Clinical Skills in Surgery
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Clinical Skills in Surgery equips students with essential practical competencies needed in the surgical field. The course emphasizes the development of hands-on skills such as aseptic techniques, wound closure, suturing, basic operative procedures, and the use of surgical instruments. Through simulated and supervised clinical experiences, students learn patient assessment, preoperative and postoperative care, and intraoperative assistance. Communication, teamwork, and ethical considerations in surgical practice are also integrated, fostering both technical proficiency and professional conduct essential for clinical excellence in surgical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110 Page 2
Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) Prevention of which of the following is the MAIN reason for performing surgical sponge, sharps, and instrument counts?
A)stock/supply depletion
B)accidental disposal in trash or linen
C)retained foreign objects in patient
D)revenue loss from non-charged items
Answer: C
Q2) Entry level surgical technologists can fill which of the following roles:
A)Scrub surgical technologist
B)Circulating surgical technologist
C)Second assisting surgical technologist
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) How many phases of patient care constitute surgical case management? A)2
D)5
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42049
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that best reflects the functional components of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
A)The GI tract is a continuous pathway from mouth to rectum.
B)Peristaltic waveforms produce agitation, which digests large food particles.
C)The alimentary canal extends from the mouth to the anus.
D)The microscopic ecosystem of the GI tract is an unbalanced colony of germs.
Answer: C
Q2) Michael Mason has suffered from subsacral pain and swelling for 2 weeks and finally was referred to a colorectal surgeon for care. He is currently in the ambulatory surgical center OR bed positioned in the jackknife position. The perioperative nurse has gently but firmly taped his buttocks laterally to the rails of the OR bed to promote exposure to the surgical site. What procedure is Michael prepared to undergo, based on his symptoms and the surgical preparation?
A)Internal hemorrhoidectomy
B)External hemorrhoidectomy
C)Removal of rectal foreign body
D)Pilonidal cystectomy
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42050
Sample Questions
Q1) While the pancreas' function is carbohydrate metabolism with the production of insulin and digestive enzymes, the spleen's function is primarily ___________ with the production of _______________.
A)immunologic; leukocytes
B)metabolic; granulocytes
C)anabolic; plasma cells
D)as a blood reservoir; phagocytes
Answer: A
Q2) The Whipple procedure is the removal of the head of the pancreas, the entire duodenum, a portion of the jejunum, the distal third of the stomach, and the ____________ as a surgical treatment for____________.
A)left lobe of the liver; metastatic hepatocytoma
B)distal segment of the spleen; pancreatic metastasis
C)inferior margin of the ligament of Treitz; pancreatic cancer
D)lower half of the common bile duct; pancreatic cancer
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morris Bettelman, an 86-year-old retired plumber, states that he has suffered from a groin hernia all of his adult life; he states, "as far back as I can remember." Sometimes he has to push the bulge back into his abdominal muscle and then he is fine until he has a coughing spell. This morning the bulge was large and tender when he woke up and he could not reduce it. As the pain increased, he felt weak and nauseous. His daughter took him to the emergency department. Morris was diagnosed with a strangulated incarcerated hernia and scheduled for emergency surgery. If the contents of Morris' hernia sac become compromised, with strangulation of the bowel, the probable label on his surgical specimen will be:
A)compromised bowel.
B)strangulated bowel.
C)necrotic bowel.
D)intestinal obstruction.
Q2) The mesh-plug open hernia repair technique is indicated for which type(s) of hernias?
A)Femoral hernias
B)Indirect inguinal hernias
C)Direct inguinal hernias
D)All of the options are correct
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Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Miranda Cox returned to her gynecologist's office for a second Pap smear when her routine exam showed dysplastic cells in her cervical cytology test. Miranda has a family history of cervical cancer and had laser ablation within the last 2 years for vulvar condylomata. She can expect her gynecologist to perform another Pap smear and:
A)colposcopy with endocervical biopsy.
B)hysteroscopy with cervical biopsy and frozen section.
C)colposcopy with cervical skinning procedure performed using a local anesthetic.
D)second-look vaginal exam with cervical Pap smear.
Q2) From the list below, select the statement that is true about fallopian tube cancer.
A)Fallopian tube cancer metastasizes to the ovaries and cervix.
B)Fallopian tube cancer is fast-growing in women with genital herpes.
C)Fallopian tube cancer is very rare, with an incidence of less than 1%.
D)Fallopian tube cancer is seen primarily as a metastasis from the small intestine.
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate, which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A)Systemic disease
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Post-treatment cancer in remission
D)Active cancer
Q2) An orthotopic neobladder is surgically created as a bladder substitute after a cystectomy, prostatectomy, or hysterectomy is performed for bladder cancer. Bladder substitution relies on meticulous dissection with preservation of the urinary sphincter and neurovascular bundles, as well as a watertight urethral anastomosis. Also termed the "Le Bag continent diversion," what segments of the bowel and/or small intestine are used in this technique to create the neobladder?
