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Cognitive Neuroscience explores the biological foundations of mental processes and behavior by examining how the brain enables functions such as perception, memory, language, decision-making, and consciousness. This course integrates concepts from psychology, neuroscience, and cognitive science to investigate how neural circuits give rise to cognitive abilities. Students will learn about cutting-edge research techniques, including neuroimaging and electrophysiology, and discuss the implications of brain injuries and neurological disorders for understanding typical cognitive function. The course aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of the links between brain activity and mental processes, fostering critical thinking about how we study and interpret the workings of the mind.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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Q1) What is epigenetics and why is it an important topic to study?
Answer: no answer
Q2) What are memes and how do they influence our evolution?
Answer: no answer
Q3) What is materialism and how has it influenced the study of neuroscience?
Answer: no answer
Q4) Define common ancestor and how this applies to Darwin's theory of evolution. Answer: A common ancestor refers to a hypothetical organism from which two or more different species are believed to have evolved. In the context of Darwin's theory of evolution, the concept of a common ancestor is central to the idea that all living organisms are related and share a common ancestry. Darwin proposed that over long periods of time, species have evolved from common ancestors through a process of descent with modification, driven by natural selection. This means that different species share common traits and characteristics because they inherited them from a common ancestor, and as they adapted to different environments, they evolved into distinct species. The concept of a common ancestor provides a framework for understanding the interconnectedness of all life on Earth and the diversity of species that have emerged through the process of evolution.
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Q1) The notion that all living things are related was put forward by:
A) Charles Darwin.
B) Alfred Russel Wallace.
C) neither Charles Darwin nor Alfred Russel Wallace.
D) both Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace.
Answer: D
Q2) Of the 100,000 people in the United States who may become comatose in a given year,how many recover consciousness?
A) 5 percent
B) 20 percent
C) 30 percent
D) 50 percent
Answer: B
Q3) Which of our human ancestors had the largest brain size?
A) Australopithecus
B) Neanderthals
C) Homo habilis
D) Homo erectus
Answer: B
Page 4
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Q1) Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Answer: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two branches of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When activated, it increases heart rate, dilates the airways, and redirects blood flow to the muscles, preparing the body for physical activity. This response is triggered in times of stress or danger.
On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "rest and digest" response. When activated, it slows down heart rate, constricts the airways, and stimulates digestion. This response helps the body to relax and recover after a stressful situation.
In summary, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action and stress, while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes relaxation and recovery. These two systems work in balance to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Q1) A disruption of the blood supply to a brain region causes:
A) meningitis.
B) encephalitis.
C) a stroke.
D) cerebral agenesis.
Q2) A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by:
A) a blood clot.
B) a ruptured blood vessel.
C) an embolism.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The symptoms of the "sleeping sickness" that arose during World War I are caused by lesions to the:
A) putamen.
B) globus pallidus.
C) substantia nigra.
D) amygdala.
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Q1) What functions do proteins contribute to cell function?
Q2) List the internal components of a cell.
Q3) What is epigenetics? Why is studying it important?
Q4) What are the differences between knock-in and knockout mice?
Q5) What are the major functions of ependymal cells?
Q6) How does genetic engineering help us understand the human condition?
Q7) What are the major functions of Schwann cells? How do they assist in the recovery from nerve damage?
Q8) What role do Golgi bodies play inside of neurons?
Q9) What are three major types of neurons? How are they functionally different?
Q10) What are the major functions of astroglia?
Q11) What are the three types of brain tumors? How do they differ from one another?
Q12) What are the five types of glial cells,and what are their primary functions?
Q13) List the types of genetic engineering.
Q14) Differentiate between Santiago Ramón y Cajal's and Camillo Golgi's views on brain Page 7
Q15) Differentiate between dominant and recessive genes.
Q16) What is Down syndrome,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q17) What is phenotypic plasticity?
Q18) List the functions of the cell nucleus.
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Q1) When neurons are continuously firing,they need a constant supply of glucose and oxygen to continue operating.This is achieved via _____,which signal blood vessels to expand and increase blood flow.
