Coding Theory and Practice Exam Solutions - 1611 Verified Questions

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Coding Theory and Practice

Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

This course provides a comprehensive introduction to coding theory, focusing on both the mathematical foundations and practical applications of error-detecting and error-correcting codes in communication systems. Topics include basic concepts of information theory, block codes, linear codes, cyclic codes, and convolutional codes, as well as encoding and decoding algorithms. Students will apply theoretical concepts through hands-on projects and programming assignments, exploring the design and analysis of codes to solve real-world data transmission and storage problems. The course emphasizes understanding trade-offs between efficiency, complexity, and reliability in coding systems.

Recommended Textbook

ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2017 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen

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26 Chapters

1611 Verified Questions

1611 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Medical coding

A)Has more than 100,000 members and was started in 1981

B)Translating diagnoses and procedures into special alphanumeric characters for the purposes of statistically capturing data

C)Grouping like items together for easy storage and retrieval

D)To maintain credentials,coders must earn these

E)Published by the College of American Pathologists,the most up-to-date system of nomenclature

F)The current coding classification system in use in the United States

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following would NOT be studied through the use of ICD-10-CM?

A)Patterns of disease

B)Causes of pregnancy

C)Disease epidemics

D)Causes of mortality

Answer: B

Q3) HIPAA stands for __________ of 1996.

Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Q4) WHO stands for __________.

Answer: World Health Organization

Page 3

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Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Physician

A)Accredits and certifies healthcare organizations

B)The problem in the patient's own words

C)The approach the practitioner is taking to solve the patient's problem

D)The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care

E)Codes reported on health insurance claim forms that should be supported by documentation in the medical record

F)Person qualified by education and legally authorized to practice medicine

G)Requested by the attending physician to gain an expert opinion on the treatment of a particular aspect of the patient's condition that is outside the expertise of the attending physician

H)People who treat patients

I)The physician identifies the history,physical examination,and diagnostic tests

J)Where the subjective and objective combine for conclusion

K)Words of the patient;the reason the patient has presented to a healthcare facility for treatment

Answer: F

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4

Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement poorly controlled diabetes is a(n)____ modifier.

A)essential

B)nonessential

Answer: A

Q2) An "Excludes1 note" under a code indicates that the terms excluded from the code are to be coded elsewhere.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) The word "__________" in the Alphabetic Index is sequenced immediately following the main term,not in alphabetic order.

Answer: with

Q4) __________,a form of punctuation,are used in the index to identify manifestation codes in the Alphabetic Index.

Answer: Brackets

Q5) "__________" is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a causal relationship.

Answer: Due to or with

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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the main term in "aspiration pneumonia"?

Q2) Synopsis of the events of a patient's hospital encounter

A)Tabular List

B)See also

C)Subterms

D)Discharge summary

E)Coding Clinic

F)ER

G)Differential diagnosis

H)Chief complaint

I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis

J)Nonessential modifiers

Q3) A differential diagnosis is when a patient presents with a symptom that is usually related to only one possible diagnosis.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the subterm in "aspiration pneumonia"?

Q5) The __________,if available,is the first step in the process of record review for code selection.

Q6) What is the main term in "esophageal reflux"?

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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A(n)__________ code is a single code used to classify two diagnoses,a diagnosis with an associated secondary process,or a diagnosis with an associated complication.

Q2) Principal diagnosis is defined in the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS)as that condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Conditions that are routinely associated with a disease or condition should not be coded as additional diagnoses unless instructed by the classification or unless they affect the patient's condition or treatment given.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are the diagnosis code(s)for acute and chronic pancreatitis?

Q5) A patient is admitted to the hospital with Crohn's disease,hypertension,and rheumatoid arthritis for bowel resection.In the OR before incision,the patient develops tachycardia,and the procedure is canceled.What is the principal diagnosis?

Q6) What is the diagnosis code(s)for acute and chronic respiratory failure?

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Chapter 6: Introduction to ICD-10-PCS

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127 Verified Questions

127 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the identical procedure is performed on contralateral body parts and a bilateral body part value is available for that body part,two codes with the right and left body part should be assigned.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Physical eradication of all or a portion of a body part by the direct use of energy,force,or a destructive agent is extraction.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Body systems designated as "upper" contain body parts above the heart.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A character "X" is available to indicate that no qualifier is necessary for a given procedure.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The trachea is in what body system?

