Cognitive Neuroscience Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Cognitive Neuroscience explores the neural mechanisms underlying mental processes such as perception, memory, language, reasoning, and decision-making. Integrating methods from psychology, neuroscience, and computational modeling, the course examines how brain structure and activity give rise to cognitive functions. Students gain an understanding of key concepts including brain imaging techniques, neural substrates of cognition, and the effects of brain injury on behavior, providing a comprehensive foundation for advanced study or research in the cognitive sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience 9th Edition by Neil R. Carlson
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16 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Origins of Behavioral Neuroscience
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physiological psychologist would be most comfortable with which of the following statements?
A) The universe is a mental construction.
B) The body is a hallucination generated by the mind.
C) The body is made of matter; the mind is not.
D) Everything is made of matter and energy.
E) The body is physical and the mind is spiritual.
Answer: D
Q2) Identify three contributors to the development of physiology and discuss the implications that their work had for the science of neurophysiology.
Answer: Müller argued for the use of experimental methods to study physiology.Helmholtz developed methods and techniques to study the physiology of vision and audition.Flourens developed the technique of experimental ablation,which can provide insight into the functions of brain regions.
Q3) The author argues that consciousness is associated with the ability of humans to use language for communication.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Structure and Functions of Cells of the Nervous System
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of a barrier between the blood stream and the brain is suggested by the observation that
A) all cells of the body are stained by a dye injected into the bloodstream.
B) injection of dye into the bloodstream stains all cells but those of the brain and spinal cord.
C) the gut is stained by a dye injected into the brain ventricles.
D) injection of dye into the ventricles stains all cells of the body.
E) most chemicals rapidly reach the brain after oral ingestion..
Answer: B
Q2) .Provide an overview of the ionic events that produce the action potential.
Answer: Movements of the membrane potential past threshold,open sodium channels,which moves the membrane potential from -60 to roughly +40 mV. The sodium channels then close,and the potential is restored to resting by an opening of the potassium channels.
Q3) Explain why saltatory conduction speeds up the velocity of action potentials.
Answer: In saltatory conduction,the action potential does not have to depolarize every segment of membrane,only those at the widely separated nodes of Ranvier.
Q4) What is the general function of autoreceptors?
Answer: To modulate the internal biochemical activity of the presynaptic cell.
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Chapter 3: Structure of the Nervous System
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130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The midbrain is comprised of the
A) dorsal horn and ventral horn.
B) tectum and tegmentum.
C) pons and medulla.
D) thalamus and hypothalamus.
E) superior colliculus and inferior colliculus.
Answer: B
Q2) The ________ are formed by four hollow and interconnected spaces within the brain.
A) choroid plexi
B) subarachnoid spaces
C) ventricles
D) meninges
E) aqueducts
Answer: C
Q3) Explain the significance of the process of apoptosis for brain development.
Answer: The brain overproduces neurons.Apoptosis serves to eliminate neurons that cannot make appropriate synaptic contacts.
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5
Chapter 4: Psychopharmacology
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127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Learning is facilitated by ACh activity in the basal forebrain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following neuron systems that use ACh has been related to the control of REM sleep?
A) dorsolateral pons ACh system
B) hypothalamocortical ACh system
C) basal forebrain ACh system
D) medial septal ACh system
E) nigrostriatal Ach system
Q3) Stimulation of a presynaptic autoreceptor
A) reduces the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.
B) alters the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal.
C) blocks the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.
D) increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.
E) would be expected to act as an agonist for this synapse.
Q4) Explain what is meant by a therapeutic index (TI).
Q5) Explain what is meant by a placebo effect.
Q6) Describe the major functions of glutamate in neurotransmission.
Q7) Describe the major components of pharmacokinetics.
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Chapter 5: Methods and Strategies of Research
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are produced by white blood cells to destroy invading microorganisms in the body.
A) Antibodies
B) Autogens
C) Antigens
D) Receptors
E) Autophagins
Q2) Formalin is useful in histology because it
A) softens the brain tissue for slicing.
B) halts the enzyme process that breaks down brain tissue after death.
C) quickly removes blood from the gut.
D) .stains for neuron nuclei.
E) .bleaches the brain tissue.
Q3) Give an overview of stereotaxic surgery for the purpose of implanting a cannula into the brain.
Q4) Microdialysis is used to measure the brain's secretions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how and why the brain is preserved during the histology process.