A) Schwann cells
B) ependymal cells
C) astrocytes
D) microglia
Q2) A patient who shows abnormal involuntary movements and loss of memory most likely has:
A) Tay-Sachs disease.
B) Huntington disease.
C) Alzheimer disease.
D) Down syndrome.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an interneuron?
A) Purkinje cell
B) stellate cell
C) pyramidal cell
D) Schwann cell
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Transmit Information? Part A
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Q1) What are temporal and spatial summation?
Q2) What are voltage-sensitive ion channels?
Q3) Differentiate between absolute and relative refractory periods.
Q4) What are the two primary reasons refractory periods are important for the conduction of nerve impulses?
Q5) What is the difference between depolarization and hyperpolarization?
Q6) How does the nerve impulse travel from the axon hillock to the end of the axon without degrading in magnitude?
Q7) Differentiate between a diffusion and a concentration gradient.
Q8) What is the function of myelin? How does it influence the conduction of a nerve impulse?
Q9) What processes are involved in initiating an action potential?
Q10) What are nodes of Ranvier,and what role do they play in the conduction of nerve impulses?
10
Q11) Describe the pioneering work of Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley,which earned them a Nobel Prize.
Q12) What is back propagation,and how is it linked with neuroplasticity?
Q13) What processes participate in maintaining the resting potential?
Q14) What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)and how is it recorded?
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Q1) A brief hyperpolarization of the neuronal membrane that makes it less likely that the neuron will fire an action potential is called:
A) saltatory conduction.
B) an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
C) an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
D) spatial summation.
Q2) A change in the resting potential from -70 mV to -50 mV typically results in:
A) an excitatory postsynaptic potential.
B) repolarization.
C) an action potential.
D) hyperpolarization.
Q3) Channels in the cell membrane are formed by:
A) sodium ions.
B) potassium ions.
C) protein molecules.
D) lipids.
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Q1) Electron microscopy is a useful tool in the study of synaptic morphology.The resolution of an electron microscope is much greater than that of a light microscope because:
A) smaller electron waves scatter less than light waves.
B) light waves scatter less than electron waves.
C) larger electron waves scatter more than light waves.
D) larger light waves scatter in patterns similar to those of electron waves.
Q2) Neurons in which the ion channels from one cell connect directly with ion channels on another cell are called:
A) gap junctions.
B) electrical synapses.
C) chemical synapses.
D) Both gap junctions and electrical synapses are correct.
Q3) How is a neurotransmitter removed from the synaptic cleft?
A) diffusion
B) enzymatic degradation
C) uptake by surrounding glial cells
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Q1) What are the neurochemical neurons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic system?
Q2) What are the differences between chemical synapses and electrical synapses? What functions do they serve?
Q3) What is the difference between axoaxonic and axosynaptic synapses?
Q4) What are the different ways in which a neurotransmitter could become deactivated?
Q5) What are the four main amino acid transmitters and what are their functions?
Q6) What are the three ways a synapse can change in order to accommodate learning?
Q7) What are second messengers? What role do they play in neural transmission?
Q8) What are the differences between excitatory and inhibitory synapses?
Q9) What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?
Q10) Define sensitization.What is the synaptic basis of sensitization?
Q11) What behaviors are associated with the serotonergic system?
Q12) What are transmitter-activated receptors?
Q13) What is the function of storage granules? Page 14
Q14) Describe the synthesis of the amine neurotransmitters.
Q15) What are the four criteria used to determine whether a substance is a neurotransmitter?
Q16) What are the four major classes of neurotransmitters?
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Q1) What is behavioral myopia?
Q2) Differentiate between agonists and antagonists.
Q3) What is drug sensitization and how does it occur?
Q4) Give example of three different psychedelic drugs,and describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in creating the effects.
Q5) What evidence suggests that changes in cognitive behavior are a result of gonadal hormones?
Q6) What is the difference between morphine and heroin?
Q7) Define homeostasis and give examples of homeostatic hormones.
Q8) Describe the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction.
Q9) Give examples of three different types of amphetamines.What neurotransmitter systems do these drugs operate on?
Q10) What are the effects on the brain of chronically high cortisol levels?
