Clinical Skills for Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Skills for Nursing provides students with the foundational knowledge and hands-on practice necessary for safe and effective patient care in various healthcare settings. The course covers essential skills such as patient assessment, vital signs measurement, infection control procedures, wound care, medication administration, and basic life support techniques. Emphasis is placed on developing professional communication, documentation, ethical decision-making, and critical thinking abilities. Through simulations, laboratory exercises, and clinical placements, students gain confidence and competence in delivering high-quality, evidence-based nursing care to diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by
Jane W. Ball
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2604
Sample Questions
Q1) To what extent should the patient with a physical disability or emotional disorder be involved in providing health history information to the health professional?
A) The patient should be present during information collection but should not be addressed directly.
B) All information should be collected from past records and family members while the patient is in another room.
C) The patient should be involved only when you sense that he or she may feel ignored.
D) The patient should be fully involved to the limit of his or her ability.
Answer: D
Q2) When taking a history, the nurse should:
A) ask the patient to give you any information he or she can recall about his or her health.
B) start the interview with the patient's family history.
C) use a chronologic and sequential framework.
D) use a holistic and eclectic structure.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motivation of the healthcare professional to "want to" engage in the process of becoming culturally competent, not "have to," is called:
A) cultural knowledge.
B) cultural awareness
C) cultural desire
D) cultural skill.
Answer: C
Q2) The definition of ill or sick is based on a:
A) stereotype.
B) cultural behavior.
C) belief system.
D) cultural attitude.
Answer: C
Q3) An image of any group that rejects its potential for originality or individuality is known as a(n):
A) acculturation.
B) norm.
C) stereotype.
D) ethnos.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the:
A) neck area.
B) heart.
C) lungs.
D) abdomen.
Answer: D
Q2) The degree of percussion tone is determined by the density of the medium through which the sound waves travel. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between density of the medium and percussion tone?
A) The more dense the medium, the louder the percussion tone.
B) The less dense the medium, the louder the percussion tone.
C) The more hollow the area percussed, the quieter the percussion tone.
D) Percussion over muscle areas produces the loudest percussion tones.
Answer: B
Q3) Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed:
A) anterior to the ear.
B) posterior to the ear.
C) under the ear.
D) in the auditory canal.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical decision making requires a balance between:
A) trust and suspicion.
B) ethical and unethical behavior.
C) remembering and superstition.
D) mechanism and probabilism.
Q2) Utilitarianism can be described as:
A) balancing interests.
B) preventing harm.
C) choosing wisely.
D) doing good.
Q3) Self-analysis assists providers in giving proper context to:
A) history and physical findings.
B) therapeutic options.
C) attitudes, values, and feelings.
D) differential diagnoses.
Q4) A valid history and physical examination can serve to:
A) create higher healthcare costs.
B) limit the indiscriminate use of diagnostics.
C) threaten patient satisfaction.
D) increase the risk of liability.
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Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drawing of stick figures is most useful to:
A) compare findings in extremities.
B) demonstrate radiation of pain.
C) indicate consistency of lymph nodes.
D) indicate mobility of masses.
Q2) The patient's perceived disabilities and functional limitations are recorded in the:
A) problem list.
B) general patient information.
C) social history.
D) history of present illness.
Q3) Which of the following is not a component of the plan portion of the problem-oriented medical record?
A) Diagnostics ordered
B) Therapeutics
C) Patient education
D) Differential diagnosis
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which occurs with malignant hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blurred vision
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Tachycardia
D) Dyspnea
E) Encephalopathy
Q2) During expiration, the internal intercostals:
A) increase the force of muscular contraction.
B) decrease the lateral diameter during expiration.
C) decrease the intrathoracic space.
D) increase elastic recoil during expiration.
Q3) The most frequent cause of serious hypertension in children is:
A) heart disease.
B) liver failure.
C) renal disease.
D) rheumatic fever.
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Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you ask the patient to tell you the meaning of a proverb or metaphor, you are assessing which of the following?
A) Level of consciousness
B) Abstract reasoning
C) Emotional stability
D) Memory
Q2) You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:
A) depression.
B) autistic disorder.
C) mania.
D) schizophrenia.
Q3) The ability for abstract thinking normally develops during:
A) infancy.
B) early childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) adulthood.
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Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Milestone achievements are data most likely to appear in the history of:
A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) school-age children.
D) young adults.
Q2) Developmental changes of puberty are caused mainly by the interaction of the pituitary gland, gonads, and:
A) hypothalamus.
B) islet cells.
C) thalamus.
D) thymus.
Q3) A prominent forehead, large nose, large jaw, and elongation of the facial bones and extremities are signs of:
A) infantile hydrocephalus.
B) acromegaly.
C) Cushing syndrome.
D) achondroplasia.
Q4) Infants normally increase their birth length by ____% during the first year of life.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women with terminal hair growth in a male distribution pattern should receive further evaluation for a(n):
A) circulation condition.
B) endocrine disorder.
C) inflammatory state.
D) nutritional deficit.
Q2) The most common cutaneous neoplasm is:
A) basal cell carcinoma.
