operant avoidance procedures.
Q3) In what ways is punishment similar to positive reinforcement; in what ways is it different?
Q4) A fundamental question in the study of avoidance is:
A)How do avoidance trials lead to escape behaviors?
B)Why does punishment have to be discriminated to be effective?
C)How can the absence of something be reinforcing?
D)All of the above
Q5) In a time out procedure, behavior modification is achieved by
A)the careful administration of a mildly aversive stimulus.
B)reducing contact with appetitive stimuli.
C)the administration of a relatively strong aversive stimulus.
D)reducing contact with an annoying stimulus.
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Q1) Cognitive mechanisms are used to explain animal behaviors when A)classical conditioning mechanisms are not sufficient to account for actions.
B)instrumental conditioning mechanisms are not sufficient to account for actions.
C)discriminative stimulus mechanisms are used to describe behavior.
D)S-R mechanisms are not sufficient to account for actions.
Q2) Compare and contrast working and reference memory.
Q3) Reminder treatments can increase responding that is low due to A)latent inhibition.
B)overshadowing.
C)blocking.
D)all of the above
Q4) Doogie mice differ from normal mice in that A)they produce NR2A into adulthood.
B)they produce NR2B into adulthood.
C)they have more difficulty in the Morris water maze.
D)they have more difficulty in stimulus discrimination tasks.
Q5) Describe the phenomenon of directed forgetting and what it tells us about memory processes.
Q6) Compare retrospective coding to prospective coding.When is each used?
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Q1) According to Scalar Expectancy Theory, which of the following is not part of the clock process?
A)the comparator
B)the switch
C)the accumulator
D)the pacemaker
Q2) In the model-rival technique,
A)a prototype of the lexigram is repeatedly presented to the subject.
B)a model of the lexigram is presented by the experimenter.
C)a different student competes with the subject for the experimenter's attention.
D)several different prototypes of the lexigram are presented only once in series to the subject.
Q3) In theories of timing that use oscillators, the oscillator is most like a A)pacemaker
B)an hourglass
C)a pendulum
D)a comparator
Q4) Describe how the behavior of food storing birds can be used to provide evidence of episodic memory.
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