
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Cognitive Neuroscience explores the biological foundations of mental processes such as perception, memory, language, attention, and decision-making. The course examines how brain structures and neural mechanisms give rise to cognition, drawing on methods like neuroimaging, electrophysiology, and clinical studies of brain injury. Students will analyze key research findings, discuss current theories, and consider the implications for understanding both healthy and disordered brain function. This interdisciplinary field bridges psychology, neuroscience, and computer science to reveal how the brain enables the mind.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat
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15 Chapters
3327 Verified Questions
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Q1) Changes in single genes are called:
A) alterations.
B) mutations.
C) mendelians.
D) enzymes.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following specialists is MOST likely to work with people with brain damage?
A) comparative psychologist
B) biopsychologist
C) neuropsychologist
D) psychobiologist
Answer: C
Q3) If a characteristic is controlled by an X-linked recessive gene, it produces its apparent effects:
A) more often in males.
B) more often in females.
C) only in childhood.
D) only after puberty.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most chemicals can easily cross the cell membrane of a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Neurons are distinguished from other cells by their shape.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When the neuronal membrane is at rest, the potassium channels:
A) permit potassium ions to pass quickly and easily.
B) permit potassium ions to pass slowly.
C) prohibit any movement of potassium ions.
D) help to open up the sodium channels.
Answer: B
Q4) The selectivity of a neuron membrane is analogous to:
A) the blood-brain barrier.
B) the action potential.
C) the resting potential.
D) myelin.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibitory synapses actively suppress excitatory responses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) controls:
A) secretions of the gonads.
B) secretions of the mammary glands.
C) secretions of the thyroid gland.
D) secretions of the adrenal cortex.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the synaptic cleft?
A) the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron
B) a packet that stores neurotransmitter molecules
C) a subthreshold depolarization
D) the storage location for calcium ions
Answer: A
Q4) Describe the main chemical events at a synapse.
Answer: 11ec6245_e458_e874_a67d_9b71605136f4_TB2022_00
Q5) List the major types of neurotransmitters.
Answer: Amino acids, neuropeptides, acetylcholine, monoamines, and purines.
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Q1) Which of the following structures provides the main source of input to the cerebral cortex?
A) Limbic system
B) Medulla
C) Thalamus
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) If you could selectively damage the individual laminae of the cortex, damage to which layer would most likely affect visual sensation?
A) Layer IV of the temporal cortex
B) Layer V of the occipital cortex
C) Layer IV of the occipital cortex
D) Layer II of the frontal cortex
Q3) The medulla controls a number of reflexes through:
A) the midbrain.
B) the forebrain.
C) cranial nerves.
D) skeletal nerves.
Q4) The limbic system is important for motivation and emotional behaviors.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heightened sensitivity to a neurotransmitter after the destruction of an incoming axon is known as:
A) axon supersensitivity
B) disuse supersensitivity
C) enervation supersensitivity
D) denervation supersensitivity
Q2) Synaptogenesis is a process that begins before birth and continues throughout life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Early in development, the nervous system begins as a:
A) tube surrounding a fluid-filled cavity.
B) spherical structure in the center of the embryo.
C) diffuse system of cells scattered throughout the body.
D) single layer of cells covering the heart and other internal organs.
Q4) Axons are usually formed before the dendrites.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define denervation supersensitivity.
Q6) Briefly describe sprouting.
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the level of rods and cones, the ____ theory seems to fit best, while at the level of the bipolar cells, the ____ theory seems to fit best.
A) opponent process; volley
B) volley; trichromatic
C) opponent process; trichromatic
D) trichromatic; opponent process
Q2) Which cell responds most strongly to a stimulus moving perpendicular to its axis?
A) simple
B) complex
C) lateral geniculate
D) ganglion
Q3) ____ cells axons make up the optic nerve.
A) Horizontal
B) Amacrine
C) Bipolar
D) Ganglion
Q4) Cones are essential for color vision.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Our ability to see a wide range of colors, despite the presence of only three types of receptors, indicates that color vision depends on which type of coding?
A) across-fiber pattern
B) reciprocal-inhibitory
C) labeled-line
D) hierarchical
Q2) Pain receptors of the skin are:
A) elaborate neuron endings.
B) also known as Ruffini endings.
C) simple, bare neuron endings.
D) also known as Meissner's corpuscles.
Q3) Following exposure to painful stimuli, brain activation is limited to the somatosensory cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Women are less sensitive to odors than men.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the behavioral effects of pheromones in humans.
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Q1) In contrast to people with posterior parietal damage, people with damage to certain parts of the occipital cortex outside the primary visual cortex:
A) can't locate the source of sounds.
B) lose their ability to see everything.
C) can accurately describe what they see but cannot reach out to grasp it.
D) cannot accurately describe what they see but can reach out to grasp it.
Q2) A physician taps you just below the knee to check a reflex that is based on information from which kind of receptor?
A) a Golgi tendon organ
B) an oscillator
C) a muscle spindle
D) a vestibular organ
Q3) The presymptomatic test for Huntington's disease enables one to predict not only who will get the disease but also:
A) the approximate age of onset.