Q11) Give examples of drugs that are used to treat depression.What types of receptors do they operate on?
Q12) Briefly describe the blood-brain barrier. Page 16
Q13) What are MAO inhibitors used for?
Q14) Why is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine important? What are the effects of curare on acetylcholine?
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Q1) Another term for the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction is:
A) incentive-salience theory.
B) wanting-and-liking theory.
C) associative learning theory.
D) goal and pleasure theory.
Q2) Which is the MOST effective in passing through the blood-brain barrier easily?
A) weak-base drugs
B) drugs bound to proteins
C) hydrophobic drugs
D) water-soluble drugs
Q3) The blood-brain barrier does NOT allow _____ to pass through.
A) glucose
B) amino acids
C) neurochemicals
D) oxygen
Q4) Black widow spider venom:
A) promotes the release of acetylcholine.
B) blocks receptors.
C) stimulates receptors.
D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.
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Q1) How does brain stimulation work? How is it used to treat Parkinson's disease?
Q2) How does a CT scan work?
Q3) List three examples of neuropsychological tests.What are they used to examine?
Q4) What is near-infrared spectroscopy? Why is it useful?
Q5) How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work? What does it study?
Q6) What are spatial and temporal resolutions? Why are these concepts important for brain imaging?
Q7) What is an EEG? What are the features of the brain revealed by an EEG?
Q8) What is optogenetics? How is it used to excite and inhibit neurons?
Q9) Give an example of an animal model for a human neurological disease.How are animal models useful for understanding neurological diseases?
Q10) What is a stereotaxic apparatus? What is it used for?
Q11) What are event-related potentials?
Page 19
Q12) Differentiate extracellular from intracellular recording.
Q13) How are ERPs different from an EEG? How can ERPs be used to examine the link between the brain and behavior?
Q14) What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)? What is it used to study?
Q15) What is a PET scan? What are its advantages over other imaging methods?
Q16) What are the differences between an MRI and an fMRI?
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Q1) In optogenetics,channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2)can be used to _____ neurons,whereas halorhodopsin (NpHR)can be used to _____ neurons.
A) depolarize;hyperpolarize
B) hyperpolarize;depolarize
C) inactivate;activate
D) destroy;promote the growth of
Q2) Positron emission tomography (PET)uses:
A) magnets.
B) radioactive isotopes.
C) L-dopa.
D) hydrogen atoms.
Q3) Place cells are found in the:
A) parietal cortex.
B) cingulate gyrus.
C) amygdala.
D) hippocampus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the changes to the brain that occur as a result of complex environment exposure.
Q2) What is the chemoaffinity hypothesis?
Q3) What are neurotrophic factors (give examples)? What role do they play in the development of the nervous system?
Q4) Compare and contrast the symptoms of autism spectrum disorder and Asperger syndrome.
Q5) Describe the process of myelination and its relationship to neural development.
Q6) What is synaptic pruning? Describe the process of synaptic pruning over time.
Q7) Describe the development of the frontal lobes.What factors have been shown to slow frontal lobe development?
Q8) How are the brains of individuals who have schizophrenia different from the brains of individuals who do not have schizophrenia?
Q9) What is SIDS? What role does serotonin play in SIDS?
Q10) Why are neural stem cells so important?
Q11) Differentiate between a zygote,an embryo,and a fetus.
Q12) What function do radial glial cells play in development? Page 22
Q13) Differentiate between cell adhesion molecules and tropic molecules.
Q14) What effects might caffeine and nicotine have on the developing brain?
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Q1) Down syndrome is caused by:
A) a hormonal abnormality.
B) a brain injury.
C) a neurological disease.
D) a genetic abnormality.
Q2) Neuroimaging studies of brain development have revealed that children from families with low SES (socioeconomic status)show _____ and score _____ on tests of cognitive performance.
A) decreased cortical surface area;lower
B) decreased cortical surface area;the same as high SES peers
C) the same cortical surface area as their high SES peers;lower
D) increased cortical surface area;higher
Q3) In the 1990s,rates of autism were approximately 1 in 2000.However,recent estimates suggest that as many as _____ children has some form of autism.