Q6) Alphabetic Index entry for fragmentation left ureteral stone

Q7) Alphabetic Index entry for gastric banding (stomach)

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Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medicaland

Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures

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109 Verified Questions

109 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first character value for a mental health procedure is G.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the Administration section,character "2" is used to identify the substance being introduced.

A)True

B)False

Q3) CPAP,48 hours

Q4) ECMO,circulatory,continuous

Q5) Diagnostic ultrasound right breast

Q6) The seventh character identifies whether the procedure is a physical rehabilitation procedure or a diagnostic audiology procedure.

A)True

B)False

Q7) What is the section value for radiation oncology?

Q8) Stereotactic radiosurgery to spinal cord using gamma beam

Q10) Removal of packing from right nare Page 9

Q9) Ultrasound pediatric heart,transesophageal

Q11) Medication management for mental health issues

Q12) PPN infusion via central venous line

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Chapter 8: Coding Medical and Surgical Procedures

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66 Verified Questions

66 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Freeing a body part from an abnormal physical constraint is called ____.

Q2) In some instances,a surgical wound is not closed at the time of a surgical operation and is allowed to heal and will be closed at a later date.This would be an example of when a ____ would be coded.

A)closure

B)bilateral procedure

C)biopsy

D)limited coverage

Q3) ____ identifies procedure codes identified by the Medicare Code Editor as procedures covered under limited circumstances.

A)Bilateral procedure

B)Nonspecific OR procedure

C)Noncovered OR procedure

D)Encoder

Q4) Removal of drainage device from right pleural cavity,percutaneous approach

Q5) Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication

Q6) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy converted to open cholecystectomy

Q7) Open endarterectomy of right internal carotid artery

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Q8) Visually and/or manually exploring a body part is called ____.

Q9) Cutting out or off,without replacement,a portion of a body part is called ____.

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Chapter 9: Symptoms, signs, and Abnormal Clinical and

Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient is admitted for workup of normal pressure hydrocephalus because of ataxic gait.NPH is ruled out,and patient is discharged home: __________

Q2) Patient has a cystostomy: __________

Q3) The infant was seen in the ER for fever.Physician documented fever due to vaccination.

A)R50.81

B)R50.82

C)R50.83

D)R50.2

Q4) Another name for the coma scale is ______________ coma score.

Q5) Encounter for admission examination for prisoner: __________

Q6) Urinary hesitancy due to enlarged prostate: __________

Q7) In ICD-10-CM,there are Excludes1 notes that are helpful in determining whether a symptom's code should be assigned.

A)True

B)False

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Q8) Principal diagnosis is documented as right upper quadrant abdominal pain due to cholecystitis versus peptic ulcer disease: __________

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Chapter 10: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases

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62 Verified Questions

62 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assign the code for screening for HIV.

Q2) Of the following medications,which is NOT an antifungal medication?

A)Nizoral

B)Grisactin

C)Lotrimin

D)Zovirax

Q3) ____________________,or shingles,is a disease caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox.

Q4) Another name for a cold sore is herpes simplex type ____.

A)I

B)II

C)III

D)none of the above is correct

Q5) What virus is spread to individuals by a mosquito bite?

Q6) Code B20 is NEVER used once a patient develops AIDS.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Assign the code for Ebola virus.

Page 14

Q8) Assign the code for suspected carrier of group B strep.

Q9) Category B20 is assigned for ____________________.

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Chapter 11: Neoplasms

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69 Verified Questions

69 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are factors influencing which kind of biopsy will be performed for a patient EXCEPT the ____.

A)weight of the patient

B)location of the mass

C)age of the patient

D)available technology

Q2) Metastasis to Zuckerkandl's organ: __________

Q3) What is the abbreviation for non-small-cell lung cancer?

