Coding Compliance and Ethics
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of coding compliance and ethical standards in healthcare and related industries. Students will examine regulatory guidelines such as HIPAA, ICD, CPT, and HCPCS, emphasizing the importance of accurate and ethical coding in ensuring proper billing, reporting, and reimbursement. Through case studies and real-world scenarios, the course highlights the consequences of coding errors, fraud, and abuse, and provides practical strategies for maintaining compliance. Emphasis is placed on developing professional judgment, understanding applicable laws and regulations, and fostering a culture of integrity and accountability in coding operations.
Recommended Textbook
The Complete Diagnosis Coding Solution 3rd Edition by Shelley Safian
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23 Chapters
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1144 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following professional organizations has a code of ethics for coders to follow?
A) AAPC
B) AHIMA
C) Both AAPC and AHIMA
D) Neither AAPC nor AHIMA
Answer: C
Q2) Diagnosis codes can report a disease, a sign, or a(n) ________.
A) purpose
B) treatment
C) symptom
D) objective
Answer: C
Q3) The official guidelines for ICD-10-CM are divided into ___ sections.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Introduction to ICD-10-CM
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bobby comes to get his back-to-school vaccines. What is the diagnosis code for this portion of the encounter?
A) Z23
B) Z23.0
C) Z76.2
D) Z13.89
Answer: A
Q2) A cause-and-effect relationship between an original condition, illness, or injury and an additional problem caused by the original condition is known as a(n):
A) adverse effect.
B) injury.
C) late effect.
D) manifestation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: General Guidelines and Notations
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Other specified" is equivalent to:
A) NEC.
B) NOS.
C) unknown.
D) unspecified.
Answer: A
Q2) A coder can tell that a condition is a current condition and needs to be coded if:
A) the physician wrote a prescription to treat the condition.
B) the physician discussed therapy to treat the condition.
C) the condition is what brought the patient to see the physician on this visit.
D) All of these
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following seventh characters is used to show that the injury being coded is a subsequent encounter?
A) A
B) D
C) S
D) X
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Coding Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct code for the bubonic plague is:
A) A20.0.
B) A20.1.
C) A20.2.
D) A20.7.
Q2) Lice and mites are examples of:
A) bacteria.
B) fungi.
C) parasites.
D) viruses.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct code for Wolhynian fever?
A) A78
B) A79.0
C) A79.9
D) A78.0, A79.0
Q4) What is the correct code for Molluscum contagiosum?
A) B08.010
B) B08.011
C) B08.1
D) B08.2
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Coding Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is admitted for dehydration due to the chemotherapy treatments she has been receiving to treat ovarian cancer, what is the principal diagnosis?
A) C56.1
B) C56.9
C) E86.0
D) Z51.11
Q2) Pamela was diagnosed with stage II lung cancer with mets to the brain. How is this coded?
A) C34.90, C79.31
B) C34.92, C79.31
C) C71.9, C34.90
D) C79.31, C34.92
Q3) Arthur was diagnosed with cancer of the right acoustic nerve. How is this coded?
A) C72.40
B) C72.41
C) C72.42
D) C72.59
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Chapter 6: Coding Diseases of the Blood and Immune Mechanism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct code for a patient diagnosed with sarcoidosis of the lungs?
A) D86.0
B) D86.1
C) D86.2
D) D86.3
Q2) An antigen located on an RBC that produces immunogenic responses in individuals without it is known as:
A) Rh factor.
B) type O blood.
C) type AB blood.
D) agglutination.
Q3) Which common blood test measures oxygen being carried by RBCs?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
C) Mean corpuscular volume
D) Partial thromboplastin time
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Chapter 7: Coding Conditions of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with Hunter's syndrome?
A) E76.1
B) E76.21
C) E76.3
D) E77.1
Q2) Which hormone is released during labor and delivery to help contract the uterus?
A) Oxytocin
B) Prolactin
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) Vasopressin
Q3) The larger lobe in the pituitary gland is known as the:
A) adenohypophysis.
B) corticotropin.
C) neurohypophysis.
D) somatotropin.
Q4) How many lobes are in the parathyroid gland?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Chapter 8: Coding Mental and Behavioral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with a relative who has schizophrenia are how many times more likely to develop schizophrenia themselves?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 50
Q2) What is the correct code for cocaine abuse with intoxication?