Q6) Describe a procedure that could be used to produce a reversible lesion.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rods are to cones as
A) color vision is to night vision.
B) acuity in the dark is to acuity in the day.
C) excellent acuity is to poor acuity.
D) fovea is to periphery.
E) brightness is to purity.
Q2) Sensory receptors are specialized for the
A) detection of physical stimuli.
B) induction of movement of a limb.
C) detection of specific chemicals released from other neurons.
D) detection of internal-but not external-stimuli.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Retinal disparity is necessary for A) depth perception.
B) stereopsis.
C) red-green color vision.
D) brightness sensitivity.
E) blue-yellow color vision.
Q4) Define and explain what is meant by agnosia.
Q5) Describe the primary visual pathway.
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Chapter 7: Audition, the Body Senses, and the Chemical
Senses
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blind person will find it easier to join a conversation than will a deaf person.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The shearing force that bends the tips of the inner hair cells in response to movement of the basilar membrane arises from the
A) linkage between the hair cells and the tectorial membrane.
B) mechanical linkage between the hair cells and the tympanic membrane.
C) movement of the round window.
D) movement of the hair cells through the tectorial membrane.
E) movement of fluid past the tips of the hair cells.
Q3) The function of kinesthesia is to provide information about
A) the overall state of muscle tone.
B) head orientation.
C) body movement and position.
D) environmental temperature.
E) gravity. Rationale: The function of kinesthesia is to provide information about body movement and position.
Q4) Explain the significance of "natural analgesia."
Q5) Describe the physical and psychological properties of sound.
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Chapter 8: Sleep and Biological Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why it is said that the brain is active during sleep.
Q2) ________ is an example of a ________ .
A) Light; zeitgeber
B) Colder night temperature; pacemaker
C) Melatonin; pacing stimulus
D) Warmer day temperature; zeitgeber
E) Light; chronopulse
Q3) The high level of delta waves in normally active brain areas suggests that the primary function of stage 4 of slow-wave sleep is to
A) inhibit motor movements during dreaming.
B) facilitate memory.
C) promote beta-wave activity in the forebrain.
D) rest the brain.
E) redirect blood flow to the genitals.
Q4) All of the following are characteristics of REM sleep EXCEPT
A) alternating delta and beta EEG activities.
B) loss of muscle tonus.
C) presence of beta wave EEG activity.
D) occasional twitching.
E) rapid eye movements.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Reproductive Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protein that dictates the conversion of the undifferentiated gonads into the testes is controlled by the
A) gene Tny.
B) leptin protein.
C) ob/ob gene.
D) gene Sry.
E) X chromosome.
Q2) People with Turner's syndrome
A) lack steroid receptors.
B) have no gonads.
C) develop male internal sex organs.
D) have two Y chromosomes and one X chromosome.
E) are prolific at bearing children.
Q3) The prenatal development of the external male genitalia requires the presence of A) estradiol.
B) melatonin.
C) alpha-fetoprotein.
D) dihydrotestosterone.
E) anti-Müllerian hormone.
Q4) Differentiate between primary and secondary sex characteristics.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Emotion
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the James-Lange theory of emotion,which of the following is most important for the subjective experience of an emotion?
A) an intact thalamus
B) the cultural context in which an event occurs
C) one's self-report of what is being experienced
D) sensory feedback from muscles and internal organs
E) changes in hormone levels provoked by the stimulus
Q2) The recognition of emotions expressed by others is most likely to be impaired after damage to the
A) cerebellum.
B) brain stem.
C) right hemisphere.
D) left hemisphere.
E) dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
Q3) Describe the types of emotional stimuli that activate cells within the amygdala.
Q4) Discuss the James-Lange theory of emotion and cite evidence that supports this theory.
Q5) Low levels of brain 5-HIAA are correlated with risky behavior in male primates.
A)True
B)False
12
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Chapter 11: Ingestive Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of the CB1 receptor antagonist ________ may be useful in the treatment of ________.
A) nisoxetine; anorexia nervosa
B) orlistat; anorexia nervosa
C) rimonabant; obesity
D) fenfluramine; obesity and bulimia
E) rimonabant; anorexia nervosa
Q2) The primary physiological signal for hunger is likely a decrease in glucose or fatty acid levels in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not considered to be a key factor that contributes to obesity?
