Cognitive Psychology Final Exam Questions - 769 Verified Questions

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Cognitive Psychology

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Cognitive Psychology explores the mental processes underlying human behavior, including perception, attention, memory, language, problem-solving, and decision-making. This course examines how individuals acquire, process, and store information, drawing on experimental research and theoretical models. Students will gain an understanding of the neural and psychological mechanisms that contribute to cognition, and how these processes influence everyday activities. Through discussions, case studies, and real-world examples, the course also considers the implications of cognitive psychology for education, artificial intelligence, and mental health.

Recommended Textbook

Sensation and Perception 10th Edition by E. Bruce Goldstein

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15 Chapters

769 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) When using the method of limits, the absolute threshold is determined by calculating

A) the stimulus intensity detected 66% of the time

B) the stimulus intensity detected 75% of the time

C) the stimulus intensity detected 100% of the time

D) the average of the "cross-over" values

Answer: D

Q2) Based on the dark adaptation curve, you would expect the absolute threshold to _____ as time in a darkened room increases.

A) get larger

B) remain unchanged

C) get smaller

D) vary unpredictably

Answer: C

Q3) The method of magnitude estimation yields a measure of _____ magnitude.

A) objective

B) perceived

C) difference

D) absolute

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: The Beginning of the Perceptual Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) The three major parts of a neuron are _____.

A) dendrites, cell body, and axon

B) axon, nerve fiber, and receptor

C) receptor, transmitter, and median

D) receptor, dendrites, and conductor

Answer: A

Q2) The structure of the eye that provides about 80% of the eye's focusing power is the _____.

A) iris

B) pupil

C) cornea

D) lens

Answer: C

Q3) The "rod-cone break" in the dark adaptation curve occurs after about _____ in the dark.

A) 30 seconds

B) 2 minutes

C) 7 minutes

D) 30 minutes

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Neural Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) A neuron with an excitatory center-inhibitory surround receptive field will respond most when we stimulate _____.

A) only the center

B) only the surround

C) both the center and surround together

D) part of the surround

Answer: A

Q2) As we travel farther from the retina, neurons fire to _____.

A) more complex stimuli

B) less complex stimuli

C) more intense stimuli

D) less intense stimuli

Answer: A

Q3) The flow of information in the LGN is best described as _____.

A) unidirectional, with signals going from the retina to the LGN

B) unidirectional, with signals going from the LGN to the retina

C) unidirectional, with signals going from the LGN to the cortex

D) signals coming from the retina and the cortex to the LGN

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Cortical Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the five areas of the brain associated with processing of faces, explaining what is processed in each area.

Q2) Gauthier et al.'s Greeble finding is consistent with the _____ hypothesis.

A) maturation

B) oblique

C) Rivalry

D) Expertise

Q3) _____ refers to the fact that the response properties of neurons can be shaped by what an animal or person perceives.

A) Selective adaptation

B) Experience-dependent plasticity

C) Sensory integration

D) Perceptual analysis

Q4) Patient H.M. had his _____ removed in order to control his epileptic seizures.

A) Hippocampi

B) IT cortex

C) striate cortex

D) corpus callosum

Q5) Describe the methods, results, and conclusions of Gauthier et al.'s "Greeble" research.

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Chapter 5: Perceiving Objects and Scenes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _____ decoder is intended to discriminate between different categories of images, such as outdoor scenes and portraits.

A) orientation

B) structure?

C) scene

D) semantic

Q2) In one reversible figure/ground study, Gibson and Peterson (1994) used an image in which one area looks like a woman when upright, but does not resemble anything when turned upside down. Their general finding was that _____.

A) meaningfulness of an image had a large effect on figure-ground segregation

B) meaningful images were just as likely to be seen as figure or ground?

C) inverting the entire image lead to slower response times?

D) meaningfulness only had an effect when they appeared on the left side?

Q3) Describe the decoders developed by Naselaris et al. (2009), how they were established, and what they can be used for.

Q4) Describe the how Bayesian inference can be used to understand perception.

Q5) Describe what is known about the ability of infants to perceive human faces.

Q6) Define semantic regularities and describe their effect on perceptual organization.

