
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Cognitive Neuroscience explores the neural mechanisms underlying mental processes such as perception, memory, language, attention, and decision-making. This course examines how brain structure and function give rise to cognitive abilities, drawing on evidence from neuroimaging, clinical case studies, and experimental research. Students will gain an understanding of key concepts in brain anatomy, neural communication, and cutting-edge methodologies used to investigate the relationship between the brain and behavior. The course also addresses recent advances and ongoing challenges in understanding the biological basis of cognition.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience 9th Edition by Neil R. Carlson
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16 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic variety is good for a species in that
A) such diversity allows some members of the species to adapt to a new environment.
B) mutations are kept to a minimum.
C) variety promotes neural development.
D) variety reduces reproductive success.
E) None of the above are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is true with regard to the use of animals by humans?
A) Owning a pet requires permission from a veterinarian.
B) Pet homes are regularly inspected by the government.
C) More suffering occurs through pet ownership than with research.
D) More animals die in research projects than die as pets.
E) No animal research has been useful for understanding and treating human disease.
Answer: C
Q3) Discuss evidence that suggests consciousness is a physiological function.
Answer: Consciousness appears to be localized to discrete circuits and to allow us to more readily adapt to new environments.Brain damage can alter consciousness,as in the case of the "split-brain" syndrome.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recipes for generating individual proteins are contained within the A) mitochondria.
B) cytoskeleton.
C) genes.
D) terminal buttons.
E) dendrites.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is true of Schwann cells?
A) Schwann cells are found within the brain.
B) Schwann cells provide myelin for central nerve cells.
C) A single Schwann cell wraps a single segment of a peripheral nerve cell.
D) A single Schwann cell myelinates up to 3 segments of axon membrane.
E) Schwann cells slow down conduction of action potentials along the axon.
Answer: C
Q3) A thick myelinated axon fiber will conduct an action potential more rapidly than will a thin unmyelinated fiber.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Regions of the cortex that are NOT directly concerned with sensation or movement are termed the ________ cortex.
A) homuncular
B) association
C) nonspecific
D) projection
E) undifferentiated
Answer: B
Q2) Electrical stimulation of the right motor cortex elicits limb movements on the left side of the body,and vice versa.Which term below best describes this organization of the motor cortex and the muscles of the body?
A) contralateral
B) horizontal
C) ipsilateral
D) antagonistic
E) parasagittal
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following true of NMDA receptors?
A) Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions into the nerve cell.
B) NMDA receptors are metabotropic.
C) Glutamate is an antagonist for the NMDA receptor.
D) The activity of the NMDA receptor is not dependent on magnesium ions.
E) The NMDA receptor produces IPSPs.
Q2) Which pair of drugs below are known to facilitate and inhibit (respectively)the release of ACh?
A) black widow spider venom; botulinum toxin
B) botulinum toxin; muscarine
C) botulinum toxin; black widow spider venom
D) botulinum toxin; nicotine
E) black widow spider venom; muscarine
Q3) Which neurotransmitter acts to promote vigilance?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) serotonin
E) GABA
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Q1) Fluorogold is used in the retrograde tracing procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following techniques creates a brain lesion by overstimulating neurons to death?
A) aspiration of a region of the cortex
B) extreme physical exercise
C) infusions of an excitatory amino acid into a brain region
D) 6-hydroxydopamine infusions into a brain region
E) radio-frequency current passed through a brain region
Q3) The firing rates of ________ neurons and of ________ neurons fall to zero during REM sleep.
A) noradrenergic; serotonergic
B) cholinergic; dopaminergic
C) GABA; adenosine
D) cholinergic; adenosine
E) opioid; dopaminergic
Q4) Explain how retrograde labeling is used to trace the afferent connections for a brain region.
Q5) Explain how and why the brain is preserved during the histology process.
