Cognitive Neuroscience Test Preparation - 2676 Verified Questions

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Course Introduction

Cognitive Neuroscience Test Preparation

Cognitive Neuroscience explores the neural mechanisms that underlie cognitive processes such as perception, memory, language, attention, and decision-making. This interdisciplinary field integrates principles from psychology, neuroscience, and computer science to investigate how the brain enables the mind. Students will learn about key methods used in cognitive neuroscience, including neuroimaging, electrophysiology, and lesion studies, as well as contemporary findings regarding the brain systems that support complex mental functions. The course also addresses topics related to brain development, plasticity, and the impact of neurological disorders on cognition.

Recommended Textbook

Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel

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18 Chapters

2676 Verified Questions

2676 Flashcards

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Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transorbital lobotomies were conducted through the orbits, or __________.

Answer: eye sockets

Q2) Delgado's claim of a caudate taming center should have been dismissed immediately because it violated __________.

Answer: Morgan's canon

Q3) Psychology is often defined as the scientific study of A) psychophysics.

B) behavior.

C) biopsychology.

D) the brain.

E) conditioning.

Answer: B

Q4) Research that is intended to bring about direct benefit to humankind is A) biopsychological research.

B) pure research.

C) case-study research.

D) applied research.

E) correlational research.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Evolution, Genetics, and Experience: Thinking About the Biology of Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) During protein synthesis, each amino acid is carried to the ribosome by A) a transfer RNA molecule.

B) a codon.

C) a messenger RNA molecule.

D) an operator gene.

E) a mitochondrion.

Answer: A

Q2) Birds and reptiles are A) amphibians.

B) chordates.

C) vertebrates.

D) all of the above

E) both B and C

Answer: E

Q3) Turkheimer and colleagues (2003) found that the heritability estimate of IQ among the very poor was close to __________

Answer: zero

Q4) Asomatognosia is typically produced by lesions to the right __________.

Answer: parietal lobe

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Chapter 3: The Anatomy of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The bulge on the ventral surface of the metencephalon is the __________.

Answer: pons

Q2) The putamen and __________ compose the striatum.

Answer: caudate

Q3) The ANS is part of the

A) sympathetic nervous system.

B) parasympathetic nervous system.

C) brain.

D) CNS.

E) none of the above

Answer: E

Q4) The __________ dangles from the hypothalamus.

Answer: pituitary

Q5) The hippocampus is

A) a neocortical structure.

B) in the frontal lobes.

C) six-layered.

D) shaped like a sea horse in cross section.

E) in the diencephalon.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Neural Conduction and Synaptic Transmission

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Sample Questions

Q1) Conduction of action potentials along an axon is

A) instantaneous.

B) decremental.

C) nondecremental.

D) entirely passive.

E) always saltatory.

Q2) Drugs that increase the activity of a particular neurotransmitter are said to be __________ of that neurotransmitter.

Q3) "Reptilian stare" is sometimes used to describe the widely opened, unblinking eyes and motionless face of

A) Parkinson's disease.

B) multiple sclerosis.

C) old age.

D) infancy.

E) Alzheimer's disease.

Q4) Discuss three ways that drugs produce agonistic effects and three ways that they produce antagonistic effects. Provide specific examples.

Q5) With respect to size, neuropeptides are the __________ neurotransmitters.

Q6) EPSPS are conducted passively, rapidly, and __________.

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Chapter 5: The Research Methods of Biopsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sexually receptive female rats often assume the __________ posture when mounted by a male rat.

Q2) The main difference between an average evoked potential (AEP) and a "raw" evoked potential is that

A) an AEP is usually unobservable.

B) an AEP is an alpha wave.

C) a raw evoked potential is often unobservable amidst the random noise of the ongoing EEG signal.

D) an AEP is a unit response.

E) a raw evoked potential is likely to be larger.

Q3) In the open-field test, fearful rats are __________, that is, they stay near the walls of the test box.

Q4) Which method provides structural and functional information about the living human brain on the same image?

A) functional MRI

B) angiography

C) PET

D) CT

E) EEG

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Chapter 6: The Visual System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Recent studies of the function of primary visual cortex neurons using natural visual scenes rather than simple artificial stimuli have discovered that

A) some neurons respond only to trees.

B) some neurons respond only to color.

C) visual neurons are plastic: As a background scene changes, the way that a neuron responds to elements in its receptive field changes.

D) all of the above

E) both A and B

Q2) Saccades are

A) connections between the photopic and scotopic systems.

B) blind spots.

C) eye movements.

D) centers of color vision.

E) retinal neurons.

Q3) Describe the kinds of neurons in the primary visual cortex. How are they organized?

Describe the research that led to the discovery of this organization.

Q4) The first retinal neurons encountered by light entering the eye are the retinal __________ cells.

