
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Cognitive Neuroscience is an interdisciplinary course that explores the neural mechanisms underlying human cognition and behavior. It covers fundamental topics such as perception, attention, memory, language, decision-making, and consciousness, emphasizing how brain structure and function give rise to mental processes. Students will learn about research methods in neuroimaging and electrophysiology, examine findings from both healthy and clinical populations, and discuss the implications of neuroscience discoveries for understanding the mind. The course integrates principles from psychology, neuroscience, and computational modeling, preparing students for advanced study and research in the cognitive sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James
W. Kalat
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15 Chapters
3327 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about most psychological experiments using nonhuman animals is correct?
A) Animals are given intense, repeated, inescapable shocks in many experiments.
B) Extreme pain and stress are inflicted in attempts to drive the animals insane.
C) The research leads to no useful discoveries.
D) The research is regulated by animal care committees.
Answer: D
Q2) An ontogenetic explanation is one that describes the development of a structure or behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) List the two major categories of careers related to biological psychology. Answer: research and therapy
Q4) According to Tinbergen, a physiological explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved as it did.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the surface area of a dendrite, the more information it can receive from other neurons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Water, oxygen and ____ most freely flow across a cell membrane.
A) calcium
B) positively charged ions
C) magnesium
D) carbon dioxide
Answer: D
Q3) Local anesthetic drugs, such as Novocain, work by:
A) opening the potassium gates.
B) blocking the sodium gates.
C) inactivating the sodium-potassium pump.
D) decreasing blood flow to certain areas of the brain.
Answer: B
Q4) The electrical gradient of a neuron membrane refers to what?
Answer: A difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of the cell.
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Sample Questions
Q1) COMT and MAO are:
A) enzymes that convert catecholamines into inactive chemicals.
B) enzymes that make catecholamines.
C) neurotransmitters in the same group as serotonin.
D) the inactive fragments of catecholamines.
Answer: A
Q2) Large neurotransmitters are synthesized in the:
A) postsynaptic terminal.
B) presynaptic terminal.
C) cell body.
D) dendrites.
Answer: C
Q3) When opiates block the activity of the locus coeruleus, this results in: A) hallucinations.
B) sleep.
C) increased arousal.
D) decreased fear and memory.
Answer: D
Q4) Describe the main properties of neuropeptides (neuromodulators).
Answer: NOT ANSWER.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to the striate cortex of the right hemisphere causes blindness in the left visual field.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As axons from the spinal cord enter the skull, which structure do they enter?
A) Midbrain
B) Forebrain
C) Medulla
D) Cerebellum
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid is gradually reabsorbed in the _____ of the brain.
A) dura
B) subarachnoid space
C) pia
D) cistern
Q4) A group of forebrain structures is important for motivated and emotional behavior. What is the name given to this group of structures?
A) Limbic system
B) Reticular formation
C) Tegmentum
D) Basal ganglia

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Sample Questions
Q1) Migration is the:
A) production of new cells.
B) movement of primitive neurons and glia.
C) gradual formation of dendrites and an axon.
D) insulation process that occurs on some axons.
Q2) Ischemia is to ____ as hemorrhage is to ____.
A) older individuals; younger individuals
B) proximal; distal
C) obstruction; rupture
D) barely noticeable; lethal
Q3) The most common cause of brain damage in young people is:
A) infection.
B) gunshot wounds.
C) stroke.
D) closed head injury.
Q4) Nerve growth factor is a chemical that promotes the survival and activity of neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe how strokes affect the brain.
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Q1) ____ are chemicals that release energy when struck by light.
A) Phototransmitters
B) Photosins
C) Photopigments
D) Photoions
Q2) The human condition that corresponds closest to what kittens experience when raised in an environment of only horizontal or vertical lines is:
A) strabismus.
B) double vision.
C) astigmatism.
D) amblyopia.
Q3) How does light excite a rod or cone?
A) It heats up the fluid in the receptor.
B) It converts 11-cis-retinal into all-trans-retinal.
C) It converts leu-enkephalin into met-enkephalin.
D) It ionizes neutral sodium into a positively charged ion.
Q4) The retinex theory accounts for the principle of color constancy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the work of Hubel & Wiesel as it relates to simple and complex cells.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If two voices differ in their frequency, this means they differ in their:
A) amplitude.
B) number of waves per second.
C) height of each wave.
D) loudness.
Q2) Most auditory information is sent to which hemisphere of the brain?
A) the ipsilateral side
B) the contralateral side
C) the left hemisphere
D) It depends on whether the individual is dominant for audition in the right or the left hemisphere.
Q3) Exposure to an extremely salty substance decreases sensitivity to other salty substances. What is this phenomenon called?
A) adaptation
B) olfaction
C) umami
D) analgesia
Q4) Name the three main theories of pitch perception.
Q5) Pain axons release what two neurotransmitters in the spinal cord?
Q6) Define synesthesia.