B) compound nevus.
C) seborrheic keratosis.
D) senile actinic keratosis.
Q3) During history taking, a mother states that her son awoke in the middle of the night complaining of intense itching to his legs. Today, your inspection reveals a honey-colored exudate from the vesicular rash on his legs. Which condition is consistent with these findings?
A) Exanthem
B) Impetigo
C) Solar keratoses
D) Trichotillomania
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Initial signs and symptoms of Epstein-Barr virus mononucleosis usually include:
A) pharyngitis, fever, and malaise.
B) bleeding gums and spontaneous nosebleeds.
C) headache, visual disturbance, and rash.
D) inguinal adenopathy and painful urination.
Q2) Mr. Shea is a 45-year-old patient who presents to the office for multiple complaints.
The examination of the upper left quadrant of the abdominal cavity is essential to the evaluation of the immune system because of the location of which organ?
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Stomach
D) Pancreas
Q3) Equipment for examining the lymphatic system includes a:
A) caliper.
B) centimeter ruler.
C) goniometer.
D) syringe and needle.
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thyroid gland should:
A) be slightly left of midline.
B) have a clear vascular sound.
C) move when the patient swallows.
D) tug with each heartbeat.
Q2) Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region, at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a:
A) parotid gland tumor.
B) branchial cleft cyst.
C) Stensen duct stone.
D) thyroglossal duct cyst.
Q3) When noting a bulging fontanel with marked pulsations in a 6-month-old, you suspect:
A) normal development.
B) congenital anomaly.
C) increased intracranial pressure.
D) fever response to a viral infection.
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When inspecting the region of the lacrimal gland, palpate:
A) the lower orbital rim, near the inner canthus.
B) in the area between the arch of the eyebrow and upper lid.
C) beneath the lower lid, adjacent to the inner canthus.
D) adjacent to the lateral aspect of the eye, just beneath the upper lid.
Q2) Which may be suggestive of Down syndrome?
A) Drusen bodies
B) Papilledema
C) Narrow palpebral fissures
D) Prominent epicanthal folds
Q3) You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose. You are assessing for:
A) confrontation reaction.
B) accommodation.
C) pupillary light reflex.
D) nystagmus.
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Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?
A) A 7-year-old
B) An 18-year-old
C) A 30-year-old
D) A 50-year-old
Q2) Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant's middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:
A) pull the auricle down and back.
B) hold the speculum in the canal.
C) distract the infant.
D) stabilize the chest.
Q3) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
Q4) Nasal symptoms that imply an allergic response include:
A) purulent nasal drainage.
B) bluish gray turbinates.
C) small, atrophied nasal membranes.
D) firm consistency of turbinates.
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When auscultating the apex of the lung, you should listen at a point:
A) even with the second rib.
B) 4 cm above the first rib.
C) higher on the right side.
D) on the convex diaphragm surface.
Q2) Mr. Curtis is a 44-year-old patient who has presented to the emergency department with shortness of breath. During the history, the patient describes shortness of breath that gets worse when he sits up. To document this, you will use the term:
A) platypnea.
B) orthopnea.
C) tachypnea.
D) bradypnea.
Q3) As you take vital signs on Mr. Barrow, age 78 years, you note that his respirations are 40 breaths/min. He has been resting, and his mucosa is pink. In regard to Mr. Barrow's respirations, you would:
A) document his rate as normal.
B) do nothing because his color is pink.
C) note that his rate is below normal.
D) report that he has an above-average rate.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Heart
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that is likely to present with dizziness and syncope is:
A) bacterial endocarditis.
B) hypertension.
C) sick sinus syndrome.
D) pericarditis.
Q2) To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to:
A) lie on their back.
B) lie on their left side.
C) lie on their right side.
D) sit up and lean forward.
Q3) Which one of the following is a common symptom of cardiovascular disorders in the older adult?
A) Fatigue
B) Joint pain
C) Poor night vision
D) Weight gain
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17
Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In children, coarctation of the aorta should be suspected if you detect:
A) a delay between the radial and femoral pulses.
B) a simultaneous radial and femoral pulse.
C) an absent femoral pulse on the left.
D) bilateral absence of femoral pulses.
Q2) During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings:
A) are usual conditions during pregnancy.
B) indicate a need for hospitalization.
C) indicate the need for amniocentesis.
D) suggest that she is having twins.
Q3) To assess a patient's jugular veins, the patient should first be placed in which position?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Upright
D) Left lateral recumbent
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
A) Vacutainer tube.
B) glass slide and fixative.
C) specimen jar with formaldehyde.
D) tape strip to test pH.
Q2) A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your response to this finding is to:
A) instruct her that this is a side effect of birth control injection therapy.
B) suggest pregnancy testing.
C) question her use of tanning beds.
D) schedule an appointment with a surgeon.
Q3) When examining axillary lymph nodes, the patient's arm is:
A) raised fully above the head.
B) extended at the side.
C) flexed at the elbow.
D) crossed over the chest.
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Percussion of the abdomen begins with establishing:
A) liver dullness.
B) spleen dullness.
C) gastric bubble tympany.
