
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Cognitive Psychology explores the mental processes underlying human thought and behavior, including perception, attention, memory, language, problem-solving, and decision-making. The course examines classic and contemporary theories as well as experimental methods used to investigate how people process information, form and retrieve memories, and use language to communicate. Students will also consider the biological underpinnings of cognition, applications to real-world challenges, and the ways cognitive processes can be affected by development, aging, and various psychological conditions.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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40 Chapters
1844 Verified Questions
1844 Flashcards
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Page 2

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Q1) What is materialism and how has it influenced the study of neuroscience?
Answer: no answer
Q2) Define common ancestor and how this applies to Darwin's theory of evolution.
Answer: A common ancestor refers to a hypothetical organism from which two or more different species are believed to have evolved. In the context of Darwin's theory of evolution, the concept of a common ancestor is central to the idea that all living organisms are related and share a common ancestry. Darwin proposed that over long periods of time, species have evolved from common ancestors through a process of descent with modification, driven by natural selection. This means that different species share common traits and characteristics because they inherited them from a common ancestor, and as they adapted to different environments, they evolved into distinct species. The concept of a common ancestor provides a framework for understanding the interconnectedness of all life on Earth and the diversity of species that have emerged through the process of evolution.
Q3) What are memes and how do they influence our evolution?
Answer: no answer
Q4) What is epigenetics and why is it an important topic to study?
Answer: no answer
Page 3
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Q1) Subsequent research indicated that the pineal body was responsible for _____ rather than controlling human behavior.
A) vision
B) problem solving
C) movement
D) biological rhythms
Answer: D
Q2) Increased brain size and increased folding are most prominent in which chordate species?
A) dolphins
B) primates
C) neither primates nor dolphins
D) both primates and dolphins
Answer: D
Q3) The oldest fossils that have been identified as human are approximately:
A) 5 million years old.
B) 200,000 years old.
C) 2 million years old.
D) 1 million years old.
Answer: C
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Q1) Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Answer: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two branches of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When activated, it increases heart rate, dilates the airways, and redirects blood flow to the muscles, preparing the body for physical activity. This response is triggered in times of stress or danger.
On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "rest and digest" response. When activated, it slows down heart rate, constricts the airways, and stimulates digestion. This response helps the body to relax and recover after a stressful situation.
In summary, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action and stress, while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes relaxation and recovery. These two systems work in balance to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Q1) When observing a sagittal brain section at the midline,what is the prominent feature composed of white matter?
A) corpus callosum
B) ventricles
C) cingulate cortex
D) hippocampus
Q2) CSF is made in:
A) the pia mater.
B) the dura mater.
C) the ventricles.
D) the arachnoid layer.
Q3) The artery that provides blood to the occipital lobes is the _____ cerebral artery.
A) anterior
B) middle
C) posterior
D) inferior
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Q1) How does genetic engineering help us understand the human condition?
Q2) What is selective breeding,and how can it be used to select for specific traits? Give an example.
Q3) What are three major types of neurons? How are they functionally different?
Q4) List the functions of the cell nucleus.
Q5) What are the differences between knock-in and knockout mice?
Q6) What is phenotypic plasticity?
Q7) List the internal components of a cell.
Q8) What is epigenetics? Why is studying it important?
Q9) What is Down syndrome,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q10) What are the three types of brain tumors? How do they differ from one another?
Q11) What are the major functions of astroglia?
Q12) Differentiate between Santiago Ramón y Cajal's and Camillo Golgi's views on brain cell functioning.
Q13) Differentiate between dominant and recessive genes. Page 7
Q14) What role do Golgi bodies play inside of neurons?
Q15) What are the five types of glial cells,and what are their primary functions?
Q16) What are the major functions of Schwann cells? How do they assist in the recovery from nerve damage?
Q17) What are the major functions of ependymal cells?
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Q1) The _____ is the core region of the cell that contains the nucleus.
A) dendrite
B) axon
C) Golgi body
D) soma
Q2) The smallest quantity of an element that retains the properties of an element is a(n):
A) neutron.
B) atom.
C) proton.
D) electron.
