Course Introduction
Cognitive Neuroscience Exam Preparation Guide
Cognitive Neuroscience explores the neural mechanisms underlying mental processes such as perception, attention, memory, language, and decision-making. Integrating approaches from psychology, neuroscience, and computational modeling, this course examines how brain structures and neural networks support cognition and behavior. Students learn about experimental methods including brain imaging and electrophysiology, and discuss foundational findings and current research in the field. The course fosters a critical understanding of how cognitive functions emerge from neural activity and considers implications for neuropsychological disorders and advances in brain-based technologies.
Recommended Textbook
Cognitive Psychology Connecting Mind Research and Everyday Experience 5th Edition by E. Bruce
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13 Chapters
767 Verified Questions
767 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Cognitive Psychology
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "cognitive revolution"
A) occurred rapidly, within a period of a few years, in response to the attacks on Skinner and the development of computers.
B) extended over a long period of time, beginning in the early part of the century, in reaction to Wundt's introspection experiments.
C) was a gradual process that occurred over a few decades.
D) was not really necessary because the study of the mind has been a constant part of experimental psychology since the founding of the first psychology laboratory.
Answer: C
Q2) Wundt's procedure in which trained participants describe their experiences and thought processes in response to stimuli presented under controlled conditions is known as
A) information processing.
B) analytic introspection.
C) functional analysis.
D) behavioral analysis.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cognitive Neuroscience
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Q1) Paul Broca's and Carl Wernicke's research provided early evidence for A) distributed processing.
B) localization of function.
C) prosopagnosia.
D) neural net theory.
Answer: B
Q2) Action potentials occur in the A) cell body.
B) synapse.
C) neurotransmitters.
D) axon.
Answer: D
Q3) Recording from single neurons in the brain has shown that neurons responding to specific types of stimuli are often clustered in specific areas. These results support the idea of
A) cortical association.
B) dissociation.
C) localization of function.
D) the information processing approach.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Perception
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Q1) The landmark discrimination problem is more difficult to do if you have damage to your _____ lobe.
A) frontal B) temporal
C) parietal
D) occipital
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a starting point for perception?
A) feeling
B) hearing
C) seeing
D) thinking
Answer: D
Q3) The term semantics, when applied to perception, means the A) meaning of a scene, often related to what is happening within the scene.
B) regularly occurring physical properties of an environment.
C) inferences made based on the likelihood of a particular stimulus.
D) statistical probabilities of one particular sound following another in language.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Attention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose you are in your kitchen writing a grocery list, while your roommate is watching TV in the next room. A commercial for spaghetti sauce comes on TV. Although you are not paying attention to the TV, you "suddenly" remember that you need to pick up spaghetti sauce and add it to the list. Your behavior is best predicted by which of the following models of attention?
A) Object-based
B) Early selection
C) Spotlight
D) Late selection
Q2) In which concept is an individual's knowledge most important?
A) schema
B) precueing
C) salience
D) binding
Q3) Anne Treisman's attenuator analyzes the incoming message in terms of all of the following EXCEPT
A) how sequences of words create meaningful phrases.
B) how the message groups into syllables or words.
C) whether the message is fast or slow.
D) whether the perceptual load is low or high.
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Chapter 5: Short-Term and Working Memory
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Q1) Which of the following is not a stage in the information processing model of memory?
A) Sensory memory
B) Short-term memory
C) Long-term memory
D) Episodic memory
Q2) Robin lost the softball game for her team when she ran toward home and was thrown out at the plate. The coach asked her, "Why did you run? You knew it was a risky move." Robin replied, "But I heard you yell, 'Go! Go!'" The coach replied, "I was saying, 'No! No!'" Robin's ill-fated run was the result of a ________ error.
A) visuospatial
B) control
C) suppressive
D) phonological
Q3) Research suggests that the capacity of short-term memory is
A) somewhat small, holding only about seven items at one time.
B) quite large, holding a large number of items simultaneously.
C) equivalent to sensory memory, holding about a hundred items at one time.
D) larger than the capacity of long-term memory among young people.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Long-Term Memory: Structure
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Q1) K.C., who was injured in a motorcycle accident, remembers facts like the difference between a strike and a spare in bowling, but he is unaware of experiencing things like hearing about the circumstances of his brother's death, which occurred two years before the accident. His memory behavior suggests
A) intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.
B) intact procedural memory but defective semantic memory.
C) intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.
D) intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory.
Q2) Why is classical conditioning considered a form of implicit memory?
A) Because learning the association between the neutral and conditioned stimulus requires effort.
B) Because it is based on motor skills similar to procedural memory.
C) Because it involves learning an association without being aware of the reasons behind it.
D) Because it usually involves memory for the episode in which it occurred.
Q3) For years, propaganda has been deployed by political leaders and systems in a variety of contexts. From a cognitive psychology perspective, explain why such efforts are often effective.
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8
Chapter 7: Long-Term Memory: Encoding, Retrieval, and Consolidation
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Q1) ___________ transforms new memories from a fragile state, in which they can be disrupted, to a more permanent state, in which they are resistant to disruption.
