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Clinical Skills in Surgery Solved Exam Questions - 784 Verified Questions

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Clinical Skills in Surgery Solved

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Clinical Skills in Surgery is designed to equip students with the practical competencies required for effective surgical care. The course emphasizes hands-on learning in key areas such as patient assessment, sterile techniques, wound management, basic suturing, and the use of surgical instruments. Students will also develop foundational skills in preoperative and postoperative care, minor procedures, and intraoperative assistance. Through a combination of simulation-based practice, supervised clinical experiences, and case-based discussions, learners will gain the confidence and proficiency necessary to function as integral members of the surgical team while upholding the highest standards of patient safety and ethical practice.

Recommended Textbook

Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock

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30 Chapters

784 Verified Questions

784 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Accurate documentation is an integral part of all phases of the nursing process.For this reason,perioperative nursing care documentation:

A) should not include technical care.

B) must include a description of patient care delivered and patient response to that care.

C) must be aligned with appropriate PNDS elements.

D) will have PNDS integrated into all mandatory fields.

Answer: B

Q2) Lonna Weber is a frail 76-year-old diabetic woman who is scheduled for major surgery.She is vulnerable and at high risk for harm because of several factors related to her preexisting conditions and overall health status.As part of developing a plan to guide Lonna's care,the nurse uses standardized descriptive terms to guide care.This step of the nursing process is called:

A) nursing diagnosis.

B) nursing assessment.

C) nursing outcome.

D) nursing intervention.

Answer: A

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3

Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sandra Williams was presented with the prepared informed consent form during the discussion with her surgeon concerning her scheduled vaginal-assisted laparoscopic hysterectomy.She demonstrated and verbalized that she understood all of the tenets of the procedure,risks,expected outcome,complications,and procedural process.Before she signed the consent form,she informed the surgeon that she did not want any medical students or surgical residents performing any parts of the procedure other than assisting and did not want any photographs of her body taken.The surgeon agreed and she crossed out those portions of the form and initialed them before she signed.Sandy was exercising her:

A) understanding and rights under the Patient Self-Determination Act.

B) right to informed consent.

C) autonomy to protect herself from negligence and malpractice.

D) hope that everyone would honor HIPAA.

Answer: B

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4

Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the

Perioperative Setting

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ernesto Horn was admitted to the emergency department (ED)with respiratory symptoms,facial and upper body abrasions,burns,and moist lesions after a small package,delivered to his office,exploded and sprayed him with dried powder and glass shards.In response to the reported mechanism of injury,the ED team sequestered him in a secluded area away from the rest of the patients.The team believed that this was highly suspicious of a bioterrorism event.The epidemiologist was called and the patient was transferred to a negative-pressure isolation room and placed on Standard,Contact,Airborne,and Droplet Precautions.Based on these actions,what microorganism agents might be suspected to be involved?

A) Plague and tuberculosis

B) Smallpox and tuberculosis

C) Ebola virus and anthrax

D) Anthrax and smallpox

Answer: D

Q2) An integrator is a multiparameter indicator designed to measure:

A) time and pressure.

B) pressure,steam,and temperature.

C) temperature,time,and presence of steam.

D) sterility and pressure.

Answer: C

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Anesthesia

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Sample Questions

Q1) Emma Clements,a frail 92-year-old,was positioned in lithotomy for a 90-minute rectal procedure under spinal anesthesia block (SAB).At the end of the procedure,when the circulating nurse and surgeon gently removed her legs from position and placed her in supine position,she experienced a common side effect of spinal anesthesia,.

A) numbness of both legs and feet

B) paralysis with bilateral popliteal pain

C) hypotensive episode

D) esophageal reflux

Q2) Which of the following medications is a specific depolarizing muscle relaxant than can produce generalized fasciculations?

A) Succinylcholine

B) Mivacurium

C) Pancuronium

D) Rocuronium

Q3) The instillation of a local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space is termed:

A) spinal anesthesia.