Q3) The nucleotide sequence MOST common in a population is called the:
A) homozygous allele.
B) heterozygous allele.
C) wild-type allele.
D) mutant allele.
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Transmit Information? Part A
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Q1) What is a graded potential?
Q2) What is a voltmeter?
Q3) How does the sodium-potassium pump work?
Q4) Describe the pioneering work of Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley,which earned them a Nobel Prize.
Q5) What processes participate in maintaining the resting potential?
Q6) What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)and how is it recorded?
Q7) What is the difference between depolarization and hyperpolarization?
Q8) Differentiate between absolute and relative refractory periods.
Q9) Differentiate between a diffusion and a concentration gradient.
Q10) Define EPSP and IPSP.
Q11) How do nerve impulses produce movement?
Q12) What is the function of myelin? How does it influence the conduction of a nerve impulse?
Q13) What is multiple sclerosis (MS)? What are some of the identified risk factors for MS? Page 10
Q14) What are temporal and spatial summation?
Q15) What is back propagation,and how is it linked with neuroplasticity?
Q16) What is the patch technique?
Q17) What is significant about the giant axon of the squid?
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Q1) The symptoms of multiple sclerosis are caused by:
A) excess myelin on axons.
B) loss of myelin around axons.
C) excess excitatory input.
D) excess inhibitory input.
Q2) A change in the resting potential from -70 mV to -50 mV typically results in:
A) an excitatory postsynaptic potential.
B) repolarization.
C) an action potential.
D) hyperpolarization.
Q3) The sodium-potassium pump _____ exchanges three _____ for two _____.
A) continuously;intracellular Na+;extracellular K+.
B) continuously;intracellular K+;extracellular Na+.
C) continuously;extracellular Na+;intracellular K+.
D) intermittently;intracellular K+;extracellular Na+.
Q4) A change in the resting potential from -70 mV to -68 mV is called:
A) depolarization.
B) hyperpolarization.
C) graded excitatory potential.
D) nothing,as these changes occur spontaneously.
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Q1) _____ contain the neurotransmitters.
A) Synaptic vesicles
B) Ribosomes
C) Axons
D) Dendrites
Q2) _____ is a neurotransmitter that helps control arousal,walking,and the contraction of smooth muscle.It also contributes to asthma,a constriction of the airways.
A) Acetylcholine
B) Histamine
C) Glycine
D) Dopamine
Q3) Neurotransmitters are identified by which of the following criteria?
A) synthesis
B) release
C) receptor activation
D) synthesis,release,and receptor activation
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Q1) Define habituation.What is the synaptic basis of the habituation response?
Q2) What is the function of storage granules?
Q3) What are second messengers? What role do they play in neural transmission?
Q4) What are the four criteria used to determine whether a substance is a neurotransmitter?
Q5) What behaviors are associated with the serotonergic system?
Q6) What are the three ways a synapse can change in order to accommodate learning?
Q7) What are the four main amino acid transmitters and what are their functions?
Q8) Describe the synthesis of the amine neurotransmitters.
Q9) What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?
Q10) What are the differences between chemical synapses and electrical synapses? What functions do they serve?
Q11) What neurotransmitter system is used in the somatic nervous system (SNS)? How does it activate lead to depolarization?
Q12) Define sensitization.What is the synaptic basis of sensitization?
Q13) What are the different ways in which a neurotransmitter could become Page 14
Q14) List four peptide transmitters.
Q15) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q16) How did chemical transmitters originate?
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Q1) Describe the disinhibition theory of alcohol use.
Q2) Give examples of drugs that are used to treat depression.What types of receptors do they operate on?
Q3) What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? What evidence supports the dopamine hypothesis?
Q4) Briefly describe the blood-brain barrier.
Q5) Define homeostasis and give examples of homeostatic hormones.
Q6) Give example of three different psychedelic drugs,and describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in creating the effects.
Q7) Why is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine important? What are the effects of curare on acetylcholine?
Q8) What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD),and what are its major symptoms?
Q9) What is the difference between morphine and heroin?
Q10) What is drug sensitization and how does it occur?
Q12) Describe the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction. Page 16
Q11) What are the effects on the brain of chronically high cortisol levels?