B) what other diseases the person will get.
C) which drugs will best alleviate the disease.
D) which symptoms will become prominent first, and which ones later.
Q4) Why is L-dopa effective in treating Parkinson's patients, but not dopamine?
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Q1) When does sleep walking occur?
A) only during REM sleep
B) only during NREM sleep
C) during both stage 3 and 4 sleep
D) during the brief transition period between REM sleep and non-REM sleep
Q2) What is the principal zeitgeber for land animals?
A) Light
B) The tides
C) Temperature
D) Barometric pressure
Q3) Stages 2 and 3 together constitute slow-wave sleep (SWS).
A)True
B)False
Q4) After damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, the body:
A) cannot generate biological rhythms.
B) still has rhythms in synchrony with environmental patterns of light and dark.
C) still has rhythms, but they are less consistent.
D) still has rhythms, but they can only be reset by artificial light.
Q5) List some examples of "zeitgebers".
Q6) Define the term endogenous circadian rhythm.
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Q1) Anorexia is a problem of lack of appetite.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe how bulimia nervosa resembles drug addiction.
Q3) The temperature required by reproductive cells of birds and most mammals is:
A) higher than the rest of the body.
B) lower than the rest of the body.
C) the same as the internal organs of the body.
D) fluctuating in direct opposition to changes in body temperature.
Q4) The blood's glucose level ordinarily remains relatively constant because of the activity of:
A) CCK.
B) the liver.
C) the thyroid gland.
D) the gall bladder.
Q5) Hypovolemic thirst:
A) depends mostly on the lateral preoptic area.
B) can be satisfied better by salt water than by pure water.
C) is stimulated by an increased concentration of solutes in the blood.
D) can only be satisfied by drinking a great deal of pure water.
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Q1) At the end of the menstrual cycle in women, the levels of LH and FSH ____; the levels of estradiol and progesterone ____.
A) decrease; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) increase; increase
D) decrease; decrease
Q2) Describe some of the evidence that brain anatomy may differ as a function of sexual orientation.
Q3) Which hormone(s) is/are likely to be found more abundantly in females than in males?
A) Peptide hormones
B) Androgens
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogens
Q4) The hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy is:
A) testosterone.
B) androgen.
C) progesterone.
D) estradiol.
Q5) Give some examples of evolutionary interpretations of mating behavior.
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Q1) The classical illness behaviors such as fever, sleepiness, and lack of appetite are caused by:
A) decreased brain activity.
B) toxins released by pathogens.
C) the immune system's production of cytokines.
D) antibody production.
Q2) The field of study that would be most concerned with the effects of smoking, diet, exercise, and stress on health is:
A) behavioral medicine.
B) neurology.
C) dietetics.
D) psychology.
Q3) The Behavioral Inhibition System is associated with:
A) low to moderate arousal, tendency to approach new objects, and pleasant mood.
B) maximum arousal, increased fear, and negative mood.
C) lack of arousal, decreased action, and pleasant mood.
D) increased attention and arousal, decreased action, and fear or disgust.
Q4) Temporary increases in cortisol can enhance immune function.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Deliberate recall of information that one recognizes as a memory is termed:
A) priming.
B) explicit memory.
C) procedural memory.
D) declarative memory.
Q2) After a series of electrical shocks, a person becomes overresponsive to lights and noises. This exemplifies:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) operant conditioning.
D) classical conditioning.
Q3) Habituation and sensitization differ depending upon whether:
A) the effect is retroactive or proactive.
B) the response grows weaker or stronger.
C) the animal's behavior changes or fails to change.
D) it occurs in all species or just mammals.
Q4) Alzheimer's patients have better explicit memory than implicit memory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the brain pathology of Alzheimer's disease.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly discuss the concept of a language acquisition device.
Q2) A person with spatial neglect is more likely to notice an object placed in the left hand if:
A) they cross their left hand over to the right side of their body.
B) they cross their right hand over to the left side of their body.
C) look to the right.
D) you touch their right hand.
Q3) In order for a split-brain patient to name something, he must see it:
A) with the left eye.
B) with the right eye.
C) in the left visual field.
D) in the right visual field.
Q4) Discuss some of the research conducted in split-brain patients.
Q5) The left and right hemispheres exchange information through a set of axons called the corpus callosum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In most people, the right hemisphere is dominant for speech.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one of the best treatments for seasonal affective disorder?
A) bright light
B) electroconvulsive shock therapy
C) adrenal hormones
D) dietary changes
Q2) Atypical antipsychotic drugs differ from standard neuroleptics like chlorpromazine in terms of:
A) the blood pH they require for effectiveness.
B) which set of dopamine synapses they affect.
C) how quickly they take effect.
D) how long their effects last.
Q3) Schizophrenia is Greek for:
A) multiple personality.
B) hallucinations.
C) split mind.
D) premature deterioration of the mind.
Q4) A study found that depressed people showed an increased response to facial expressions of fear and a decreased response to happy expressions.
A)True
B)False

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