Q4) Primary cancer of the cauda equina: __________

Q5) Benign neoplasm of Cowper's gland: __________

Q6) Metastatic carcinoma of the omentum.History of ovarian carcinoma that was treated with bilateral oophorectomy 5 years ago and was no longer receiving active treatment: __________

Q7) Lymphangioendothelioma: __________

Q8) A(n)____________________ is an abnormal tissue that grows by cellular proliferation more rapidly than normal and continues to grow after the stimuli that initiated the new growth cease.

Q9) Smoking is associated with 100% of all oral cancers. A)True B)False Page 16

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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming

Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune

Mechanism

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71 Verified Questions

71 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient takes Coumadin for chronic atrial fibrillation.

A)I48.1,Z79.01

B)I48.2,Z79.01

C)Z79.01

D)I48.0,Z79.02

Q2) A patient is admitted with thrombocytopenia and coagulopathy due to alcoholic cirrhosis of liver and active alcohol dependence.Patient receives platelet transfusion via peripheral vein,percutaneous approach,and vitamin K.Patient's blood count improved prior to discharge.__________

Q3) Patient has anemia,thrombocytopenia,and neutropenia: __________

Q4) ____________________ anemia results from abnormal or excessive destruction of red blood cells.

Q5) Coagulopathy due to chronic liver disease: __________

Q6) Thrombocytopenia due to chronic alcoholism: __________

Q7) Plasmacytosis: __________

Page 18

Q8) The normal red blood cell count for females is ____.

A)12 to 14 g/dl

B)150,000 to 350,000/mm³

C)4.0 million to 5.5 million/mm³

D)8.0 million to 9.5 million/mm³

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19

Chapter 13: Endocrine, nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases

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68 Verified Questions

68 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) TLS stands for ____________________.

Q2) A patient is admitted with hyperkalemia.What drug could be given to treat this condition?

A)K-Dur

B)Synthroid

C)Tapazole

D)Kayexalate

Q3) Personal history of nutritional deficiency

A)Z79.890

B)Z90.411

C)Z83.49

D)Z86.39

E)Z71.3

Q4) When there is hypersecretion of hGH after puberty,a condition called acromegaly,where does the overgrowth occur?

Q5) In ICD-10-CM there are only two category codes for diabetes mellitus.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Primary hyperparathyroidism: __________

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Q7) Hypothyroidism in patient who has had a previous thyroidectomy: __________

Chapter 14: Mental, behavioral, and Neuro developmental Disorders

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72 Verified Questions

72 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The use of alcohol or drugs never has an effect in psychosis.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Patient was admitted for psychiatric care for acute posttraumatic stress disorder.

A)F43.10

B)F43.11

C)F43.12

D)F43.8

Q3) What drug could be given to treat depression?

A)Adderall

B)Zoloft

C)Valium

D)Dilantin

Q4) Seizures are a common form of alcohol withdrawal.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Panic agoraphobia: __________

Q6) Adjustment insomnia: __________

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Q7) Name one occurrence during birth that can cause intellectual disability.

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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Nervous System, diseases of

the Eye and Adnexa, and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient came to the ER after falling off her horse at the county fair rodeo.X-rays reveal two fractured ribs on the left.Patient is admitted for acute pain control.

A)S22.42xA,G89.11,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52

B)G89.18,S22.42xA,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52

C)G89.11,S22.42xA,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52

D)S22.42xA,R52,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52

Q2) It is acceptable to code pain as a principal diagnosis when ____.

A)no definite diagnosis has been established

B)the patient is admitted for postoperative pain control

C)the patient is admitted for pain control for neoplasm-related pain

D)all of the choices occur

E)none of the above is correct;it is never acceptable to code pain as a principal diagnosis

Q3) Which of the following is/are sent from the somatic nervous system to the central nervous system?

A)Taste

B)Hearing

C)Smell

D)All of the above

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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Circulatory System

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65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A problem in the electrical impulses that regulate heartbeats

A)Transient ischemic attack

B)Atherosclerosis

C)Aneurysm

D)Pericarditis

E)Endocarditis

F)Cardiomyopathy

G)Conduction disorder

H)Diagnostic cardiac catheterization

Q2) Patient is admitted through the ER,presenting with acute chest pain.The patient has a history of COPD and pneumonia as well as type 2 DM with diabetic neuropathy.He has a history of hypertension and gout for which he takes meds for both conditions.He is currently smoking about one pack per day.After study it is determined that patient has had an acute anterolateral wall infarct.He is taken to the cath lab for a PTCA with the insertion of a drug-eluting stent of the LAD.