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Q1) TMS applied to area MT produces color blindness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Variation in the ________ of a light will result in variation in the perception of
A) wavelength; saturation
B) saturation; brightness
C) wavelength; brightness
D) intensity; purity
E) wavelength; hue
Q3) Imagine that a scientist has discovered a nerve toxin that selectively destroys the columns of neurons that lie within the blob regions of striate cortex modules.Which of the following would you expect to be most profoundly impaired by this toxin?
A) movement sensitivity
B) orientation sensitivity
C) depth perception
D) color vision
E) texture perception
Q4) Explain the notion that neurons in striate cortex function as feature detectors.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the central auditory system?
A) Each hemisphere receives information from one ear.
B) The most medial portion of the auditory cortex gets information from the apical end of the basilar membrane.
C) The auditory cortex has a tonotopic organization.
D) The auditory association cortex is located in the frontal lobe.
E) The primary auditory cortex is located within the occipital lobe.
Q2) The connection of the vestibular system with brain stem nuclei functions to
A) adjust eye movements to compensate for sudden head movements.
B) control movement of the lower legs.
C) provide inhibitory feedback onto the auditory system during exposure to loud stimuli.
D) generate a cue that promotes the sensation of depth in a visual scene.
E) suppress nausea and vomiting induced by body movement.
Q3) The utricle and saccule are components of the
A) middle ear.
B) cochlea.
C) vestibular sacs.
D) semicircular canals.
E) outer ear..

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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleep attacks are effectively treated by drugs that
A) facilitate serotonin.
B) damage hypocretin neurons in the brain.
C) act as catecholamine agonists.
D) facilitate GABA activity.
E) block hypocretin2 receptors.
Q2) The vlPOA is key region for the initiation of sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The metabolism of glycogen increases the brain levels of ________,which in turn promotes ________.
A) GABA; slow-wave sleep
B) GABA; REM sleep
C) adenosine; slow-wave sleep
D) a benzodiazepine ligand; slow-wave sleep
E) adenosine; wakefulness
Q4) Compare the characteristics of non-REM sleep with that of REM sleep.
Q5) Sleep deprivation produces severe physiological stress.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The principle that best describes an organizational effect of androgens that prevents an animal from showing female sexual behavior during adulthood is
A) aromatization.
B) masculinization.
C) behavioral masculinization.
D) feminization.
E) behavioral defeminization.
Q2) Imaging studies of the male brain during ejaculation indicate _______ activity within the _______.
A) decreased; cerebellum
B) increased; ventral tegmental area
C) decreased; ventral tegmental area
D) increased; amygdala
E) increased; cerebellum
Q3) Describe the events that transpired for the case of David and explain how his case has been used to understand the relative contribution of socialization versus biology to sexual identity.
Q4) Describe and explain the differences between masculinization and defeminization.Give an example for each effect.
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Q1) The capacity of a rat to "freeze" depends on an intact lateral hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Damage to the ________ would be expected to disrupt the integration of fear.
A) thalamus
B) medial hypothalamus
C) orbitofrontal cortex
D) amygdala
E) reticular activating system
Q3) The insular cortex
A) is activated by pheromones.
B) contains the primary auditory cortex.
C) is activated by stimuli that produce strong emotions.
D) is required to regulate facial expressions of emotion.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Damage to the medial prefrontal cortex facilitates the extinction of a conditioned emotional response.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the significance of a conditioned emotional response (CER).
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Q1) Research by Egan and others has suggested that osmoreceptors are located within the
A) amygdala.
B) medial hypothalamus.
C) cerebral aqueduct.
D) medial orbitofrontal cortex.
E) anteroventral tip of the third ventricle.
Q2) Electrolytic lesions of the ventromedial hypothalamus ________ whereas electrical stimulation ________.
A) impair sexual behavior; elicits repetitive bouts of copulation
B) inhibit eating; produces overeating
C) elicit repetitive bouts of copulation; impairs sexual behavior
D) produce overeating to obesity; inhibits eating
E) activate thermogenesis; induces shivering
Q3) Lesions of the lateral hypothalamus produce overeating and obesity in laboratory animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the role of ghrelin in the control of eating.