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Chapter 7: Mechanisms of Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Endogenous attention is mediated by

A) top-down mechanisms.

B) bottom-up mechanisms.

C) recurrent collateral inhibition.

D) exogenous inhibition.

E) subliminal perception.

Q2) The spinothalamic, spinoreticular, and spinotectal somatosensory tracts are all part of the __________ system.

Q3) Although it is somewhat arbitrary, primary olfactory cortex is considered to be A) piriform cortex.

B) in the thalamus.

C) in the orbits.

D) olfactory bulbs.

E) in the glomeruli.

Q4) The __________ cortex is considered to be the primary olfactory cortex

Q5) The organ of Corti comprises the tectorial membrane, hair cells, and __________ membrane.

Q6) The identification of objects by touch is called __________.

Q7) Discuss current knowledge of auditory cortex, emphasizing both difficulties and successes.

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Chapter 8: The Sensorimotor System

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Sample Questions

Q1) In general the various areas of secondary motor cortex are thought to A) terminate response sequences.

B) specialize in guiding learned sequences.

C) program specific patterns of movement.

D) mediate reflexes.

E) provide the major input to spinal motor circuits.

Q2) The axons of Betz cells are part of the

A) dorsolateral corticospinal tract.

B) dorsolateral corticorubrospinal tract.

C) anterolateral pathway.

D) ventromedial cortico-brainstem-spinal tract.

E) ventromedial corticospinal tract.

Q3) Apraxia is usually caused by lesions to the

A) left parietal lobe.

B) right parietal lobe.

C) right primary motor cortex.

D) right secondary motor cortex.

E) either temporal lobes.

Q4) The number of motor neurons in a motor unit is __________.

Q5) Discuss the two effects of damage to the posterior parietal cortex.

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Chapter 9: Development of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Perseveration is the tendency to

A) form long-term working memories.

B) form permanent short-term memories.

C) continue making formerly correct responses that are currently incorrect.

D) continue making formerly incorrect responses that are currently correct.

E) fasciculate.

Q2) Research on the migration of developing neocortical neurons has made one important point: __________ is everything.

A) Timing

B) Location

C) Genetics

D) Experience

E) Age

Q3) Synaptic density in the primary visual cortex of infants

A) is maximal by the seventh or eighth postnatal month, and then it declines.

B) almost reaches adult levels by the seventh or eighth prenatal month.

C) follows the same course of development as the myelination of prefrontal cortex.

D) both A and C

E) both B and C

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Chapter 10: Brain Damage and Neuroplasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Meningiomas are

A) encapsulated.

B) diffuse.

C) infiltrating.

D) metastatic.

E) malignant.

Q2) The major neurochemical correlate of Parkinson's disease is a reduction of

A) cortical acetylcholine.

B) dopamine in the substantia nigra and striatum.

C) acetylcholine in the striatum.

D) serotonin in the cortex.

E) the ratio of acetylcholine to dopamine in the cortex.

Q3) In mammals, regenerating some PNS axons are guided to their correct destinations by __________ cells.

Q4) The 8th cranial nerve

A) is a sensory nerve that comes from the ear.

B) carries auditory information.

C) carries vestibular information.

D) all of the above

E) both A and B

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Chapter 11: Learning, Memory, and Amnesia

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Sample Questions

Q1) Monkey and rat experiments on the effects of medial-temporal-lobe lesions on nonrecurring-items delayed nonmatching-to-sample suggest that __________ damage contributes substantially to the amnesic effects of bilateral medial-temporal lobectomy.

A) medial temporal cortex

B) hippocampus

C) amygdala

D) both A and C

E) both B and C

Q2) The most commonly employed test of short-term verbal memory is the

A) block-tapping test.

B) digit-span test.

C) digit-span +1 test.

D) WAIS.

E) paired-associate test.

Q3) Discuss medial temporal lobe amnesia, emphasizing the cases of H.M. and R.B. What have we learned from the study of this disorder?

Q4) The __________ is thought to store memories for consistent relationships between stimuli and responses.

Q5) H.M.'s operation was a bilateral __________ lobectomy.

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Chapter 12: Hunger, Eating, and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) __________ (CCK) was one of the first satiety peptides to be studied.

Q2) Animals with a sodium deficiency

A) never learn to prefer food laced with sodium salt.

B) slowly learn to prefer the taste of sodium salt by experiencing its health-promoting effects.

C) slowly learn to prefer the taste of sodium salt by experiencing the alleviation their symptoms.

D) automatically prefer the taste of sodium salt.

E) both B and C

Q3) Receptors for insulin and leptin are particularly dense in the A) arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus.

B) frontal cortex.

C) cutaneous fat.

D) gut fat.

E) all of the above

Q4) Describe two explanations for why we get hungry at our regular meal times. Discuss relevant evidence. Which of the two explanations does the evidence support?