B) epidural anesthesia.

C) perfusion block.

D) stellate ganglion block.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery

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Q1) Jennifer Twist,a 3-year-old patient for bilateral myringotomy with tubes,is frantically screaming and thrashing on separation from her parents as the anesthesia provider carries her to OR 3.The perioperative nurse,pushing the empty transfer vehicle,identifies that Jennifer is at high risk for injury from _,and is planning appropriate position-related protective measures:.Select from the options to fill in the blanks.

A) Anxiety;lock OR bed and transport vehicle during transfer;remain at patient side during transfer and induction

B) Falls;lock OR bed and transport vehicle during transfer;remain at patient side during transfer and induction

C) Impaired transfer ability;reassure patient with calm and appropriate touch;remain at patient side during transfer and induction

D) Anxiety;reassure patient with calm and appropriate touch;remain at patient side during transfer and induction

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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ideal suture material is one that has handling characteristics such as:

A) memory.

B) slickness.

C) ease of tying.

D) removable knots.

Q2) The circulating nurse received the trauma call from the emergency department and called sterile supply to assemble the instruments for an abdominal trauma case with possible aortic rupture.When the cart arrived,she saw the vascular set;however,the most important instrument set was missing.What important instrument set was needed for this procedure besides the vascular set?

A) Sternal saw and blades

B) Basic laparotomy set

C) Basic laparoscopy set

D) Minor set

Q3) The primary use for suture is essentially to:

A) strengthen,re-form,and close tissue.

B) ligate,suture,and close tissue.

C) ligate,strengthen,and stop bleeding.

D) clamp,divide,and attach tissue.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities

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Sample Questions

Q1) The new general surgery fellow placed the three trocar ports for the laparoscopic appendectomy.She was focused on the concept of exact geometric triangulation of the three port accesses,to avoid the concept of sword fighting after inserting her instruments.She knew she had to proceed with caution and determination since this hospital was not able to provide the protected blade trocars she was used to using at the university medical center.The procedure was completed without incident;however,on postoperative day 1,the patient demonstrated signs and symptoms of sepsis.What might have been the unusual occurrence that could have resulted in patient sepsis?

A) Unrecognized appendiceal rupture

B) Significant break in sterile technique

C) Inadvertent trocar puncture through the bowel on insertion

D) Recent H1N outbreak on the surgery unit at the hospital

Q2) An endoscope is a diagnostic or therapeutic instrument that enters the body through a:

A) natural orifice.

B) small incision into a body compartment.

C) externalized sinus tract.

D) All of the options are correct.

Q3) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about surgical dressings is true?

A) Surgical dressings cushion and protect the wound from trauma and gross contamination,and absorb drainage.

B) Surgical dressings cover the wound to maintain moisture to promote granulation.

C) Surgical dressings maintain tension on the suture line to prevent dehiscence.

D) Surgical dressings protect surrounding drapes,linen,and clothing from contamination.

Q2) Jacob Sutzkever had a temperature of 103° F and returned to the OR for a debridement and washout of purulent drainage from his wound on postoperative day 3.What was the wound classification at the time of his debridement and washout surgery?

A) Clean wound,classification I

B) Clean/contaminated wound,classification II

C) Contaminated wound,classification III

D) Infected wound,classification IV

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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management

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Q1) Hypotension is a blood pressure reading that is 20% less than the patient's normal baseline pressure.Hypovolemia is the most common cause of hypotension;however,hypotension may also be caused by cardiac dysfunctions.Which triad of cardiac conditions will present with hypotension?

A) Myocardial infarction,myocardial tamponade,and pulmonary embolism

B) Cardiac ischemia,subaortic stenosis,and pericarditis

C) Congestive heart failure,valvular dysfunction,and tachypnea

D) Certain anesthetic agents and cardiac stimulants,conduction defects,and endocarditis

Q2) Select the appropriate example of physiologic symptoms of pain.