A)R07.9,I21.09,J18.9,I10,Z72.0,J44.9,02703DZ

B)I21.09,R07.9,J18.9,Z272.0,J449.9,027134Z

C)I21.09,I10,F17.210,M10.9,J44.9,E11.40,027034Z

D)R07.9,I10,J18.9,F17.210,M10.9,J44.9,027034Z

Q3) Benign renovascular hypertension: __________

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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Respiratory System

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73 Verified Questions

73 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common cause of pneumonia is ____.

A)Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)Haemophilus influenzae

C)Staphylococcus aureus

D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q2) Oxygen,mechanical ventilations,and treatment of underlying cause

A)Chronic bronchitis

B)Respiratory failure

C)Influenza

D)Sinusitis

E)Emphysema

F)Asthma

Q3) Sometimes it is necessary to make an emergency artificial opening in a patient's neck into the trachea when the normal airway is blocked.This is called a(n)__________________.

Q4) Escherichia coli pneumonia: __________

Q5) In ICD-10-CM,two separate codes are assigned for COPD with asthma.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Cork handlers' disease: __________

Page 24

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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Digestive System

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Code ____ is coded for personal history of malignant neoplasm of the GI tract,unspecified.

A)Z85.00

B)Z80.9

C)Z80.0

D)Z85.09

Q2) The removal of the appendix

A)Nissen fundoplication

B)Herniorrhaphy

C)Appendectomy

D)Colostomy

E)Lysis of adhesions

F)PEG (percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy)

G)TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt)procedure

H)Whipple procedure

Q3) Mallory-Weiss tear is a name for a(n)____________________ laceration of the esophagogastric junction,usually after severe vomiting.

Q4) What are the three parts of the small intestine?

Q5) Assign the code for portal thrombophlebitis: __________

Q6) What is the abbreviation for esophagogastroduodenoscopy?

Page 25

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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue

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57 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient comes to the hospital for full-thickness skin graft to the thigh from the abdomen to repair a skin contracture from a third-degree burn of the left thigh.

A)L90.5,0HRLX73,0HB7XZZ

B)T24.312A,0HRLX73

C)L90.5,0HRKX74

D)L90.5,T24.312S,0HRJX73,0HB7XZZ

Q2) Inflammation of the skin,also referred to as eczema,characterized by redness,itching,scaling,and crusting skin

A)Decubitus ulcer

B)Skin ulcers

C)Cellulitis

D)Stasis ulcer

E)Stasis dermatitis

F)Intertriginous dermatitis

G)Gangrene

H)Hives

I)Dermatitis

Q3) The skin is composed of ____________________ layers.

Q4) Solar photosensitivity: __________

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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) ICD-10-CM uses the sixth character when coding to identify pathologic fractures.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Right plantar fasciitis (right): __________

Q3) What does the abbreviation AKA stand for?

Q4) The front of the body or organ

A)Medial

B)Cranial

C)Ventral

D)Superior

E)Caudal

F)Dorsal

G)Lateral

Q5) Arthroscopic surgery is a highly invasive surgery that involves the use of instruments to perform surgery through very large incisions.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Staphylococcal pyogenic arthritis of left knee: __________

Q7) Tenosynovitis in the right shoulder: __________

Q8) Calcification of lumbar disc: __________

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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Genitourinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient was admitted for treatment of BPH with urinary retention and a history of frequent urinary tract infections.The patient's PSA was normal.A TURP was performed.The patient recovered uneventfully with only minimal hematuria,which had resolved by the time of discharge.

Final Diagnosis: Benign prostatic hypertrophy.

Procedure: Transurethral resection of prostate.

A)N41.0,R33.0,Z87.441,0VB07ZZ

B)N41.1,R33.9,Z87.442,0VB08ZZ

C)N40.0,R33.8,Z87.442,0VB08ZZ

D)N40.1,R33.8,Z87.440,0VB08ZZ

Q2) What type of dialysis uses the peritoneal membrane to filter out wastes and excess fluid?