A) 1 in 198.
B) 1 in 76,000.
C) 1 in 68.
D) 1 in 1988.
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Q1) To what stimulus does a hypercomplex cell respond?
Q2) What are ocular dominance columns?
Q3) What is color constancy and why is it important? What brain region is responsible for coding color constancy?
Q4) Why is there a blind spot in each eye?
Q5) What is optic ataxia?
Q6) What is the difference between the dorsal and ventral visual streams?
Q7) Describe the tectopulvinar system.
Q8) What are the main properties that differentiate rods and cones? How are they distributed in the retina?
Q9) To what stimulus does a complex cortical cell respond?
Q10) Describe how on-center and off-center cells enable us to see edges and shapes in our visual world.
Q11) What is an on-center off-surround cell?
Q12) To what stimulus does a simple cortical cell respond?
Q13) To what types of visual features do neurons in the temporal cortex respond? Page 25
Q14) What are the symptoms of visual-form agnosia?
Q15) Differentiate between the functions of blob and interblob regions of visual cortex?
Q16) What is a receptive field?
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Q1) Compared with retinal ganglion cells,cells in V1 have _____ receptive fields.
A) larger
B) smaller
C) equally sized
D) upside down
Q2) Visible light is:
A) 100 to 700 nanometers.
B) 400 to 700 nanometers.
C) 300 to 800 nanometers.
D) 500 to 1000 nanometers.
Q3) A _____ is a neural-spatial representation of areas of the sensory world perceived by a sensory organ.
A) sensory blueprint
B) sensory layout
C) receptor grid
D) topographic map
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Q1) What is a complex tone? How are complex tones analyzed?
Q2) How are blind humans able to use echolocation to identify objects? Which brain regions are involved?
Q3) How do bats use echolocation to navigate?
Q4) Compare and contrast the deficits that arise in Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.Which brain regions are affected?
Q5) What is prosody and what brain regions control it?
Q6) Where on the cortex is Wernicke's area?
Q7) What is the difference between Heschl's gyrus and the planum temporale?
Q8) Differentiate between the roles of the outer and inner hair cells in the ear.
Q9) What speech area did Penfield map in the human brain? How are these regions influenced by electrical stimulation?
Q10) How do humans localize the source of high-frequency and low-frequency sounds in the environment? Which brain regions are involved?
Q11) List the variables that affect birdsong.
Q12) What is the difference between the tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane? Page 28
Q13) Which brain regions are involved in music perception?
Q14) Frequency and amplitude are equivalent to what properties in sound perception?
Q15) What is a cochlear implant and how does it work?
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Q1) Research into the acquisition of birdsong has indicated that birdsongs are:
A) learned from other birds.
B) genetically determined.
C) learned specifically from parents.
D) genetically determined and learned from other birds.
Q2) Nonspeech and nonmusical noise are perceived as a buzz at a rate of about:
A) 3 segments per second.
B) 5 segments per second.
C) 7 segments per second.
D) 10 segments per second.
Q3) A study by Thaler and colleagues examined the brain regions involved in human echolocation by blind individuals.Their study found that echolocation in blind individuals seemed to rely on activation in:
A) Broca's area.
B) the ventral auditory pathway.
C) primary auditory cortex.
D) visual cortex.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part A
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Q1) Differentiate between rapidly adapting and slowly adapting receptors.
Q2) What is a homunculus as it relates to the brain?
Q3) What are the three major classes of somatosensory receptors? What role does each of these classes of receptors play in somatosensation?
Q4) Discuss the hierarchical organization of movement control.
Q5) What role does the brainstem play in movement?
Q6) What are the symptoms of apraxia? What brain regions are typically damaged in apraxia?
Q7) What are the roles of the direct and indirect pathways in the basal ganglia?
Q8) Describe the effects of caudate-putamen damage.
Q9) Compare and contrast the aspects of movement that are thought to be stored in the motor cortex from the perspectives of Penfield and Graziano.
Q10) What kinds of movement problems arise following damage to premotor cortex?
Q11) What are the effects of deafferentation?