A) A proxy pain rating by someone who knows the patient well

B) Facial grimacing and crying

C) The patient's self-report of pain

D) Physiologic indicators,such as elevated vital signs

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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Michael Mason has suffered from subsacral pain and swelling for 2 weeks and finally was referred to a colorectal surgeon for care.He is currently in the ambulatory surgical center OR bed positioned in the jackknife position.The perioperative nurse has gently but firmly taped his buttocks laterally to the rails of the OR bed to promote exposure to the surgical site.What procedure is Michael prepared to undergo,based on his symptoms and the surgical preparation?

A) Internal hemorrhoidectomy

B) External hemorrhoidectomy

C) Removal of rectal foreign body

D) Pilonidal cystectomy

Q2) When setting up for a gastrectomy,the scrub person will ensure that appropriate instruments are available to clamp and ligate the:

A) branches of the peritoneal artery.

B) splenic vessels.

C) popliteal artery.

D) Treitz arterial stump.

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Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen

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Sample Questions

Q1) The circulating nurse approaches the preoperative holding lounge to see her next patient,Alfred Neumann,a 57-year-old nurse newly diagnosed with pancreatic cancer.He had an ERCP 1 week ago and,based on the findings,was scheduled for surgery at the comprehensive cancer center,where he works in the interventional endoscopy unit.He is aware of the poor prognosis for this disease and his nurse has recorded his nursing diagnosis as:Anxiety related to impending surgical procedure,perioperative events,and surgical outcome.An appropriate nursing action for Alfred would be to:

A) encourage verbalization of his fears and reinforce the standardized age-appropriate coping mechanisms.

B) describe for him the steps of the operative procedure.

C) offer emotional reassurance by using touch,assisting him to a position of comfort on the OR bed,and offering warm blankets (thermal comfort).

D) share with Alfred his nursing diagnosis and reinforce the desired nursing outcome related to anxiety.

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Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias

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Sample Questions

Q1) Femoral hernias occur more frequently in which group of individuals?

A) Postoperative obese patients

B) Newborns

C) Weight lifters

D) Females

Q2) Select the triad of the boundaries of the Hesselbach triangle.

A) Inguinal ligament,rectus abdominis muscle,deep epigastric vessels

B) Rectus abdominis muscle,Cooper ligament,aponeurosis

C) Scarpa's fascia,deep epigastric vessels,external oblique muscle

D) Inguinal ligament,inguinal canal,Cooper ligament

Q3) Identify the triad of anatomic sites of abdominal wall weakness with a potential for hernias.

A) Groin,ventral line,umbilicus

B) Inguinal rings,femoral canal,incision

C) Inguinal canal,femoral rings,umbilicus

D) Ventral line,aponeurosis,inguinal canal

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tui Nyguen,a 32-year-old gravida 2 para 2,is scheduled for a hysteroscopy for heavy bleeding of 2 weeks' duration,and possible retrieval of a displaced IUD.She is tired and weak from blood loss and has marked anemia.During the vaginal prep the perioperative nurse noted several large blood clots.She communicated an estimated blood loss amount to the anesthesia provider and surgeon.After Tui was draped,the circulating nurse connected the hysteroscopic insufflator,pressure-infusion pump,and a video camera,light source,and monitor.The uterine cavity was distended with 32% dextran 70 in dextrose (Hyskon)at a continuous pressure through the hysteroscopic pump into the irrigating channel of the hysteroscope.The circulating nurse was relieved for lunch after she gave a hand-off report to her relief nurse.What patient safety information relevant to the hysteroscopy should be given to the receiving relief nurse before the circulating nurse leaves for lunch? Select all that apply.