Q13) What is the difference between substance abuse and substance dependence?
Q14) Differentiate between agonists and antagonists.
Q15) Define and differentiate between metabolic tolerance and cellular tolerance.
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Q1) Which of the following are antianxiety agents?
A) alcohol
B) benzodiazepines
C) barbiturates
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The incidence of schizophrenia is:
A) one in 100.
B) one in 1000.
C) one in 10,000.
D) one in 100,000.
Q3) Selective serotonin reuptake blockers are used in the treatment of:
A) depression.
B) bipolar disorders.
C) schizophrenia.
D) anxiety.
Q4) If I had a bipolar disorder,I would probably take:
A) lithium.
B) Prozac.
C) Librium.
D) Haldol.
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Q1) How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work? What does it study?
Q2) What is an EEG? What are the features of the brain revealed by an EEG?
Q3) How does an MRI work?
Q4) How are ERPs different from an EEG? How can ERPs be used to examine the link between the brain and behavior?
Q5) Give an example of an animal model for a human neurological disease.How are animal models useful for understanding neurological diseases?
Q6) What are the differences between an MRI and an fMRI?
Q7) List three examples of neuropsychological tests.What are they used to examine?
Q8) Differentiate extracellular from intracellular recording.
Q9) What are event-related potentials?
Q10) What three tests make use of a hidden platform in a swimming pool to examine memory in rats?
Q11) Describe the differences in patterns of EEG activity when a person is in an awake or excited state compared to a relaxed state with eyes closed.
Q12) What is optogenetics? How is it used to excite and inhibit neurons? Page 19
Q14) How does brain stimulation work? How is it used to treat Parkinson's disease?
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Q1) A stereotaxic apparatus is primarily used:
A) in fMRI.
B) for targeting a specific part of the brain for ablation.
C) for transcranial magnetic stimulation.
D) for lesioning and transcranial magnetic stimulation.
Q2) ADD and ADHD have been linked with _____ in the _____.
A) abnormal dopamine levels;parietal lobes
B) abnormal dopamine levels;frontal lobes and basal ganglia
C) abnormal serotonin levels;frontal lobes and basal ganglia
D) abnormal noradrenaline levels;temporal lobes and amygdala
Q3) Magnetic resonance imaging involves:
A) hydrogen atoms.
B) magnets.
C) radio pulses.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) EEG can be used to:
A) monitor sleep.
B) estimate the depth of anesthesia.
C) detect epilepsy.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Q1) Define masculinization.What hormones are responsible for masculinization and on what brain areas do they have the greatest influence?
Q2) What effects might caffeine and nicotine have on the developing brain?
Q3) Define the term critical period and its relation to development.
Q4) Differentiate between cell adhesion molecules and tropic molecules.
Q5) What function do radial glial cells play in development?
Q6) Describe Piaget's four stages of development.
Q7) Compare and contrast the symptoms of autism spectrum disorder and Asperger syndrome.
Q8) List the seven stages of brain development.
Q9) What is synaptic pruning? Describe the process of synaptic pruning over time.
Q10) What are neurotrophic factors (give examples)? What role do they play in the development of the nervous system?
Q11) At what age do planning abilities become fully developed?
Q13) What is the chemoaffinity hypothesis? Page 22
Q12) What is imprinting? What brain structures are related to imprinting?
Q14) Explain how language develops over the first 6 years of life.Which brain regions demonstrate the greatest changes?
Q15) What brain regions demonstrate increased activation for second languages?
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Q1) The frontal lobes are fully developed:
A) at birth.
B) around age 5.
C) around age 10.
D) None of the answers is correct.
Q2) Neurogenesis (the process of forming neurons)is largely complete after about _____ months of gestation.
A) one
B) two
C) five
D) seven
Q3) Male and female brains are:
A) different only in size.
B) different in response to environmental events.
C) different only during early development.
D) unaffected by gonadal hormones.
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Q1) To what stimulus does a simple cortical cell respond?
Q2) What are the main properties that differentiate rods and cones? How are they distributed in the retina?