D) overall dullness and tympany in all quadrants.
Q2) Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect that the patient may have:
A) cholecystitis.
B) pancreatitis.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) ulcerative colitis.
Q3) Mrs. James is 7 months' pregnant and states that she has developed a problem with constipation. She eats a well-balanced diet and is usually regular. You should explain that constipation is common during pregnancy because of changes in the colorectal areas, such as:
A) decreased movement through the colon and increased water absorption from the stool.
B) increased movement through the colon and increased salt taken from foods.
C) looser anal sphincter and fewer nutrients taken from foods.
D) tighter anal sphincter and less iron eliminated in the stool.
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Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the:
A) corpus and cervix.
B) fallopian tubes and ovaries.
C) uterosacral and broad ligaments.
D) vagina and fundus.
Q2) Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?
A) Endometriosis
B) Low parity
C) Multiple sex partners
D) Obesity
Q3) Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?
A) Skene glands
B) Clitoris
C) Perineum
D) Bartholin glands
Q4) Which systemic feature is related to the effects of menopause?
A) Increased abdominal fat distribution
B) Decreased LDL levels
C) Cold intolerance
D) Decreased cholesterol levels
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an uncircumcised male, retraction of the foreskin may reveal a cheesy white substance. This is usually:
A) evidence of a fungal infection.
B) a collection of sebaceous material.
C) indicative of penile carcinoma.
D) suggestive of diabetes.
Q2) A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful on palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass transilluminates with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with:
A) orchitis.
B) a hydrocele.
C) a rectocele.
D) a scrotal hernia.
Q3) A cremasteric reflex should result in:
A) testicular and scrotal rise on the stroked side.
B) penile deviation to the left side.
C) bilateral elevation of the scrotum.
D) immediate erection of the penis.
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Equipment for examination of the anus, rectum, and prostate routinely includes gloves and:
A) a hand mirror and gauze.
B) a lubricant and penlight.
C) slides and normal saline.
D) swabs and culture medium.
Q2) Perianal abscesses, fissures, or pilonidal cysts will cause the patient to experience:
A) bulging and wrinkling.
B) constipation and pallor.
C) diarrhea and redness.
D) tenderness and inflammation.
Q3) Your patient's chief complaint is repeated, pencil-like stools. Further examination should include:
A) a stool culture.
B) parasite testing.
C) a digital rectal examination (DRE).
D) a prostate examination.
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Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:
A) clench his or her teeth during muscle palpation.
B) push his or her head against the examiner's hand.
C) straighten his or her leg with examiner opposition.
D) uncross his or her legs with examiner resistance.
Q2) A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is:
A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) paraphimosis.
D) scoliosis.
Q3) When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that:
A) there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
B) one of the clavicles has been fractured.
C) there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation.
D) one shoulder is dislocated.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immune system attacks the synaptic junction between the nerve and muscle fibers, blocking acetylcholine receptor sites in:
A) myasthenia gravis.
B) encephalitis.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) cerebral palsy.
Q2) Visible or palpable extension of the elbow is caused by reflex contraction of which muscle?
A) Achilles
B) Biceps
C) Patellar
D) Triceps
Q3) Which condition is consistent with Brown-Séquard syndrome?
A) Central sensory loss that is generalized
B) Motor paralysis on the lesion side of the body
C) Multiple peripheral neuropathy of the joints
D) Spinal root paralysis below the umbilicus
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Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. Which additional diagnostic test would be required for her?
A) Cervical spine radiography
B) Visual acuity
C) Mini-Mental State Examination
D) Nerve conduction studies
Q2) Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her:
A) sleep patterns.
B) salt intake.
C) aerobic workouts.
D) menstrual cycles.
Q3) Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
A) Asthma
B) Fever
C) Controlled seizures
D) HIV-positive status
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26
Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Kia has brought her newborn infant in for a 2-week examination. The examination of the newborn should begin with:
A) inspection.
B) palpation.
C) vital signs.
D) auscultation.
Q2) When examining a "difficult" patient, it is best to allow which person in the examination room?
A) The clinician
B) Patient's small children
C) An interpreter
D) A chaperone
Q3) Ms. Stein visits the nurse practitioner for an annual examination. The nurse practitioner tests Ms. Stein's tongue for movement and strength. The nurse practitioner is assessing CN _______.
Q4) Mrs. Jones is a 44-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. The patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the examiner's hands during the examination. The cranial nerve involved with successful shoulder shrugging is CN ____.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The application of blunt sternal pressure is used to detect:
A) a fracture of attached ribs.
B) the motor function of the T7 dermatome.
C) pneumothorax.
D) cardiac contusion.
Q2) Mr. Stinson is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the emergency department after an auto accident. On examination, you note raccoon eyes and a positive Battle sign. Raccoon eyes and the Battle sign are associated with:
A) multisystem trauma.
B) orbital fractures.
C) basilar skull fractures.
D) subdural hematoma.
Q3) Until they are stabilized, trauma patients require reevaluation:
A) every 2 minutes.
B) every 5 minutes.
C) every 10 minutes.
D) every hour.
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