Q5) Large, bilateral lesions of the __________ hypothalamus produce hyperphagia and obesity.

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Chapter 13: Hormones and Sex

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Sample Questions

Q1) The anterior pituitary receives substantial neural input from the A) amygdala.

B) hypothalamus.

C) posterior pituitary.

D) thalamus.

E) none of the above

Q2) The __________ are found in the preoptic area, and they are larger in male rats than in female rats.

A) lateral geniculate nuclei

B) testes

C) sexually dimorphic nuclei

D) scrota

E) suprachiasmatic nuclei

Q3) __________ hormones are short chains of amino acids.

Q4) Castration of bisexual males

A) reduces their homosexual behavior.

B) reduces their heterosexual behavior.

C) increases their homosexuality.

D) both A and B

E) none of the above

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Chapter 14: Sleep, Dreaming, and Circadian Rhythms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Desynchronized EEG is

A) low amplitude, high frequency.

B) low frequency.

C) high amplitude.

D) high amplitude, high frequency.

E) both B and C

Q2) Cataplexy is common in cases of

A) narcolepsy.

B) insomnia.

C) anxiety.

D) pseudoinsomnia.

E) nocturnal myoclonus.

Q3) Free-running periods of sleep-wake cycles are

A) the pauses between free-running cycles.

B) invariably lengthened by zeitgebers.

C) invariably shortened by zeitgebers.

D) usually longer than 24 hours.

E) usually shorter than 24 hours.

Q4) Many cases of insomnia are caused by drugs prescribed to treat them. Disorders caused by medical treatment are termed __________.

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Chapter 15: Drug Addiction and the Brains Reward Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most laws governing drug abuse were enacted

A) in the early parts of the 20th century.

B) before there was relevant scientific information.

C) in the 1960s.

D) both A and B

E) both B and C

Q2) According to the research of Siegel, heroin users are more likely to die from an overdose when they

A) take heroin in an environment in which they have frequently taken it before.

B) take heroin subcutaneously.

C) take heroin in an environment in which they have never taken it before.

D) take heroin in an environment in which they have often taken other drugs before.

E) buy their heroin from a conspecific.

Q3) Drug tolerance can be defined as a shift in the dose-response curve to the __________.

Q4) Discuss contingent and conditioned drug tolerance. Explain the significance of these phenomena, and describe one experimental demonstration of each.

Q5) The best animal model of human drug addiction is the drug __________ paradigm.

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Chapter 16: Lateralization, Language, and the Split Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) PET and __________ are currently the main imaging techniques used by cognitive neuroscientists to study language.

Q2) Although adults have difficulty discriminating among many language sounds that are not present in the languages that they speak,___________ can discriminate among the sounds of all languages.

A) 10-month-old infants

B) 2-year-old infants

C) 5-year-old children

D) 9-year-old children

E) both A and B

Q3) Kimura argued that although signals from each ear are projected to both hemispheres, the contralateral connections take precedence

A) when different sounds from the two ears are simultaneously competing for access to the same cortical auditory circuits.

B) in split-brain subjects.

C) in aphasics.

D) in patients under the influence of sodium amytal.

E) in patients with apraxia.

Q4) The corpus callosum is the largest cerebral __________.

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Chapter 17: Biopsychology of Emotion, Stress, and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) In response to the threat of an auditory conditional stimulus, the __________ is thought to activate appropriate behavioral circuits in the PAG and sympathetic circuits in the hypothalamus.

Q2) Patients with gastric ulcers are often helped by

A) antibiotics.

B) psychological treatments, even if they don't reduce H. pylori infection.

C) psychological treatments, but only if they reduce H. pylori infection.

D) both A and B

E) both A and C

Q3) Discuss the study of facial expression, focusing on the description of three lines of research..

Q4) Memory B cells

A) facilitate long-term memory.

B) facilitate short-term memory.

C) enable antibody-mediated immune reactions to occur more quickly if a particular antigen is encountered a second time.

D) are contained in macrophages.

E) act by phagocytosis.

Q5) The __________ system received its name because it rings the thalamus.

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Chapter 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Phobic disorders, panic disorders, and obsessive compulsive disorders are all categories of A) schizophrenia. B) depression.

C) anxiety disorder.

D) mania.

E) unipolar affective disorder.

Q2) Tourette syndrome occurs more frequently in A) identical twins. B) fraternal twins.

C) males.

D) females.

E) the elderly.

Q3) A strict interpretation of the D2-version of the dopamine theory of schizophrenia cannot explain key findings. Discuss three of these findings and reach a conclusion.

Q4) Involuntarily uttering obscenities is called __________, and it is a symptom of some cases of Tourette syndrome.

Q5) Depression for which there is no apparent cause is called __________ depression.

Q6) Imipramine is a __________ antidepressant.

Page 20

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