Clinical Pathophysiology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the fundamental mechanisms underlying disease processes and their clinical manifestations. Through an integrative approach, students examine alterations in physiological systems resulting from various pathological conditions, linking these changes to signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings observed in patients. Emphasis is placed on understanding the pathogenesis of major diseases across organ systems, fostering critical thinking and clinical reasoning skills essential for effective diagnosis and management in healthcare settings. The course provides a vital foundation for advanced study in medical and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
A) apoptosis.
B) ischemia.
C) hypertrophy.
D) necrosis.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
A) An inherited disorder
B) A combination of specific etiological factors
C) An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
D) Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
Answer: C
Q3) A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
A) latent stage.
B) predisposing factor.
C) incidence.
D) precipitating factor.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in:
A) hypokalemia.
B) hypernatremia.
C) hyperchloremia.
D) hypovolemia.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
A) 4.5-8
B) 7.0
C) 7.4
D) 8
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?
A) Bradycardia and deep rapid breathing
B) Drowsiness and general lethargy
C) Increased nervous system irritability
D) Decreased urine pH
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other
Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify:
A) those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
B) those typical side effects associated with this drug.
C) the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
D) the maximum shelf life of the medication.
Answer: A
Q2) A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may:
1) stimulate activity in those cells.
2) inhibit activity in those cells.
3) change specificity and attach to other cells.
4) be disabled by macrophages.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Q1) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A) pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
B) spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin.
C) responsible for the state of arousal with pain.
D) useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.
Q2) Which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Morphine
C) Codeine
D) Intravenous general anesthesia
Q3) Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and:
A) phantom pain as a result of amputation.
B) pain associated with the treatment of the disease.
C) pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes.
D) pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A serous exudate is best described as a:
A) thin, watery, colorless exudate.
B) thick, sticky, cloudy secretion.
C) thick, greenish material containing microbes.
D) brownish, clotted material.
Q2) Inhalation of carbon monoxide is a threat for many burn patients because this gas:
A) causes swelling in the trachea.
B) quickly reduces the available oxygen in the blood.
C) prevents full expansion of the lungs.
D) is toxic to the nervous system.
Q3) A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
A) full-thickness.
B) deep partial-thickness.
C) superficial partial-thickness.
D) first-degree.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:
A) ineffective.
B) bacteriostatic.
C) narrow-spectrum.
D) bactericidal.
Q2) When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
A) sporadic occurrence.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) emerging disease.
Q3) A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:
A) destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
B) destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent.
C) reduce the replication of many bacteria.
D) inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria.
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV infection impairs:
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
D) neither type of immunity.
Q2) In cases of HIV infection, the "window period" refers to the time between:
A) entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations.
B) entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.
C) entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count.
D) diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS."
Q3) Incompatible blood transfusions result in:
A) hemolysis of erythrocytes.
B) a type I immune response.
C) deposits in multiple organs.
D) immune deficiency.
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leprosy (Hansen's disease) is caused by:
A) a fungus.
B) a bacterium.
C) a virus.
D) a helminth.
Q2) The pathological change associated with scleroderma is:
A) abnormal activation of T lymphocytes and an increase of cytokines.
B) an autoimmune reaction damaging the epidermis.
C) collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the viscera.
D) Type I hypersensitivity and increased serum IgE levels.
Q3) What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
A) Severe pain around the mouth
B) Malaise and fatigue
C) Fever and severe headaches
D) Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
A) Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time
B) Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis
C) Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
D) Presence of many antibodies in the blood
Q2) What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
A) Additional ischemia in the broken bone
B) Nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C) Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D) Abscess and infection at a distant site
Q3) What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
A) Decreases over time
B) Quite severe in the early stages
C) Aggravated by general muscle aching
D) Increased with weight-bearing and activity
Q4) How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
B) Inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
C) Fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
D) Blood supply to the cartilage is lost
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do vascular occlusions and infarcts occur frequently with sickle cell anemia?
A) The red blood cells are abnormally large.