A) A review of the amount of Hyskon infused and fluid received back

B) A reminder to monitor for discrepancies over 500 ml

C) A reminder to monitor for signs of tachydysrhythmias

D) A review of current fluid loss calculations based on sponge weights

E) A request to soak instruments in sterile saline as soon as the procedure is finished

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15

Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) High-intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU)is a noninvasive technique used in the treatment of prostate cancer.HIFU is a targeted therapy that is highly focused into a small area without causing collateral tissue damage.Aside from primary therapy,HIFU can be used as salvage therapy,primarily after radiation.HIFU can be performed as an outpatient procedure,often with an epidural anesthetic.The HIFU-directed energy modality is best described as:

A) high-temperature nonionizing thermal energy.

B) cavitation of the prostate cell cytoplasm by the implosion of microscopic bubbles.

C) mechanical shearing force of ultrasonic waves.

D) radiofrequency coagulation of prostatic cell nuclei.

Q2) The kidneys are highly vascular organs.Approximately how much of the entire circulating blood volume do the kidneys process at any one time?

A) One fifth

B) 1 ml per kg body weight

C) One third

D) 30 ml per hour

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Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Open parathyroidectomy is currently being replaced with less invasive and more targeted techniques;however,the amount of parathyroid tissue that should be removed remains controversial and relates to whether single or multiple glands are involved.A portion of a gland must remain to:

A) prevent hypocalcemia and its complications.

B) serve as a marker for later surgery should the gland fail to produce PTH.

C) regenerate into normal parathyroid tissue.

D) maintain the patient in a state of hypercalcemia to compensate for the lost glands.

Q2) A minimally invasive video-assisted thyroidectomy (MIVAT)procedure relies on Miccoli instruments added to the standard thyroid or neck dissection setup,a 30-degree endoscope,and an ultrasonic (harmonic)scalpel with scissors to ligate and divide the vessels.An important risk reduction strategy for any minimally invasive procedure would be (select all that apply):

A) note the amount of CO volume in connected tank and tanks available.

B) consider and plan for the possibility of conversion to open thyroidectomy.

C) position and drape the patient as for thyroidectomy.

D) use fire-resistant light cords,endoscopes,light sources,and cable connections

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17

Chapter 16: Breast Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fibrocystic changes in the breast describe many different breast changes.These changes affect almost all women at some time in their lives.Nipple discharge is more commonly associated with benign lesions than with cancer;however,discharge is usually significant only if it is spontaneous,persistent,and:

A) chronic.

B) unilateral.

C) bloody.

D) All of the options are significant.

Q2) The internal thoracic lymph nodes,which drain the inner half of the breast,can also be a channel for the:

A) secretion of estrogen.

B) spread of metastasis.

C) drainage of the outer half of the breast.

D) spread of infections.

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Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients presenting for ophthalmic surgery may have endured chronic progressive impairment,or recent decrease,in visual acuity.Most patients are admitted through an ambulatory admission area adjacent to the surgical suite.Select an appropriate nursing action(s)when admitting the ophthalmic surgery patient.

A) Fully orient the patient to the physical surroundings.

B) Use detailed descriptions and reinforce them.

C) Approach the patient from the unaffected side to avoid startling the patient.

D) All of these interventions are appropriate for the ophthalmic surgery patient.

Q2) Miotics and mydriatics produce opposite effects on the pupil of the eye.Select the most appropriate statement about miotic and mydriatic drugs.

A) Miotic drugs are anticholinergic drugs useful in lowering intraocular pressure.

B) Mydriatic drugs,such as phenylephrine,dilate the pupil.

C) Miotic drugs dilate the pupil for posterior chamber access after lens removal.

D) Mydriatic drugs are often referred to as cycloplegics.

Q3) Exenteration

Q4) Enucleation

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery

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Q1) What is the purpose of using an intravenous injection of a radiopaque contrast dye during select imaging diagnostic studies?

A) There is enhanced uptake of radiation in areas of suspicion.

B) It provides visual enhancement of anatomic structures.

C) It minimizes ionizing radiation scatter to noninvolved anatomic structures.

D) Contrast dye leaves a locator marker for impending surgery.