A) the generous portions provided by fast-food restaurants
B) learning to eat all that is placed on your plate
C) the fact that we require more calories as we get older
D) innate aberrations of metabolism
E) the fact that we require fewer calories as we get older
Q4) Describe the four essential components of a regulatory system.
Q5) Describe the stimuli and receptors that induce volumetric thirst.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Learning and Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Performing a spatial task would be expected to activate the A) amygdala, but not the hippocampus.
B) hippocampal formation on the right side of the brain.
C) temporal lobe on the left side of the brain.
D) frontal cortex on the right side of the brain.
E) hippocampal formation on the left side of the brain.
Q2) Intense electrical stimulation of axons within the hippocampal formation results in
A) long-term potentiation of postsynaptic neurons.
B) axoaxonic inhibition of presynaptic neurons.
C) recurrent inhibition of the stimulated axons.
D) long-term potentiation of presynaptic neurons.
E) "synaptic fatigue."
Q3) Discuss the role of the NMDA receptor in LTP.
Q4) In classical conditioning,a neutral stimulus
A) becomes inactive over repeated presentations.
B) reliably produces a response.
C) is termed the unconditional stimulus.
D) must always be presented after the unconditional stimulus.
E) is paired repeatedly with a stimulus that evokes a reflexive response.
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Chapter 13: Human Communication
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108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key function of human verbal behavior is to
A) have behavioral effects on others.
B) allow us to protect our property from others.
C) allow us to hide our emotions..
D) convey information about our environment..
E) locate objects in space.
Q2) Wernicke's aphasia is caused by damage to
A) the frontal association cortex of the right hemisphere.
B) Broca's area and the caudate nucleus.
C) the superior temporal gyrus of the left hemisphere.
D) the inferior occipital gyrus of the right hemisphere.
E) the left parietal lobe.
Q3) A primary characteristic of Wernicke's aphasia is
A) effortless production of meaningless speech.
B) fumbling for the right word.
C) labored and nonfluent speech.
D) unemotional speech.
E) mutism.
Q4) Compare the difficulties in writing that appear in persons with phonological dysgraphia versus orthographic dysgraphia.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A meningioma is a ________ tumor that arises from ________.
A) benign; astrocytes
B) benign; Schwann cells
C) malignant; Schwann cells
D) benign; dural or arachnoid cells
E) malignant; dural or arachnoid cells
Q2) Huntington's disease is a sporadic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A key treatment for stroke involving weak and malformed blood vessels involves
A) medication to lower blood pressure.
B) administration of antibiotics.
C) administration of demoteplase.
D) brain surgery to seal off the faulty vessels.
E) medication that speeds up the formation of blood clots.
Q4) A sporadic disease is both frequent and related to heredity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the etiology and symptoms of Huntington's disease and of Parkinson's disease.How do both these diseases of the basal ganglia differ from one another?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Schizophrenia, Affective Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The positive symptoms of schizophrenia may be caused by A) poor parenting.
B) a single recessive gene.
C) excessive activity in dopamine circuits in the brain.
D) a degenerative disorder of the brain.
E) an imbalance of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain.
Q2) Explain the rationale used for sleep deprivation as a treatment for depression.
Q3) Which of the following is among the most effective treatments for panic disorder?
A) benzodiazepine drugs
B) tricyclic antidepressant drugs
C) MAO inhibitor drugs
D) ketamine therapy
E) behavioral therapy
Q4) Compare and contrast the actions of amphetamine-like stimulant drugs and of antipsychotic drugs on brain dopamine.
Q5) Describe the types of evidence that support the proposition that alteration of prenatal development can contribute to the causation of schizophrenia.
Page 17
Q6) Explain why it is thought that genes convey a susceptibility for schizophrenia.
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Chapter 16: Autistic, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity, Stress, and Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary means by which the immune system defends against invading organisms is to
A) suppress the release of CRH.
B) release corticosterone.
C) generate red blood cells from bone marrow.
D) generate antibodies that bind to and kill a foreign cell.
E) trigger apoptosis of brain cells.
Q2) The estimated heritability of autism is ____%.
A) 1-5
B) 10-20
C) 30-40
D) 50-60
E)75-90
Q3) Explain how drugs of abuse may act via the same substrate engaged by natural rewards.
Q4) Explain why nicotine is now considered to be an addictive drug.
Q5) Craving involves the desire to use a drug.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
Q6) Explain the addictive potential of cocaine in humans.
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Page 19