Q3) What is trichromatic color theory? At what point in the visual system is trichromatic color coding initiated?
Q4) To what stimulus does a hypercomplex cell respond?
Q5) Differentiate between the functions of blob and interblob regions of visual cortex?
Q6) Describe how on-center and off-center cells enable us to see edges and shapes in our visual world.
Q7) What type of vision loss would occur following damage to the right optic nerve compared with damage to the right lateral geniculate nucleus?
Q8) Compare and contrast the symptoms of visual-form agnosia and optic ataxia.What do these two disorders tell us about how the visual system is organized?
Q9) To what stimulus does a complex cortical cell respond?
Q10) Describe the tectopulvinar system.
Page 25
Q11) What parts of the eye make up the left and right visual fields?
Q12) Why is there a blind spot in each eye?
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Q1) The light-sensitive surface in the back of the eye is called the: A) sclera.
B) lens.
C) iris.
D) retina.
Q2) A spot of green light presented entirely within the center of a red (on-center)-green (off-surround)color opponent retinal ganglion cell would result in:
A) a strong response (i.e. ,an increase in firing).
B) a weak response (i.e. ,a decrease in firing).
C) a very strong response (i.e. ,a large increase in firing).
D) no response (i.e. ,no firing at all).
Q3) The tectopulvinar pathway is especially sensitive to: A) fine details.
B) movement.
C) color.
D) texture.
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Q1) How do bats use echolocation to navigate?
Q2) What is prosody and what brain regions control it?
Q3) How do humans localize the source of high-frequency and low-frequency sounds in the environment? Which brain regions are involved?
Q4) Which brain regions are involved in music perception?
Q5) What is the difference between the tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane?
Q6) Differentiate between the dorsal and ventral streams of auditory processing.
Q7) Define perfect pitch.What is its probable origin?
Q8) Where on the cortex is Wernicke's area?
Q9) Frequency and amplitude are equivalent to what properties in sound perception?
Q10) Compare and contrast the deficits that arise in Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.Which brain regions are affected?
Q11) What is the difference between Heschl's gyrus and the planum temporale?
Page 28
Q12) List the variables that affect birdsong.
Q13) What decibel (dB)levels are safe for human hearing? What decibel levels can cause hearing damage?
Q14) What is a complex tone? How are complex tones analyzed?
Q15) Which two brain areas are most important for birdsong and what roles do they play?
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Q1) An echolocating bat can emit cries in the range of:
A) 13,000 to 20,000 Hz.
B) 20,000 to 50,000 Hz.
C) 5000 to 100,000 Hz.
D) 12,000 to 200,000 Hz.
Q2) A ballooning of an arterial wall is called an:
A) embolism.
B) blood clot.
C) aneurysm.
D) angioma.
Q3) PET imaging studies have revealed that comparing different pitches of sound activates:
A) the left frontal lobe.
B) the right frontal lobe.
C) the left auditory cortex.
D) Heschl's gyrus in the right hemisphere.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part A
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Q1) What is a homunculus as it relates to the brain?
Q2) What are the symptoms of Tourette syndrome?
Q3) Differentiate between paraplegia and quadriplegia,including the regions of the spinal cord that are involved.
Q4) How does the cerebellum improvement movement control?
Q5) What role does the brainstem play in movement?
Q6) Describe the role of the cerebellum in motor learning based on sensory feedback.
Q7) What are the effects of deafferentation?
Q8) What is hapsis? What receptors are responsible for our sensation of haptic information?
Q9) Compare and contrast the roles of the prefrontal cortex,the premotor cortex,and the primary motor cortex in the control of movement.
Q10) What are the symptoms of apraxia? What brain regions are typically damaged in apraxia?
Page 31
Q11) What kinds of movement problems arise following damage to premotor cortex?
Q12) Compare and contrast the roles of the anterior and lateral corticospinal tracts in motor control.
Q13) Describe the gate theory of pain.What is a pain gate?
Q14) Describe the organization of somatosensory cortex in areas 1,2,and 3.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part C
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Q1) _____ are critical for proprioception.