Q2) During the preoperative assessment for a patient scheduled for nasal surgery using a local anesthetic that includes epinephrine,what important consideration,relevant to epinephrine use,should be explored?

A) Coagulopathy

B) Renal clearance

C) Cardiac status

D) Anxiety

Q3) Which of the diagnostic modalities listed below does not employ the use of ionizing radiation?

A) Audiogram

B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

C) Computed tomography (CT)

D) Both audiogram and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Marissa Blanca,a 48-year-old woman with degenerative rheumatoid arthritis,is having a two-joint metacarpophalangeal implant of her left hand.The pneumatic tourniquet is applied to Marissa's upper left arm and has been inflated to 280 mm Hg for 38 minutes.The surgery is advancing as planned and the surgeon is preparing to insert the second implant.Celeste,the perioperative nurse circulator,has set the time threshold for 60 minutes.During her preoperative assessment with Marissa,she noted no contraindications to pneumatic tourniquet use.While the surgery is going well and Celeste is confident that the second implant will be inserted and the wound closed before the tourniquet alarms,what risk reduction strategy would be appropriate for Celeste to employ?

A) Be prepared to increase the time threshold to 90 minutes.

B) Suggest a let-down procedure to resanguinate the limb at 60 minutes if the second implant is not yet inserted.

C) Wait until the 60-minute alarm sounds.

D) Gently remind the team when the 30-,45-,and 60-minute marks are reached.

Q2) The rotator cuff consists of which group of muscles?

A) Deltoid,teres major,and teres minor

B) Supraspinatus,infraspinatus,teres minor,and subscapularis

C) Latissimus dorsi,deltoid,and teres major

D) Supraspinatus,subscapularis,pectoralis major,and deltoid

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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery

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Q1) Jordan Gribbins,a 69-year-old pipe smoker with a history of cardiac disease and atrial rhythm disturbance,is scheduled for a supratentorial craniotomy and is securely positioned in a semisitting position.The perioperative nurse and anesthesia provider have discussed the anesthesia plan and Mr.Gribbin's surgical and anesthesia risks,and agree that he is at risk for venous air embolism (VAE).Sequential compression devices have been placed on both legs.Pulmonary lines have been placed and the nurse has prepared an area for preparation of TEE (transesophageal electrocardiography),if needed.During the procedure,Mr.Gribbins reacted with decreases in arterial pressure and end-tidal CO .Precordial "washing machine" sounds emanated from the Doppler.What should the perioperative nurse anticipate as a possible next response?

A) Increase the pressure to 60 mm Hg on the SCD pump.

B) Cover the surgical wound with antibiotic-soaked sponges.

C) Reposition the patient in left lateral decubitus position to entrap air in the right atrium.

D) Aspirate air bubbles from the arterial line and give dobutamine.

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Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery

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Q1) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction or post-bariatric contouring procedures,the perioperative nurse will assemble and organize supplies and devices because the procedure may require:

A) repositioning one or more times during surgery.

B) meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.

C) pressure dressings.

D) patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.

Q2) One of the most popular lasers used in plastic and reconstructive surgery is attracted to the water in the skin cells and ablates the cells at a predetermined depth.Collagen material beneath the skin surface is also heated,resulting in smoother and slightly tighter skin.Several lasers are attracted to areas of darker pigmentation.This treatment has virtually replaced dermabrasion,because of its consistency in terms of depth of penetration and also because this technique is less dependent on user technique or skill.Select the laser modality that would be the best option for ablation or removal of a pigmented red tattoo.

A) CO laser

B) Erbium:YAG laser

C) Nd:YAG laser

D) Excimer laser

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery

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Q1) After successful reinsertion of the patient's chest tube,Sandra conducted a debriefing session with the new graduate nurses and medical student and asked several reflective questions about the follow-up care of the patient and chest tube.What would be an appropriate question to ask the new nurses and student about follow-up care?

A) How often should the chest tube be stripped?