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Q1) Mirror neurons are active both during preparation for a movement and while watching someone else perform the same or a similar movement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Huntington's disease is controlled by an autosomal dominant gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of Huntington's disease?
A) It is controlled by a gene on chromosome 4.
B) It is possible to predict with nearly 100% accuracy who will get the disease.
C) It is generally treated with L-dopa.
D) The average age of onset is around 40 years.
Q4) At least some cases of Parkinson's disease are apparently linked to what cause?
A) A recessive gene on chromosome 4
B) The accumulation of aluminum in the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus
C) A chronic lack of vitamin B-1
D) A toxic substance found in a heroin substitute
Q5) How do fast and slow-twitch muscle fibers differ?
Q6) What is the main function of the posterior parietal cortex?
Q7) What are the three main structures of the basal ganglia?
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Q1) One study found that a nap that included ____ sleep enhanced performance on certain kinds of creative problem solving.
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stages 3 and 4
D) REM
Q2) A decrease in the amount of sleep most likely to affect the performance of migratory bird during:
A) migration season.
B) NREM sleep.
C) the daytime.
D) seasons other than migration.
Q3) Compared to the earlier part, the later part of a night's sleep:
A) includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.
B) includes a lower percentage of REM sleep.
C) is characterized by declining body temperature.
D) has more slow wave sleep.
Q4) Briefly describe the role of the locus coeruleus in arousal and attention.
Q5) Describe brain function during REM sleep.
Q6) Describe how light resets the SCN.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large birds, like flamingos, often stand on one leg to:
A) impress the opposite sex.
B) eat.
C) maintain muscle strength.
D) warm the leg that is tucked under their body.
Q2) Your posterior pituitary is most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
A) if you are very thirsty.
B) shortly after drinking a large glass of water.
C) if you are very hungry.
D) shortly after eating a large meal.
Q3) Which of the following would result in an increase in body weight?
A) chronically low insulin levels
B) damage to the paraventricular nucleus
C) damage to the lateral hypothalamus
D) stimulation of the ventromedial hypothalamus
Q4) After an increase in the solute concentrations in the body, you will experience:
A) a set point.
B) osmotic thirst.
C) hypovolemic thirst.
D) hunger.

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Q1) Someone with androgen insensitivity is genetically:
A) female, but looks intermediate between male and female.
B) female, but fails to show any changes at puberty.
C) male, looks like a normal male, but behaves more like a female.
D) male, but develops looking more like a female.
Q2) What causes the primitive gonads to develop into masculine structures?
A) the X chromosome
B) the sex region Y (SRY) gene
C) the sexually dimorphic nucleus
D) Müllerian inhibiting hormone
Q3) Some XX females have either an ovary and a testis, or two testes, or a mixture of testis and ovary tissue on each side as a result of:
A) a translocated SRY gene.
B) low body temperature during prenatal development.
C) too much testosterone.
D) too much estrogen.
Q4) Hormones are capable of inducing long-lasting changes throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe activating effects of sex hormones and give specific examples.
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Q1) Having a small hippocampus may increase one's vulnerability to:
A) PTSD.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) Urbach-Wiethe disease.
D) Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
Q2) A leukocyte attacks when it finds a cell with foreign: A) antigens.
B) contours.
C) chromosomes.
D) neurotransmitters.
Q3) The most likely result of an amygdala lesion in the most dominant monkey in a group would be:
A) increased aggression.
B) lack of any emotions.
C) avoidance of all socialization.
D) lowered social status in the hierarchy.
Q4) Low serotonin turnover is associated with reduced aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the role of the human amygdala in emotions.
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Q1) When glutamate massively stimulates AMPA receptors, the resulting depolarization:
A) keeps glutamate from stimulating nearby NMDA receptors.
B) keeps calcium from entering the cell.
C) enables glutamate to stimulate nearby NMDA receptors.
D) inhibits the dendrite's responsiveness to glutamate.
Q2) Describe the types of memory problems displayed by Patient H.M.
Q3) Anterograde amnesia is to ____ as retrograde amnesia is to ____.
A) storing new memories; memories of the past
B) memories just prior to the damage; memories from childhood
C) short-term memory; long-term memory
D) emotional memories; non-emotional memories
Q4) Korsakoff's patients best remember a list of short sentences by:
A) reading and rereading them.
B) testing themselves on each sentence before going on to the next.
C) creating an elaborate story integrating the content of the sentences.
D) relating each sentence to a past personal experience.
Q5) Punishment makes it less likely for a behavior to occur again in the future.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A split-brain patient that was briefly shown an apple in the left visual field and a banana in the right visual field would report having seen:
A) an apple.
B) a banana.
C) neither.
D) both.
Q2) People born without a corpus callosum can perform many tasks in which split-brain patients fail.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Spatial neglect occurs after damage in the:
A) anterior cortex.
B) posterior cortex.
C) left hemisphere.
D) right hemisphere.
Q4) Briefly discuss the concept of a language acquisition device.
Q5) Trunk and facial muscles are controlled by both hemispheres of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe some of the research conducted in nonhuman's dealing with language.
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Q1) The problems that schizophrenics have with memory and attention are most likely related to an increased tendency of having brain damage in the:
A) cerebellum.
B) prefrontal cortex.
C) occipital cortex.
D) medulla.
Q2) Combining sleep alteration with drug therapies can provide long-lasting benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lithium is most commonly prescribed for which disorder?
A) seasonal affective disorder
B) endogenous depression
C) reactive depression
D) bipolar disorder
Q4) Bipolar II disorder is a more severe form of mania than bipolar I disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define major depression.
Q6) Describe some of the alternate treatments for depression.
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