B) Increased hemolysis of erythrocytes occurs.
C) Erythrocytes change to sickle shape when hypoxia occurs.
D) HbS is unable to transport oxygen.
Q2) Secondary polycythemia may be associated with:
A) frequent angina attacks.
B) certain types of anemia.
C) severe chronic bronchitis.
D) renal disease.
Q3) Which of the following applies to sickle cell trait?
A) Most hemoglobin is in the form of HgS
B) Sickling of erythrocytes occurs with severe hypoxia.
C) Painful sickling crises with multiple infarctions occur frequently.
D) A child's skeletal growth is delayed.
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma is the: A) monocyte.
B) Ann Arbor cell
C) Hodgkin's lymphocyte
D) Reed-Sternberg cell
Q2) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
Q3) Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:
A) plasma cell myeloma.
B) diverticulitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) obstructive vessel disorder.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common signs of rheumatic fever include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) arthritis, causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet.
B) erythematous skin rash and subcutaneous nodules.
C) epistaxis, tachycardia, and fever.
D) elevated ASO titer and leukocytosis.
Q2) The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is:
A) cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation.
B) ruptured ventricle or aorta.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) cerebrovascular accident.
Q3) Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the AV node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called:
A) first-degree block.
B) second-degree block.
C) bundle-branch block.
D) total heart block.
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the:
1) upper and lower respiratory tracts.
2) nasal cavities and the sinuses.
3) nasopharynx and oropharynx.
4) middle ear cavity and auditory tube.
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The use of a continuous positive airway pump in the treatment of sleep apnea will:
A) reduce bronchospasm.
B) force expansion of pleural membranes.
C) maintain an open airway.
D) awaken the person and increase respirations.
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15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a head injury, what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain?
A) Hematoma or infection
B) Laceration by foreign objects
C) Hypoxia or acidosis
D) Tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull
Q2) What are the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a person with cervical spinal injury?
A) Unexpected drop in blood pressure and apnea
B) Sudden marked increase in blood pressure with bradycardia
C) Hyperreflexia in the arms and legs
D) Urinary and bowel incontinence
Q3) How would a seizure consisting of bizarre or inappropriate activity be classified?
A) Absence seizure
B) Psychomotor seizure
C) Focal seizure
D) Jacksonian seizure
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Keratitis
Q2) Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
C) Cataract
D) Macular degeneration
Q3) Trachoma is indicated by the presence of:
A) purulent exudate and red sclerae.
B) corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids.
C) diplopia and cloudy lens.
D) ptosis and fixed dilation of the pupil.
Q4) The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for:
A) balance and equilibrium.
B) hearing in the upper frequency range.
C) hearing in the lower frequency range.
D) balancing the pressure in the auditory canal.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Skipping a meal
B) Anorexia
C) Serious infection
D) Insulin overdose
Q2) Which of the following may cause goiter?
1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Hypothyroidism
3) Lack of iodine in the diet
4) Pheochromocytoma
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means :
A) thirst.
B) increased urine output.
C) hunger.
D) glucose in the urine.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?
A) Lack of peristalsis, leading to dilated areas of intestine
B) Fibrosis and thickening of the wall, causing obstruction
C) Erosion of the mucosa, causing bleeding
D) Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal loops
Q2) Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:
A) bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile.
B) water content in the bile.
C) bile salts in the bile.
D) bicarbonate ions in the bile.
Q3) Bile pigment gallstones are more common in individuals dealing with:
A) obesity.
B) high cholesterol levels.
C) alcoholic cirrhosis.
D) use of oral contraceptives.
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes polyuria during the stage of renal insufficiency?
A) Loss of tubule function
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Decreased aldosterone secretion
D) Increased GFR
Q2) The reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the kidneys is directly controlled by:
1) atrial natriuretic hormone.
2) antidiuretic hormone.
3) angiotensin.
4) the levels of bicarbonate ion.
A) 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 4
Q3) What is the cause of most cases of pyelonephritis?