B) How high should the chest drainage system be hung above the patient's waist?

C) Why do we check alignment of the patient's trachea?

D) Who is authorized to remove the chest tube?

Q2) The thoracic outlet is a junction bound anteriorly by the manubrium,anterolaterally by the first ribs,and posteriorly by the first thoracic vertebrae and posterior angles of the first ribs of the space.The great vessels of the head,neck,and arm pass through this space.What syndrome is caused by the compression of these structures?

A) Brachial plexus palsy

B) Vertebral tipping syndrome

C) Thoracic outlet syndrome

D) Thoracic plexus compression

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Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery

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Q1) During the 4-hour vascular procedure,the circulating nurse,Karen,and the scrub person,Judy,have each had a coffee break and a lunch break.Judy has returned from lunch to find four medicine cups with clear fluid,each unlabeled.The outgoing relief scrub person,during her hand-off report to Judy,points to each cup and states;"The first one is contrast dye,the second cup is heparin,the third is heparinized saline and the fourth is papaverine;it's easy,they're in alphabetical order." Judy discarded all four medications and Karen replaced them into appropriately labeled medicine cups.After the procedure,Karen completed an unusual occurrence report.What recommendations should she include in her corrective action plan that the relief scrub person should have done? Select all that apply.

A) Ensure concurrent medication verification,both verbally and visually;include medication name,strength,dose,and expiration date.

B) Verify all medications concurrently with the entering and exiting personnel at shift change or break relief.

C) Remove any unlabeled medication or solution from the field.

D) Keep all medication containers used during the procedure in the OR until the conclusion of the procedure.

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25

Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery

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Q1) The temporary substitution of a pump oxygenator for the heart and lungs allows the surgeon to stop the heart and perform cardiac procedures under direct vision in a relatively dry,motionless field.It also allows the surgeon to manipulate the heart without the risk of producing ventricular fibrillation and reduced cardiac output that jeopardize perfusion to the myocardial,peripheral,and cerebral tissues.In traditional cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB),systemic venous return to the heart flows by gravity drainage through cannulae placed in the superior and inferior venae cavae or through a single two-stage cannula in the right atrium into tubing connected to the bypass machine.Blood is oxygenated,filtered,warmed or cooled,and pumped back into the systemic circulation through a cannula placed in the:

A) femoral artery.

B) axillary artery.

C) ascending aorta.

D) All of the arteries could be used for return flow.

Q2) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply.

A) Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.

B) Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.

C) All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.

D) All vascular clamps have similar angles,box locks,ring handles,and ratchets.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery

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Q1) Baby Boy Doe is a newborn found outside of the emergency department (ED).He is hypothermic and has several deep lacerations across his back,abdomen,and legs that will require surgical repair.He is transferred to the surgical bay of the ED and prepared for anesthesia induction.What risk reduction strategies are appropriate during the preanesthetic phase to achieve and maintain normothermia?

A) Adjust room temperature to 23° to 24° C (73.4° to 75.2° F).

B) Provide a radiant heat lamp during placement of monitoring lines and induction.

C) Wrap lower extremities in elastic bandages and encase in a plastic bag for newborns.

D) Keep child exposed as much as possible to benefit from the heat lamp.

Q2) Neuropathologic conditions requiring surgical intervention can be found in any age group.What are the most common problems requiring neurosurgical procedures in infants and children?

A) Meningocele,myelomeningocele,and encephalocele

B) Craniosynostosis and hydrocephalus

C) Brain tumors and trauma

D) All of the options are correct.

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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) The predominant reason for urologic surgery in elderly men is benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).What appropriate assessment question would the perioperative nurse ask the patient scheduled for a TURP during the preoperative interview?

A) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of straining at urination (micturition)

B) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of painful urination (dysuria)

C) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of blood in the urine (hematuria)

D) All of the options are correct.

Q2) What action is considered a best practice when communicating with geriatric patients with cognitive impairments?