Page 31
Q12) Differentiate between paraplegia and quadriplegia,including the regions of the spinal cord that are involved.
Q13) What are the components of the vestibular system? What is the role of the vestibular system in somatosensation?
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part C
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Q1) Cellular recordings from the globus pallidus internal in patients with Parkinson disease show:
A) excessive activity.
B) underactivity.
C) no activity.
D) intermittent spikes of activity.
Q2) Which of the following receptors are slowly adapting receptors?
A) Meissner corpuscles
B) Merkel receptors
C) Ruffini corpuscles
D) Pacinian corpuscles
Q3) How many homunculi are present in the primary somatosensory cortex,according to the Kaas model?
A) one
B) three
C) four
D) five
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Q1) Drugs that act as _____ are often prescribed to treat anxiety disorders.
A) GABA agonists
B) GABA antagonists
C) dopamine agonists
D) serotonin antagonists
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the subdivisions of the amygdala?
A) corticomedial
B) basolateral
C) central
D) ventromedial
Q3) Emotions entail autonomic changes,subjective feelings,and cognition.Which sequence of brain structures is MOST likely involved in each of these three forms of experience?
A) cortex,hypothalamus,amygdala
B) hypothalamus,amygdala,cortex
C) amygdala,hypothalamus,cortex
D) amygdala,cortex,hypothalamus
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Q1) List the effects of sensory deprivation in Hebb's experiment with college students.
Q2) What is a homeostatic mechanism?
Q3) How does the hypothalamus influence sexual behavior?
Q4) What is the function of the amygdala in the experience of emotion?
Q5) Differentiate between aphagia and hyperphagia.Which regions of the brain need to be lesioned to cause aphagia and hyperphagia?
Q6) What is the function of the medial forebrain bundle in motivated behaviors?
Q7) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in initiating and stopping eating.
Q8) Compare and contrast the role of the orbital prefrontal cortex and the pyriform cortex in smell perception.
Q9) List the symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome.
Q10) What is a frontal lobotomy? What effects did this surgical procedure have on behavior?
Q11) Differentiate between osmotic and hypovolemic thirst.
Page 35
Q12) What is evolutionary psychology? How does evolutionary psychology explain the existence of behaviors that seem maladaptive,such as homicide?
Q13) How do lesions to the amygdala and orbital prefrontal cortex influence eating behavior?
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Q1) Steven is often referred to as a morning person because he wakes up at 5 a.m.and goes to sleep at 10 p.m. ,whereas Jennifer is described as a night owl because she wakes up at 10 a.m.but stays up until 3 a.m.Steven's and Jennifer's sleeping and waking habits may differ because of the differences in:
A) diet.
B) exercise.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus core neurons.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus shell neurons.
Q2) David routinely works shift work (e.g. ,from 10 p.m.to 6 a.m. ).Recently he has noticed that he is gaining a lot of weight,is restless and irritable most of the time,and has had a lot of trouble sleeping.Given these symptoms David may have:
A) depression.
B) metabolic syndrome.
C) a vitamin D deficiency.
D) SAD.
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Q1) What health risks are associated with shift work?
Q2) What is a circadian rhythm? Give an example.
Q3) What cortical changes occur to the electroencephalogram when you awaken? What neurotransmitters are involved?
Q4) How is sleep measured in the laboratory?
Q5) Differentiate between alpha,beta,and delta brain rhythms.
Q6) What role does melatonin play in circadian rhythms?
Q7) Describe the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming.
Q8) What is narcolepsy? How is it treated?
Q9) What are the symptoms of cataplexy?
Q10) What is a free-running rhythm? Give an example.
Q11) What are Zeitgebers,and how do they affect biological rhythms? Give an example.
Q12) What evidence supports the notion that memories are consolidated during sleep?
Q13) What is the reticular activating system,and what are its functions in relation to sleep and wakefulness?
Q14) What evidence do scientists have that the suprachiasmatic nucleus plays an essential role in biological rhythms? Page 38
Q15) What are the effects of sleep deprivation?
Q16) What is restless legs syndrome?