A)HD

B)CAPD

C)CCPD

D)COPD

Q3) In ICD-10-CM,there is a code to identify postprocedural renal failure.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Priapism: __________

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Chapter 22: Pregnancy, childbirth, and the Puerperium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pregnant

A)Young obstetric patient

B)Antepartum

C)Primigravida

D)Puerperium

E)Gravid

F)Elderly OB patient

Q2) What does it mean when a pregnant woman is called primigravida?

Q3) The period of time from delivery through the first 6 weeks postpartum

A)Young obstetric patient

B)Antepartum

C)Primigravida

D)Puerperium

E)Gravid

F)Elderly OB patient

Q4) What drug could be given to induce labor?

A)Stadol

B)Epidural

C)Pitocin

D)Terbutaline

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Chapter 23: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal

Period and Congenital Malformations, deformations, and

Chromosomal Abnormalities

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Sample Questions

Q1) A code from category A41,septicemia,should not be used on a(n)____ record.

A)newborn

B)child

C)teenager

D)adult

Q2) An infant is born via vaginal delivery with intrauterine growth retardation.The baby is premature being born at 33 2/7 weeks and weighing 1800 grams.Meconium aspiration is noted at delivery.Jaundice due to prematurity,which was treated with phototherapy (non-ultraviolet),single session.

A)Z38.00,P05.9,P24.01,P59.0,6A600ZZ

B)Z38.00,P07.17,P07.36,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ

C)Z37.0,P05.9,P07.35,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ

D)Z37.0,P07.36,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ

Q3) If the baby scores a ____ or higher on the Apgar test 1 minute after birth,he or she is considered to be healthy.

A)1

B)5

C)7

D)3

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Chapter 24: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of

External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient fractured left tibia 2 weeks ago and is seen as an outpatient for cast change:

Q2) Where are foreign bodies most likely to enter?

Q3) Personal history of TBI

A)Z94.6

B)Z89.211

C)Z89.432

D)Z87.820

E)Z91.81

Q4) A fracture that is broken,splintered,or crushed into pieces

A)Crush injury

B)Fissured fracture

C)Comminuted fracture

D)Greenstick fracture

E)External skeletal fixation

F)Contusion

Q5) Name some diagnostic tools used to diagnose injuries.

32

Q6) A break in a bone is called a(n)____________________.

Q7) What are external cause codes? ____________________

Q8) A(n)____________________ is a partial or completed dislocation.

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Chapter 25: Burns, Adverse Effects, and Poisonings

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Sample Questions

Q1) Spontaneous hematoma in right thigh muscle due to anticoagulant;patient is taking Coumadin as prescribed for mechanical mitral valve replacement: __________

Q2) Full-thickness skin loss

A)First-degree

B)Second-degree

C)Third-degree

D)Fourth-degree

Q3) Patient was admitted with second-degree burns of the left hand and first-degree burns of the left forearm.The patient touched a hot steam pipe.

A)T23.202A,T22.111A,X16.xxxA

B)T23.202A,T22.112A,X16.xxxA

C)T23.202D,T22.112D,X16.xxxD

D)T22.112A,T23.202A,X16.xxxA

Q4) Debridements must always be done in the OR.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The abbreviation OR stands for ____________________.

Q6) Battered spouse syndrome: Confirmed abuse by her husband: __________

Q7) What are the four major types of abuse?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34

Chapter 26: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43725

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient comes to the hospital with chronic cholecystitis,and a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed.The patient's bowel function was slow to return,and on day 3 the patient developed a postoperative obstructionthat was slow to resolve.__________

Q2) If the documentation is unclear whether the diagnosis was the result of a procedure or condition,a physician query should be initiated.

A)True

B)False

Q3) To aspirate means to ____.

A)breathe in a foreign substance

B)eat

C)drink

D)sleep

Q4) Patient with a history of a kidney transplant comes to the ER with gastroenteritis.His history is positive for CKD,stage 2,and hypertension.

A)T86.10,I12.9,Z94.0

B)K52.9,I10,5N18.2,Z94.0

C)T86.10,I10,N18.2

D)K52.9,I12.9,N18.2,Z94.0

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35

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