A)Segment of sigmoid colon
B)Right colon and ileum
C)Proximal right colon segment with cecum
D)Transverse colon
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8
Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pamela Morris is a 62-year-old woman with a 4-year history of Graves' disease that has not responded to medical therapy. She is scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy. What condition, a complication of Graves' disease, is her probable indication for a subtotal thyroidectomy?
A)Tracheal obstruction
B)Diffuse unilateral enlargement of a lobe
C)Hyperthyroidism with cricothyroid compression
D)Autoimmune hypothyroidism
Q2) Open parathyroidectomy is currently being replaced with less invasive and more targeted techniques; however, the amount of parathyroid tissue that should be removed remains controversial and relates to whether single or multiple glands are involved. A portion of a gland must remain to:
A)prevent hypocalcemia and its complications.
B)serve as a marker for later surgery should the gland fail to produce PTH.
C)regenerate into normal parathyroid tissue.
D)maintain the patient in a state of hypercalcemia to compensate for the lost glands.
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Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42055
Sample Questions
Q1) Ductal ectasia is a benign breast disorder that is difficult to distinguish from cancer, primarily because it presents with:
A)bilateral tenderness, mottled skin patterns of the breast, and fullness.
B)bilateral multicentric nodules and nipple discharge.
C)mottled skin patterns of the breast and edema.
D)a hard and irregular mass, nipple discharge, and enlarged axillary nodes.
Q2) Talia Mendelson, a 27-year-old patient who had a lumpectomy for early-onset breast cancer, arrived at the ambulatory surgery center for infusion port insertion. She is scheduled to begin adjuvant chemotherapy next week. The catheter component of Talia's port system is inserted into what structure(s)?
A)Left mammary or subclavian vein
B)Right atrium by way of the jugular vein
C)Subclavian or jugular vein
D)Inferior vena cava
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Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical technologist prepares a sterile treatment set-up for the surgeon to use before the DCR operative procedure is started. Select the statement that describes the justification for this sterile treatment set-up.
A)The surgeon will cut and mold the nasal splint to size before the nose becomes edematous.
B)The silastic tubing needs to be cut to size and soaked during the procedure.
C)The skin markings, with methylene blue, are done on clean skin before the skin prep.
D)The nasal cavity is anesthetized with cocaine and a local anesthetic is administered.
Q2) Select the true statement about dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR).
A)A DCR is performed for chronic or recurrent dacryocystitis, which is also called epiphora.
B)A dacrolithotripsy is attempted if the DCR is unsuccessful.
C)DCR establishes a new passageway for tear drainage into the nasal cavity.
D)The passageway is usually restored with the use of ultrasonic lacrimal probes.
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Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42057
Sample Questions
Q1) The external ear canal lining is protected and lubricated with cerumen (earwax), which traps foreign material and:
A)liquefies foreign matter in the ear canal.
B)lubricates the external ear.
C)maintains the acidic pH in the ear canal.
D)reduces bacterial levels in the outer ear.
Q2) The palatine and lingual tonsils are situated in the oropharynx, while the adenoids are located in the nasopharynx. Both adenoids and tonsils consist of:
A)lymphoid tissue.
B)glandular tissue.
C)vascular tissue.
D)mucosal tissue.
Q3) Both ears provide stereophonic hearing that gives us very specific hearing capabilities. Binaural hearing makes it possible for:
A)determination of the source location of sounds.
B)enhanced voice recognition.
C)amplification and resolution of sound properties.
D)recognition of more than one sound at a time.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42058
Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin network formation
Q2) A long bone fracture in a child can have devastating consequences in terms of the child's skeletal maturity and potential for limb shortening and malformation when the fracture line involves the:
A)epiphysis.
B)diaphysis.
C)epiphyseal plate.
D)cancellous bone.
Q3) A cancellous bone graft consists of spongy bone usually taken from the anterior or posterior crest of the ilium. A cortical bone graft, consisting of hard, dense bone, is removed from the crest of the ilium or the tibia. Why is the ilium a desirable site for graft harvest? Select all responses from the list below that apply.
A)It is subcutaneous, making it easily exposed without difficulty.
B)It is not a weight-bearing joint.
C)It is not an articulating joint.
D)It has both cortical and cancellous bone.
E)There are two, one on each lateral side.f. It has both allograft and autograft bone.
Q4) Remodeling
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42059
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the tissue most often responsible for spinal nerve root compression in patients with herniated intervertebral disks?
A)Annulus fibrosis
B)Nucleus pulposus
C)Posterior longitudinal ligament
D)Spinous process
Q2) Which of the 12 cranial nerves is involved in Bell's palsy and may be damaged during parotidectomy procedures?
A)Third (III)
B)Fifth (V)
C)Seventh (VII)
D)Twelfth (XII)
Q3) Which surgical specialist might be asked to assist in providing exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy (TSH) procedure?