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Chapter 6: Visual Attention

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Sample Questions

Q1) People tend to fixate first on high contrast or unique (relative to the surrounding area) points in a visual scene. This is a result of _____ and is a _____ process.

A) stimulus salience; top-down

B) stimulus salience; bottom-up

C) the spotlight effect; top-down

D) the spotlight effect; bi-directional

Q2) According to Treisman, the _____ stage is the "glue" that combines all the incoming information about an object.

A) Preattentive

B) focused attention

C) tertiary

D) compiling

Q3) Discuss how Treisman's feature integration theory addresses the binding problem. (b) What are illusory conjunctions, and why are they support for feature integration theory?

Q4) Are voice-activated devices in cars a good idea or are they potentially dangerous

Explain your reasoning.

Q5) Explain the load theory of attention.

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Chapter 7: Taking Action

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe evidence from monkey studies that suggests that mirror neurons do more than respond to patterns of motion.

Q2) Affordances _____.

A) provide a counterexample to Gibson's ecological approach

B) are used to explain the flow of information organizational principles

C) provide the observer possibilities for action

D) arise from the interaction between flow and depth cues

Q3) Proposed functions of mirror neurons include their role in _____.

A) applying common heuristics

B) facilitating the binding of information sources.

C) developing metacognitive skills

D) aiding interpretation of facial expressions.

Q4) You are driving a car. Which statement is an accurate reflection of flow in this situation?

A) Optic flow is slower near the car.

B) Optic flow does not occur for information in the periphery.

C) Optic flow is faster farther away from the car.

D) Optic flow does not occur for the focus of expansion.

Q5) Discuss research that shows how vision is important in performing a somersault.

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Q6) Discuss the capacity of newborn infants to imitate facial expressions.

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Chapter 8: Perceiving Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) An afterimage when viewed in the dark appears to move when you move your eyes. The corollary discharge theory predicts this because _____.

A) there is an IDS, but not a CDS

B) there is no IDS, but there is a CDS

C) there is no IDS and no CDS

D) there is both IDS and CDS

Q2) _____ is a technique that has been used to temporarily disturb brain area functioning in humans.

A) Lesioning

B) Ablation

C) Transcranial magnetic stimulation

D) Orbital magnetic gyration

Q3) A monkey with an intact MT cortex can detect the direction of moving dots when coherence is ____%, while a monkey that has had the MT cortex lesioned detects the direction of the moving dots when coherence is _____%.

A) 1-2; 10-20

B) 10-20; 1-2

C) 1-2; 1-2

D) 1-20; 1-2

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Chapter 9: Perceiving Color

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Sample Questions

Q1) Color constancy works best when _____.

A) surrounding colors are masked

B) chromatic adaptation occurs

C) a color object is surrounded by one other color

D) a color object is surrounded by many different colors

Q2) Which of the following is behavioral support for the "opponent-process theory"

A) color afterimages?

B) color matching

C) visual pigment absorption rates

D) the univariance effect

Q3) Opponent neurons found in _____ provide physiological support for the opponent-process theory.

A) the retina only

B) the LGN only

C) the superior colliculus only

D) both the retina and LGN

Q4) What is the difference between an illumination edge and a reflectance edge

(b) Discuss what the "penumbra" demonstration and the "folded card" demonstration reveal about perception of these types of edges.

Q5) Evaluate Newton's claim that the light "rays are not colored."

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Chapter 10: Perceiving Depth and Size

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the _____ theory of the moon illusion, the overhead moon appears smaller when it is surrounded by a large amount of sky.

A) ocular dominance

B) stimulus deprivation

C) angular size-contrast

D) apparent-distance

Q2) Which depth cue is effective both from 0-2 meters and above 20 meters

A) atmospheric perspective

B) occlusion

C) accommodation

D) convergence

Q3) How are random-dot stereograms created

(b) What is the importance of random-dot stereograms

(c) How is the correspondence problem related to the concept of random-dot stereograms

(d) What have the results of infant studies with random-dot stereograms revealed?

Q4) Describe the differences in how depth is perceived in cats, insects, and bats.

Q5) Name, define, and give an example (in words and/or drawings) of six pictorial depth cues.