A) Muscle spindles
B) Golgi tendon organs
C) Joint receptors
D) Muscle spindles,Golgi tendon organs,and joint receptors
Q2) The ability to discriminate the distance between two points on the skin is MOST sensitive in:
A) hairy skin.
B) glabrous skin.
C) smooth skin.
D) epidermal skin.
Q3) An example of a brain-computer interface (BCI)would be:
A) using only your thoughts to control a computer keyboard.
B) having electrical signals from an electronic device influence brain function.
C) having your thoughts relayed to someone else's brain via a computer.
D) None of the answers is correct.
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Q1) The correct order of connections along the olfactory pathway is:
A) olfactory receptor cells,glomeruli,mitral cells,amygdala and pyriform cortex.
B) olfactory receptor cells,mitral cells,glomeruli,amygdala and pyriform cortex.
C) glomeruli,olfactory receptor cells,mitral cells,amygdala and pyriform cortex.
D) amygdala and pyriform cortex,mitral cells,olfactory receptor cells,glomeruli.
Q2) Cats are NOT able to detect:
A) saltiness.
B) sweetness.
C) bitterness.
D) sourness.
Q3) Blind human children:
A) do not smile.
B) show abnormal musculature when they smile.
C) show the same facial expressions as sighted children.
D) must be trained,using the tactile sense,to show facial expressions.
Q4) Reward is thought to be regulated largely by the:
A) nigrostriatal dopamine pathway.
B) serotonin pathway.
C) norepinephrine pathway.
D) mesolimbic dopamine pathway.
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Q1) Describe the gustatory pathway from the taste receptors to the primary gustatory cortex.
Q2) Compare and contrast regulatory and nonregulatory behaviors.List some specific examples of each.
Q3) What is the concept of preparedness? Give a specific example of preparedness.
Q4) What is evolutionary psychology? How does evolutionary psychology explain the existence of behaviors that seem maladaptive,such as homicide?
Q5) How do lesions to the amygdala and orbital prefrontal cortex influence eating behavior?
Q6) What neural structures are part of the circuit of Papez? What roles do these structures play in emotion?
Q7) Differentiate between generalized anxiety disorder,panic disorder,and phobias.
Q8) What are the effects of hypothalamic stimulation on behavior? Is the behavior context dependent?
Q9) Describe the structure of the olfactory system.Which types of neurons are involved in smell perception and what roles do they play? To which brain regions to these signals get relayed?
Q10) What is the somatic marker hypothesis? What evidence supports this hypothesis? Page 35
Q11) How does the hypothalamus influence sexual behavior?
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Q1) Steven is often referred to as a morning person because he wakes up at 5 a.m.and goes to sleep at 10 p.m. ,whereas Jennifer is described as a night owl because she wakes up at 10 a.m.but stays up until 3 a.m.Steven's and Jennifer's sleeping and waking habits may differ because of the differences in:
A) diet.
B) exercise.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus core neurons.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus shell neurons.
Q2) John is participating in a sleep study.While examining John's EEG pattern,the researcher notices that the waves are extremely regular,with a frequency of 7 to 11 Hz.Based on this observation the researcher can conclude that:
A) John is still wide awake and alert.
B) John is asleep.
C) John is dreaming.
D) John is awake but relaxed,with his eyes closed.
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Q1) What happens if you remove the suprachiasmatic nucleus and keep it alive in a dish? What does this tell us about the origin of its rhythmic activity?
Q2) What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in biological rhythms? What role do core and shell neurons play in biological rhythms?
Q3) What are the symptoms of sleep apnea? What are its main causes?
Q4) Describe the coping hypothesis of dreams.
Q5) What are the differences between REM and NREM sleep?
Q6) Differentiate between alpha,beta,and delta brain rhythms.
Q7) What cortical changes occur to the electroencephalogram when you awaken? What neurotransmitters are involved?
Q8) How is sleep measured in the laboratory?
Q9) List the most common Zeitgebers.Which is the most powerful for humans?
Q10) What are the main causes of insomnia?
Q11) Why does jet lag occur? Why is jet lag worse flying east than west?
Q12) What is a free-running rhythm? Give an example.
Q13) What activities occur during NREM sleep?