A) An ascending infection by E. coli
B) Abnormal immune response, causing inflammation
C) Dialysis or other invasive procedure
D) Severe pH imbalance of urine
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
A) Development of malignancy
B) Irregular menstrual cycles
C) Interference with ovulation
D) Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Q2) Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?
A) It forms a mature ovarian follicle.
B) It secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
C) It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the latter half of the menstrual cycle.
D) It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.
Q3) What is the cause of syphilis?
A) A gram-negative diplococcus
B) An anaerobic protozoa
C) A virus
D) An anaerobic spirochete
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
A) Alopecia
B) Bone marrow depression
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Weight loss
Q2) All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT:
A) They are difficult to diagnose and treat.
B) They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin.
C) The number of skin cancer cases is increasing.
D) Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer.
Q3) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A) chemotherapy cannot be used.
B) signs and symptoms are absent.
C) complications are evident.
D) metastases occur.
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22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to Huntington's disease?
A) The effects are obvious at birth.
B) There is a test for the defective gene.
C) There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
D) The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
Q2) The cellular division process that produces the chromosomes that are in the sperm and ova is called:
A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) organogenesis.
D) polysomy.
Q3) Which of the following statements applies to the sex chromosomes?
A) They are identified as XY in the female.
B) They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype.
C) They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.
D) They are found only in the cells in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Q1) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) compression of the urinary bladder.
B) restricted inspiratory volume.
C) low blood pressure.
D) varicose veins.
Q2) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A) The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B) The parents differ in blood type.
C) The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D) Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
Q3) What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth?
A) 38 weeks
B) Termed the gestation period
C) Referred to as gravidity
D) The embryonic period
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24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A) a refusal to eat.
B) extreme weight loss.
C) alternating binge eating and purging.
D) chronic diarrhea.
Q2) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A) sweat glands of the upper body.
B) dermis and epidermis of the skin.
C) apocrine glands.
D) sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A) sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
B) abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test.
C) the causative bacteria in the saliva.
D) extreme fatigue and malaise.
Q4) The biological changes associated with adolescence are stimulated primarily by:
A) the peripheral nervous system.
B) the thalamus.
C) increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
D) the pituitary gland.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A) reduced skeletal muscle mass.
B) degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine.
C) increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).
D) reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying.
Q2) Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging include:
A) reducing vitamin D intake.
B) maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise.
C) increasing bone resorption.
D) maintaining glucocorticoid therapy.
Q3) Senescence refers to the period of time when:
A) mitosis is accelerated.
B) apoptosis is reduced.
C) aging changes become apparent.
D) cell death exceeds cell replacement.
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) Virchow's triad refers to:
A) an anatomical structure in the kidneys.
B) a combination of factors affecting potential thrombus formation.
C) factors that predispose an individual toward urinary tract infections.
D) psychological factors leading to stress associated with immobility.
Q2) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
Q3) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
A) stasis of urine in the urinary system.
B) development of hypocalcemia with immobility.
C) fluid overload in the system.
D) lack of neurological control of the bladder.
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
A) a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body.
B) the development of decompensated acidosis.
C) prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.
D) the supply of hormones having been exhausted.
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) A patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine will:
A) demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
B) require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
C) require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
D) show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
Q2) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A) hereditary factors.
B) disease requiring certain prescription drugs.
C) easy access to many kinds of drugs.
D) increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress.
E) increased work productivity.
Q3) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A) with medical support.
B) with legally prescribed drugs.
C) following intensive counseling.
D) using CNS stimulants.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Institutions frequently have outbreaks of infection associated with poultry products contaminated by:
A) E. coli
B) Salmonella
C) Listeria
D) HIV
Q2) During the development of hyperthermia, the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A) body core temperature is very high.
B) skeletal muscle spasms occur.
C) hypovolemia and fainting occur.
D) the cool-down process is too rapid.
Q3) Inhalants can be:
A) a particulate such as asbestos.
B) gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
C) a solvent, such as benzene.
D) A, B, and C
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