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Chapter 11: Hearing I: Basic Processes and Pitch Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cochlear implant makes use of _____.

A) phase locking mechanisms in the sound processor

B) the tonotopic map of frequencies on the cochlea

C) artificial ossicles

D) resonance harmonics on the tectorial membrane

Q2) The sound pressure level increases ____ as the decibel level increases from 40 to 80 dBs.

A) 1.5 times

B) 2 times

C) 4 times

D) 10 times

Q3) A frequency spectrum shows a tone that is composed of a frequency of 440 Hz, 880 Hz, and 1320 Hz. The 880 Hz and 1320 Hz frequencies are called _____ in this example.

A) fundamental frequencies

B) harmonics

C) tertiary frequencies

D) quadratic frequencies

Q4) Briefly describe the major principle of Békésy's place theory of hearing.

Q5) Discuss the structures and functions of the middle ear.

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Chapter 12: Hearing II: Location and Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the two binaural auditory localization cues

Why do they occur

How is sound frequency related to these cues?

Q2) In the precedence effect, the sound from the far speaker _____.

A) does not contribute to the perception of the sound

B) only helps sound localization if the time difference is less than 5 milliseconds

C) only helps sound localization if the time difference is less than 2 milliseconds

D) contributes to the quality of the sound

Q3) The anecdote about the construction of New York's Philharmonic Hall demonstrates that _____.

A) an ideal reverberation time does not always predict good acoustics

B) an ideal reverberation time always predicts good acoustics

C) musicians should design symphony halls

D) the MLD is more important than the ILD in architectural acoustics

Q4) What is meant by "the beat" and how is "the beat" processed in the brain?

Q5) Define visual capture and give examples of this concept.

Q6) Describe the Jeffress model of auditory localization.

Q7) What is meter and what is known about the processing of meter in the brain?

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Speech Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) The existence of phonetic boundaries _____.

A) is currently debated among speech perception researchers

B) only occurs at VOTs of greater than 250 ms

C) has been demonstrated using discrimination experiments

D) shows that categorical perception does not occur in speech perception

Q2) Research using fMRI has found that, although _____ is activated when paying attention to the sounds of familiar voices, it is NOT activated when paying attention to the sounds of unfamiliar voices.

A) the FFA

B) the STS

C) Wernicke's area

D) Broca's area

Q3) Your ability to read the sentence "H*V* A N*C* D*Y" is used as an example of the importance of _____.

A) bottom-up processing

B) top-down processing

C) audiovisual speech perception

D) sideways processing

Q4) What is noise vocoded speech and what has been learned using it?

Q5) Discuss the motor theory of speech perception.

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Chapter 14: The Cutaneous Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Based on the finding that _____, it is believed that endorphins are linked to pain relief.

A) naloxone injections increase the analgesic effect of endorphins

B) naloxone injections decrease the analgesic effect of endorphins and placebos

C) naloxone injections increase the analgesic effects of placebos

D) placebo injections increase the analgesic effects of endorphins

Q2) When you try to identify a three-dimensional object by touch alone and are allowed to have control over your hand and finger movements, you are using _____.

A) passive touch

B) haptic perception

C) azimuth perception

D) magnification touch

Q3) Describe the basic principles of the gate-control model of pain.

Q4) The area on S1 associated with the thumb is as large as the area for the forearm. This is an example of _____.

A) sensory substitution

B) Braille projection

C) cortical magnification

D) the analgesic inversion principle

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Chapter 15: The Chemical Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sources of odor are called _____.

A) odor emitters

B) olfactory stimulus

C) odorants

D) odor objects

Q2) Compare three different methods for studying the physiology of olfaction.

Q3) In regard to specificity vs. population coding, most researchers conclude that _____.

A) population coding has the most research support

B) specificity coding has the most research support

C) basic taste qualities are determined by specificity coding, and population coding is important for discriminating subtle differences

D) basic taste qualities are determined by population coding, and specificity coding is important for discriminating subtle differences

Q4) Macrosmatic animals _____.

A) have relatively few olfactory receptors

B) have limited ability to discriminate among odors

C) are unable to exploit pheromones

D) use their sense of smell for survival

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