A) Amnesia
B) Encoding specificity
C) Cued-recall
D) Consolidation
Q2) In the experiment conducted by Viskontas and coworkers using picture pairs, a participant's later experience of familiarity with a particular pair was coded as ________.
A) "sense."
B) "know."
C) "think."
D) "remember."
Q3) According to the levels of processing theory, which of the following tasks will produce the best long-term memory for a set of words?
A) Making a connection between each word and something you've previously learned
B) Deciding how many vowels each word has
C) Generating a rhyming word for each word to be remembered
D) Repeating the words over and over in your mind
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Everyday Memory and Memory Errors
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive interview technique?
A) Police ask witnesses questions and have them rate their confidence level in their recollections.
B) Police offer positive reinforcement to witnesses (e.g., "Good, that makes sense.") when the witnesses give information consistent with what is in the police file.
C) Police allow witnesses to talk with a minimum of interruption from the officer.
D) Police start their interview with simple filler questions to make the witnesses feel comfortable.
Q2) An important application of memory research has been in understanding the nature of eyewitness testimony. Citing the research in your text, explain why people make errors in eyewitness testimony.
Q3) Extrapolating from the cultural life script hypothesis, which of the following events would be easiest to recall?
A) Retiring from work at age 40
B) Marrying at age 60
C) Graduating from college at age 22
D) Having a child at age 45
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Chapter 9: Conceptual Knowledge
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Q1) In a lexical decision task, participants have to decide whether
A) a statement is true.
B) a presented stimulus is a word.
C) a stimulus is presented.
D) two stimuli are associated.
Q2) According to the sensory-functional hypothesis, our ability to differentiate living things and artifacts depends on a semantic memory system that distinguishes _____ and one that distinguishes _____.
A) sensations; facts
B) sensory attributes; function
C) serial nodes; familiar concepts
D) sequential networks; familial resemblance
Q3) The process of back propagation is most closely associated with A) semantic networks.
B) connectionist networks.
C) reasoning about categories.
D) spreading activation.
Q4) Present a hierarchical model for a living thing or artifact, moving from specific to general. Include at least three levels and be sure to include both sensory and functional properties.
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Chapter 10: Visual Imagery
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Q1) Kosslyn interpreted the results of his research on imagery (such as the island experiment) as supporting the idea that the mechanism responsible for imagery involves ___________ representations.
A) epiphenomenal
B) propositional
C) spatial
D) unilateral
Q2) Which type of research employed a "train on perception, test on perception" method to demonstrate imagery/perception overlap?
A) Paired-associate learning
B) Method of loci
C) Multivoxel pattern analysis
D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation
Q3) Compare and contrast spatial and propositional representation. Give an example of each based on the same stimulus.
Q4) Describe in detail two techniques that use imagery to improve memory. Explain the underlying principles that define why imagery works successfully as a memory enhancer.
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Chapter 11: Language
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best describes the concept of entrainment?
A) Isolation
B) Similarity
C) Cooperation
D) Understanding
Q2) Yoda, a central character of the Star Wars movies created by George Lucas, has a distinctive way of speaking. His statement, "Afraid you will be," violates which property of the English language?
A) Language involves the use of a lexicon.
B) Coding is required for language.
C) Language symbols must have high discriminability.
D) Language has a structure that is governed by rules.
Q3) The idea that the rules governing the grouping of words in a sentence is the primary determinant of the way a sentence is parsed is part of the ____________________ approach to parsing.
A) semantic
B) temporary ambiguity
C) garden path
D) interactionist
Q4) Explain how language and music are both similar and different.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Problem Solving
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Q1) The circle problem, in which the task is to determine the length of a line inside a circle, was proposed to illustrate
A) how analogies can be used to solve problems.
B) means-end analysis.
C) representation and restructuring.
D) the problem space.
Q2) Kaplan and Simon's experiment presented different versions of the mutilated checkerboard problem. The main purpose of their experiment was to demonstrate that A) people arrive at the solution to an insight problem suddenly, but proceed more methodically toward the solution of a non-insight problem.
B) a person's mental set can hinder finding a solution to a problem.
C) people often have to backtrack within the problem space to arrive at an answer to a problem.
D) the way the problem is represented can influence the ease of problem solving.
Q3) Describe the three steps involved in analogical problem solving. Which step is the most difficult to achieve, and what is the evidence that this is the most difficult step?
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Chapter 13: Judgment, Decisions, and Reasoning
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Q1) The evolutionary approach proposes that the Wason problem can be understood in terms of people's
A) innate language abilities.
B) ability to work well with a group of others.
C) innate reasoning abilities.
D) tendency to detect when others are cheating.
Q2) People tend to overestimate
A) what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive feelings.
B) what positive feelings will occur following a decision more so than negative feelings.
C) what positive and negative feelings will occur following a decision to the same degree.
D) subjective utility values following a decision.
Q3) Utility refers to
A) outcomes that achieve a person's goals.
B) how useful a reasoning process is.
C) the validity of a syllogism.
D) degree of risk aversion one has.
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