A) F14.10
B) F14.120
C) F14.121
D) F14.122
Q3) What is the correct code for senile dementia?
A) F03.9
B) F03.90
C) F03.91
D) F02.81
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Coding Nervous System Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with an intractable abdominal migraine?
A) G43.A0
B) G43.A1
C) G43.D0
D) G43.D1
Q2) How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
A) 16
B) 22
C) 28
D) 31
Q3) Which lobes are responsible for the senses?
A) Frontal lobes
B) Parietal lobes
C) Temporal lobes
D) Occipital lobes
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Chapter 10: Coding Diseases of the Eye and Adnexa
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Sample Questions
Q1) John Johnson is seen by the optometrist today for a granuloma of the left orbit, xeroderma of the right lower eyelid, and bilateral aphakia. What are the correct codes assigned?
A) H05.111, H01.141, H27.00
B) H05.111, H01.142, H27.01
C) H05.112, H01.141, H27.02
D) H05.112, H01.142, H27.03
Q2) What is the correct abbreviation for right eye?
A) OD
B) OS
C) OU
D) ACC
Q3) What is the correct code for a hordeolum externum, right upper eyelid?
A) H00.011
B) H00.012
C) H00.013
D) H00.014
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12
Chapter 11: Coding Diseases of the Auditory System Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the small bone in the ear that is shaped like an anvil?
A) Incus
B) Malleus
C) Ossicles
D) Stapes
Q2) Which part of the ear is visible on the sides of the head?
A) External ear
B) Incus
C) Labyrinth
D) Malleus
Q3) How many parts are in a cochlear implant?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q4) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with bilateral tympanosclerosis?
A) H74.01
B) H74.02
C) H74.03
D) H74.09
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Chapter 12: Coding Circulatory Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many pints of blood does the average adult have in his or her body?
A) 5
B) 11
C) 15
D) 2
Q2) What is the correct code for a patient diagnosed with chronic hypotension?
A) I10
B) I95.81
C) R03.0
D) I95.89
Q3) What is the correct code for a slow heartbeat?
A) R00.0
B) R00.1
C) R00.2
D) R00.8
Q4) Which of the following is the correct code for ventricular septal defect?
A) I51.0
B) I51.1
C) Q21.0
D) Q21.2
14
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Chapter 13: Coding Respiratory Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to evaluate the patient's ability to exchange gases within the lungs?
A) Arterial blood gas
B) Thoracentesis
C) Spirometer
D) Capnography
Q2) How many parts does the breathing process include?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) What is/are the correct code(s) for a patient with mucopurulent chronic bronchitis who is a tobacco user?
A) J40
B) J41.1, Z72.0
C) J40, F17.210
D) J41.1, Z87.891
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Chapter 14: Coding Diseases of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct code for an acute recurrent sialoadenitis?
A) K11.2
B) K11.21
C) K11.22
D) K11.23
Q2) Which portion of the colon connects the splenic flexure to the hepatic flexure?
A) Ascending colon
B) Descending colon
C) Sigmoid colon
D) Transverse colon
Q3) Which part of the pharynx lies behind the oral cavity?
A) Nasopharynx
B) Oropharynx
C) Hypopharynx
D) Laryngopharynx
Q4) Which of the following is not an internal ulcer?
A) Gastric ulcer
B) Duodenal ulcer
C) Decubitus ulcer
D) Gastrojejunal ulcer
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Chapter 15: Coding Diseases of the Integumentary System
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Q1) Which of the following might a soft nail plate signify?
A) Abnormalities of the endocrine system
B) Arthritis
C) Malnutrition
D) All of these
Q2) Which of the following layers of the skin contains hair follicles?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Fat
Q3) Which of the following lesions is raised with a diameter of more than 5 mm?
A) Cyst
B) Furuncle
C) Nodule
D) Papule
Q4) Which of the following lesions is another name for a birthmark?
A) Macule
B) Nevus
C) Scale
D) Bulla
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Chapter 16: Coding Muscular Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following connects a muscle to a bone?
A) Muscle
B) Ligament
C) Tendon
D) Connective tissue
Q2) What is the correct code for a Baker's cyst of the right knee?
A) M71.2
B) M71.20
C) M71.21
D) M71.22
Q3) What is the correct code for a patient with rheumatoid bursitis of the left knee?