Q5) Explain why metabolic efficiency is a key factor in obesity.
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Q1) Memory for events and facts that we can think and talk about is referred to as
A) Hebbian memory.
B) motor memory.
C) procedural memory.
D) declarative memory.
E) nondeclarative memories.
Q2) Simple perceptual learning involves
A) our capacity to associate sensory and motor stimuli.
B) our recognition of particular stimuli or categories of stimuli.
C) learning how to respond to a particular stimulus.
D) changes in the outputs of the motor system.
E) our ability to associate a new stimulus with an old reflex.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of perceptual learning task?
A) making a classically conditioned eyeblink response
B) recognizing broken drawings
C) recalling childhood events that occurred prior to age 9
D) recognizing songs learned in childhood prior to brain damage
E) tracing a figure
Q4) Provide a definition of learning and memory.
Q5) Explain the distinction between declarative and nondeclarative memory.
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Q1) Wernicke's aphasia is caused by damage to
A) the frontal association cortex of the right hemisphere.
B) Broca's area and the caudate nucleus.
C) the superior temporal gyrus of the left hemisphere.
D) the inferior occipital gyrus of the right hemisphere.
E) the left parietal lobe.
Q2) Verbal behavior is said to be a lateralized function of the left hemisphere in that A) most language problems are noted after damage to the right rather than the left hemisphere.
B) most language problems are noted after damage to the left rather than the right hemisphere.
C) right-handed persons are more likely to have their language center located within the right hemisphere.
D) electrical stimulation of the left hemisphere has a smaller effect on language than does similar stimulation of the right hemisphere.
E) most persons show a greater movement of the lips on the right side of their mouth during speech.
Q3) Describe three types of acquired dyslexias.
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Q1) The standard drug treatment for Parkinson's disease is administration of A) haloperidol.
B) belladonna.
C) L-DOPA.
D) apomorphine.
E) cocaine and amphetamine.
Q2) ________ involve(s)periodic bouts of overactivity of cerebral neurons.
A) Dementia
B) Metastases
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Seizure disorders
E) Strokes
Q3) Huntington's disease is a sporadic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the etiology and symptoms of Huntington's disease and of Parkinson's disease.How do both these diseases of the basal ganglia differ from one another?
Q5) Interferon ? treatment can reduce the symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Recurring attacks of acute and debilitating anxiety are a primary symptom of A) mania.
B) psychoses.
C) adult-onset depression.
D) panic disorder.
E) reactive depression.
Q2) The seasonality effect refers to the observation that
A) people born during the winter are more likely to develop schizophrenia.
B) schizophrenic symptoms intensify during the summer.
C) the rate of admissions to hospitals for schizophrenia is highest in the winter.
D) people are more likely to contract flu during the summer months.
E) the rate of admissions to hospitals for schizophrenia is lowest in the winter.
Q3) Panic disorder
A) occurs about twice as often in women as in men.
B) rarely lasts more than a few seconds.
C) rarely appears before the age of 35.
D) is five times more likely to occur in older men than older women.
E) is a disorder of young women, but not young men.
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Q1) Opiate drugs produce sedation via activation of receptors in the preoptic area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the symptoms that comprise autism and assess the potential for treatment.
Q3) Poor parenting is an important cause of autistic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The "high" produced by ________ can be blocked by ________.
A) cocaine; dopamine autoreceptor agonists
B) alcohol; CB? receptor agonists
C) marijuana; CB? receptor antagonists
D) alcohol; GABAA receptor agonists
E) marijuana; GABAA receptor agonists
Q5) Where are the opiate receptors located that are responsible for the following: analgesia,sedation,and reinforcement?
Q6) The brains of autistic persons show abnormalities of white matter.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain why nicotine is now considered to be an addictive drug. Page 18
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