A) Treat the person as if he/she is special and address him/her in a soft,quiet manner.

B) Speak moderately loud,facing the patient and holding his/her hand.

C) Approach the patient from the front and identify yourself.

D) Take measures to minimize emotional inflections in your message.

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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40577

Sample Questions

Q1) What special consideration should be made when assessing a pediatric trauma patient for level of consciousness?

A) Use the modified Glasgow Coma Scale for children.

B) Use the Broslow tape.

C) Stimulate the child gently in case he or she is a victim of shaken baby syndrome.

D) Use the universal Glasgow Coma Scale for all ages.

Q2) Trauma to the chest area is the primary cause of death in approximately 25% of trauma victims.Involvement of the heart,great vessels,lungs,and diaphragm,attributable to penetrating or blunt injury,can provide multiple unexpected findings when the chest is opened.Because of the nature of the potential findings and expected surgical intervention,what would be an appropriate preparatory nursing action?

A) Set up the autotransfusion system and resuscitation equipment.

B) Prepare the rapid response team and chaplain to be on alert.

C) Call for the small fragment set for rib fracture fixation at closure.

D) Prep the patient from the xiphoid to mid-thigh.

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29

Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40578

Sample Questions

Q1) Karen Trainor is a perioperative nurse working in the interventional radiology suite as a sedation nurse.She is preparing to provide moderate procedural sedation to Aron Whitten,an ASA class III 52-year-old man,for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).The radiologist will probably order midazolam and fentanyl for the patient.Karen has assessed the patient's health history,allergies,baseline vital signs,and lab results and has performed an airway assessment.Because Aron will be positioned on his anterolateral left side,he may inadvertently tilt more to the left,which can impede his airway.Karen is preparing for any airway emergency.What measures will she employ as a risk reduction strategy to prepare for extreme airway management?

A) Have available the bag-valve-mask ventilation equipment with oxygen.

B) Have reversal agents for benzodiazepines and narcotics available,drawn up and labeled.

C) Predocument default segments in the electronic record before the procedure.

D) Prelabel all specimen containers to save time and prevent inattention to the patient.

E) Check the airway cart for a laryngeal mask airway sized to fit Aron.

F)Have the phone number available for the rapid response team and anesthesia support.

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Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40579

Sample Questions

Q1) Trina Gasterson,a 7-year-old girl recovering from a successful kidney transplant,is visited by her perioperative nurse on her day of discharge.While they conversed,Trina's mother opened a bottle of herbal supplement tablets from a local nutrition and dietary supplement store,whose label the nurse recognized.The mother proceeded to offer the supplement to Trina,but the nurse intervened and questioned the mother about the supplement.After reading the label,the nurse explained that the tablets could have an adverse interaction with Trina's immunosuppressive drugs that she must take to prevent transplant rejection.What herbal supplement was in the bottle?

A) Astragalus,licorice,and echinacea

B) Feverfew and valerian

C) St.John's wort and gingko

D) Goldenseal and chamomile

Q2) What therapeutic and healing therapy can the patient use throughout the perioperative experience (e.g.,preoperative,intraoperative,and postoperative phases)?

A) Biofield therapy with transcutaneous electrodes

B) Music therapy with headphones

C) Aromatherapy with saturated cotton balls in a net bag

D) Warmed herbal packs placed on the neck and chest

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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40580

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

A) To recommend exposure limits of all chemicals in the workplace over a working lifetime

B) To inform all employees of the presence,characteristics,handling,and risks of chemicals in the workplace

C) To provide a structured design for inservices and skill stations on hazardous chemical safety

D) To promote the development of manuals and log books for The Joint Commission survey

Q2) Which of the following may be a consequence of high-dose or full-body radiation?

A) Radiation poisoning,heart disease,stroke,and death

B) Nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and weakness

C) Cancer and mental retardation in children of mothers exposed during pregnancy

D) All of the options are possible consequences of high-dose or full-body radiation

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