A) M06.062
B) M06.262
C) M06.062A
D) M06.262A
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18
Chapter 17: Coding Skeletal Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many bones are in the adult human skull?
A) 8
B) 14
C) 22
D) 40
Q2) What is the correct code for adolescent postural kyphosis in the thoracolumbar region?
A) M40.00
B) M40.03
C) M40.04
D) M40.05
Q3) What is the correct code for localized osteoporosis?
A) M81.0
B) M81.6
C) M81.8
D) M83.0
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Chapter 18: Coding Diseases of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation UTI stands for:
A) urinary tract inflammation.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) urine tested infected.
D) urine tested infectious.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true when coding UTIs?
A) A coder will use one code that identifies both the location and organism causing the infection.
B) A coder will code the UTI and then use an additional code to code the causative organism, if known.
C) A coder only needs to report the code for the UTI even if the causative organism is known.
D) A coder only needs to report the causative organism if it is known.
Q3) What is/are the correct code(s) for a patient with diabetes mellitus, type 1, with diabetic chronic kidney disease, stage 2?
A) E10.21
B) E10.22
C) E10.21, N18.2
D) E10.22, N18.2
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Coding for Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many parts does the uterus have?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) About how many oocytes does a woman have?
A) 100,000
B) 200,000
C) 300,000
D) 400,000
Q3) Justin Johnson is seen today for Hutchinson's teeth. What codes are assigned?
A) A50.51
B) A50.52
C) A50.53
D) A50.54
Q4) How long does the postpartum period last after delivery?
A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 8 weeks
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Chapter 20: Coding Congenital and Pediatric Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Down syndrome is also known as:
A) trisomy 12.
B) trisomy 13.
C) trisomy 18.
D) trisomy 21.
Q2) Jamison Jerm is a seven-day-old infant seen today for complex syndactyly of the right hand. What code is assigned?
A) Q70.00
B) Q70.01
C) Q70.02
D) Q70.03
Q3) Brady Branson was delivered today via vaginal delivery at 40 weeks. Brady was a large baby at 4,700 grams, and forceps were used to extract him during the delivery. Brady suffered from scalp injury due to the forceps. What are the correct codes to assign?
A) Z38.00, P03.1, P08.0
B) Z38.00, P03.2, P08.0
C) Z38.01, P03.1, P08.0
D) Z38.01, P03.2, P08.0
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Coding Injuries, Poisonings, and Certain Other
Consequences of External Causes
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Q1) A condition produced by a substance that is harmful or causes death is known as (a[n]):
A) caustic.
B) poisoning.
C) adverse effect.
D) toxic effect.
Q2) A health-related reaction caused by a poisonous substance is known as (a[n]):
A) caustic.
B) poisoning.
C) adverse effect.
D) toxic effect.
Q3) What is the correct code for a second-degree burn of the right palm, initial encounter?
A) T23.151A
B) T23.251A
C) T23.351A
D) T23.451A
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Factors Influencing Health Status and Contact
With Health Services
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Q1) Bobby Baker is seen today in the office for gout screening. What is the correct code?
A) Z13.89
B) Z13.810
C) Z13.828
D) Z13.9
Q2) Grayson Gustefson was discharged one week ago after an amputation at his left elbow. He is being seen in the office today to evaluate the healing of his amputation stump. What is the correct code assignment?
A) Z47.81, S58.012A
B) Z47.81, S58.012D
C) Z47.82, S58.012A
D) Z47.82, S58.012D
Q3) Olive Olson is seen today because she had intercourse with an HIV-positive person and now needs to be screened for HIV. What is the correct code?
A) Z11.2
B) Z11.3
C) Z11.4
D) Z11.51
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Chapter 23: Hospital Inpatient Diagnosis Coding
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Q1) Bernard Bunter is seen today for an acute myocardial infarction. Bernard had to have a coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed, which was done without difficulty. Two days later, Bernard developed post-op anemia. Bernard also has hypertension and congestive heart failure. Which of the conditions is a complication?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Anemia
C) Hypertension
D) Congestive heart failure and hypertension
Q2) What is the correct code for a patient who was discharged to a nursing home today after a three-day hospital stay due to dementia?
A) F03.90
B) F03.91
C) F10.27
D) F10.97
Q3) What does the abbreviation CC stand for?
A) Complications
B) Complications and co-morbidities
C) Complications and chronic conditions
D) Chronic conditions
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