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Q1) _____ is a change in the ability to recall or recognize previous experience.
A) Learning
B) Memory
C) Reasoning
D) All of the answers are correct
Q2) Which of the following was largely unaffected after the memory patient H.M.'s surgery?
A) implicit memory
B) verbal memory
C) explicit memory
D) visuospatial memory
Q3) Bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU)experiments have shown that new neurons have been generated in the adult mammalian brain.These neurons migrate to the:
A) frontal lobes.
B) olfactory bulbs.
C) hippocampus.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Q1) List H.M.'s memory deficits and his maintained memory systems following his neurosurgery.
Q2) Outline a purported neural circuit for explicit memory.
Q3) What is Korsakoff syndrome? What is its primary cause?
Q4) List and describe five of the guiding principles of brain plasticity mentioned in your text.
Q5) How do the brains of people and other animals with superior spatial memory abilities differ from those with normal spatial memory abilities? Give examples.
Q6) List the three primary methods to enhance recovery of function after brain damage.
Q7) Differentiate between explicit and implicit memory.Give an example of each.
Q8) What role do the frontal lobes play in memory? What happens following frontal lobe damage?
Q9) Does the adult brain form new neurons? If so,where are they added?
Q10) What are place,head direction,and grid cells? How do these cells work to construct a spatial map of our environment?
Q11) What memory systems and brain regions are affected in Alzheimer disease?
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Q12) What are neurotrophic factors? What role do they play in the recovery from brain injury?
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90 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78866
Sample Questions
Q1) Alex has recently had a stroke in his right parietal lobe.Which of the following is likely to describe the deficits he might have?
A) He no longer eats food from the right side of his plate.
B) He can no longer imagine the left side of his own mental images.
C) He routinely bumps into things on his right side.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Your patient has difficulties assembling puzzles,copying drawings,and finding his way around the city.The most likely site of his lesion is the:
A) left parietal lobe.
B) right parietal lobe.
C) left temporal lobe.
D) right temporal lobe.
Q3) Syntax is the same as:
A) grammar.
B) the stringing together of phonemes to make a word.
C) literal language.
D) oral language.
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78867
Sample Questions
Q1) Why was Alex the parrot so unusual?
Q2) Describe the symptoms that follow left and right parietal injury.
Q3) What is the neural basis of consciousness? Why is consciousness so hard to study?
Q4) What tasks are better performed by either males or females? Why might these sex differences in cognition have evolved in the first place?
Q5) List the tasks that are better performed by females than males.
Q6) What are cell assemblies? Why did Hebb think that they were so important?
Q7) What is contralateral neglect? What are its primary symptoms?
Q8) What techniques can be used to demonstrate functional asymmetry in the healthy brain?
Q9) Describe the tasks that the right side of the brain does better than the left.
Q10) What have studies in split-brain patients taught us about language?
Q11) What is synesthesia? Give examples of some documented types of synesthesia.
Q12) What is extinction? How is it related to contralateral neglect?
Q13) What is dichotic listening? What discoveries regarding cerebral asymmetry were made using this technique?
Q14) What brain regions contribute to the control of attention? Page 44
Q15) Describe the tasks that the left side of the brain does better than the right.
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78868
Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe four major types of behavioral therapies for behavioral disorders outlined in your text.
Q2) What neurotransmitter systems are affected in schizophrenia?
Q3) What treatments are available to reduce epileptic seizures?
Q4) What is tardive dyskinesia? Why is it sometimes observed in psychiatric patients?
Q5) What are neuroprotectants? Why are they used?
Q6) Give examples of positive and negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.
Q7) What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?
Q8) What neurotransmitters appear to be involved in depression?
Q9) List the six diagnostic symptoms of schizophrenia.
Q10) What is magnetic resonance spectroscopy? How is it used to diagnose traumatic brain injury?
Q11) What is chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)? What neural changes accompany it?
Q12) What can happen if a person has multiple concussions throughout life?
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Q13) What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis? What role does it play in depression?
Q14) What are prions? What neurological diseases may be caused by prions?
Q15) List at least five factors that may lead to the onset of seizures.
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