Q14) What are the symptoms of seasonal affective disorder? What is the main Page 38
Q15) What is the genetic contribution to rhythmicity?
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Q1) Brain tissue transplant has shown some promise in treating:
A) Alzheimer disease.
B) Huntington disease.
C) anterograde amnesia.
D) Parkinson disease.
Q2) Which of the following was largely unaffected after the memory patient H.M.'s surgery?
A) implicit memory
B) verbal memory
C) explicit memory
D) visuospatial memory
Q3) If a monkey has to remember the position of a light for a delay period after the light goes out,neurons in the _____ fire to help the monkey retain a memory trace.
A) hippocampus
B) prefrontal cortex
C) inferior temporal cortex
D) occipital cortex
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27 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78864
Sample Questions
Q1) What evidence supports the idea that the hippocampus is critical for spatial memory?
Q2) What are neurotrophic factors? What role do they play in the recovery from brain injury?
Q3) Which brain circuits are critical for forming emotional memories?
Q4) What role do the frontal lobes play in memory? What happens following frontal lobe damage?
Q5) Define drug-induced behavioral sensitization.Give an example.
Q6) List and describe five of the guiding principles of brain plasticity mentioned in your text.
Q7) Describe the visual recognition and object position tasks used to study memory in monkeys.Which brain structures are critical for performing these tasks?
Q8) What are long-term potentiation (LTP)and long-term depression (LTD)? What procedures can be used to induce LTP or LTD?
Q9) What are autobiographical memories? What brain regions are thought to underlie autobiographical memories?
Q10) Outline a purported neural circuit for explicit memory.
Q11) Differentiate between explicit and implicit memory.Give an example of each.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fine movement deficits are seen after:
A) right parietal lobe lesions.
B) left parietal lobe lesions.
C) right frontal lobe lesions.
D) left temporal lobe lesions.
Q2) If you were preparing to do brain surgery on someone and you needed to know what hemisphere language was lateralized in,which test would deliver the most accurate results?
A) dichotic listening
B) fMRI tests of language
C) EEG
D) the sodium amobarbital test
Q3) The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is an excellent measure to examine:
A) neglect.
B) extinction.
C) the ability to shift strategy.
D) parietal lobe function.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is language presumed to give humans a cognitive advantage over other species?
Q2) Why was Alex the parrot so unusual?
Q3) Describe the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.What does it measure? What types of brain lesions impair performance on this test?
Q4) What is neuroeconomics? What has neuroeconomics taught us about decision making?
Q5) What brain regions contribute to the control of attention?
Q6) What is a psychological construct? Why is it difficult to study psychological constructs in the brain?
Q7) If a split-brain patient was presented with the word spoon in the left visual field and the word fork in the right visual field,how would the patient describe what he saw? How could the researcher demonstrate what the right hemisphere knows about the words that were presented?
Q8) What is dichotic listening? What discoveries regarding cerebral asymmetry were made using this technique?
Q9) Describe the tasks that the left side of the brain does better than the right.
Page 43
Q10) What is functional connectivity MRI (fcMRI)? What does it allow researchers to study?
Q11) Describe the symptoms that follow left and right parietal injury.
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Q1) What is tardive dyskinesia? Why is it sometimes observed in psychiatric patients?
Q2) What can happen if a person has multiple concussions throughout life?
Q3) What treatments are available to reduce epileptic seizures?
Q4) Compare and contrast the symptoms of focal and generalized seizures.
Q5) What processes following an ischemic stroke result in further brain damage?
Q6) What is electroconvulsive therapy? Why is it used? How does it affect the brain?
Q7) Differentiate between coup and contrecoup effects during a traumatic brain injury.Give an example.
Q8) How is the brain of a person with schizophrenia different from the brain of a person without it?
Q9) What is the MOST common form of brain damage in people under 40?
Q10) Explain the Freudian terms id,ego,and superego.What brain structures might these concepts be related to?
Q11) What is magnetic resonance spectroscopy? How is it used to diagnose traumatic brain injury?
Q12) What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?
Q13) Describe and explain at least four of the major challenges faced by researchers who want to study the disordered brain. Page 45
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