A)Cardiothoracic surgeon
B)Neuroradiologist
C)Orthopedic surgeon
D)Otorhinolaryngologist
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14
Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replantation is an attempt to reattach a completely amputated digit or other body part. Revascularization is the procedure performed on incomplete amputations, when the part remains attached to the body by skin, artery, vein, or nerve. Good candidates for replantation are those with the following amputations:
A)almost any body part of a child.
B)proximal portion of the hand at palm level.
C)distal to middle foot.
D)distal to middle thigh.
Q2) Facial fractures are classified according to a system developed by Rene Le Fort in the early 1900s. A fracture that starts at the nasal bones, crosses the frontal process of the maxilla and lacrimal bones, and extends through the orbital floor, infraorbital rim, and lateral maxillary sinus wall is known as a:
A)Le Fort I.
B)Le Fort II.
C)Le Fort III.
D)Le Fort IV.
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Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a true statement about TNM and staging diagnostic classification for lung cancer is:
A)the staging system is based on the TNM classification system.
B)the TNM system is based on the staging classification.
C)nodal involvement refers to a second primary lung cancer tumor.
D)a patient with T1, N0, M0 has a benign tumor.
Q2) The indications for single-lung transplantation (SLT) include restrictive lung disease, emphysema, pulmonary hypertension, and other nonseptic end-stage pulmonary diseases, while the indications for double-lung transplantation (DLT) include patients with:
A)bilateral early-stage sarcoma without systemic disease.
B)bilateral chronic infection causing end-stage renal failure.
C)cystic fibrosis in end-stage pulmonary failure.
D)bilateral disease, recent ex-smoker with a suitable living-related donor.
Q3) Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS) is an alternative surgical treatment for patients with which pulmonary condition?
A)Chronic pulmonary asthma with oxygen needed to keep saturation at 90%
B)Acute unilateral pulmonary emphysema
C)Severe bilateral heterogeneous or homogeneous emphysema
D)Unsuccessful or failed laser surgery for giant lung bulla
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Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42062
Sample Questions
Q1) What properties enable arteries to compensate for changes in blood pressure and blood volume?
A)Regeneration and thick muscularis
B)Dilatation and absence of valves
C)Contraction and constriction
D)Elasticity and distensibility
Q2) The Doppler transducer is the most widely used instrument for vascular study. What statement regarding a Doppler is true?
A)Doppler probes are expensive but can be steam sterilized.
B)The Doppler probe can provide five different forms of information.
C)Water-soluble gel is needed when the Doppler is used on intact skin.
D)The Doppler is valuable in detecting accurate findings in the presence of stenosis.
Q3) What drug is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A)Prostigmine
B)Protonics hydrochloride
C)Protamine sulfate
D)Prothrombin
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42063
Sample Questions
Q1) Surgery for atrial fibrillation (AF) may also be performed through an open sternotomy or right mini-thoracotomy incisions. By creating small areas of scar tissue in the cardiac muscle, electrical impulses are forced to follow an alternative conduction path or "maze." Select all the statements for the maze procedure that are true.
A)Monitor for heart rhythm problems.
B)Infuse cardioplegic solution through the aortic root and into the coronary arteries.
C)Monitor for bleeding, infection, and potential complications related to heart surgery.
D)Strip the chest tubes and test the pacing wires every 4 hours postoperatively.
Q2) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply from the options listed below.
A)Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B)Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C)All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D)All vascular clamps have similar angles, box locks, ring handles, and ratchets.
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Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42064
Sample Questions
Q1) A child's comprehension of, and responses to, the environment are based on his or her developmental age. The works of Drs. Jean Piaget and Erik Erikson provide excellent guidelines for assessing the pediatric patient's developmental level in order to use appropriate interventions. The infant develops the belief that the world can be counted on to meet basic needs through the trust vs. mistrust concept based on the stages of psychosocial and emotional needs. This theoretical framework of stages was described by ______________, while the stages based on changes in cognition and ability to think were described by _____________.
A)Dr. Erick Erikson; Dr. Jean Piaget
B)Dr. Geoffery Barns; Dr. Jules Junger
C)This statement is a combined consensus of both of their theories.
D)Neither theory is represented by this statement.
Q2) Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone), which can be induced by:
A)painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.
B)anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent.
C)environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light.
D)thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42065
Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding level I and level II trauma centers best describes the difference between the two types of centers?
A)A level I trauma center is staffed 24 hours/7 days, while a level II has many support services that are open and staffed 8 hours/5 days.
B)A level I trauma center has a transplant program, while a level II is only able to complete organ procurements.
C)A level I trauma center provides care for every type of injury, while a level II lacks some specialized resources.
D)A level I trauma center requires trauma certification and 8 hours of annual trauma education for all staff, while a level II does not.
Q2) Blunt trauma injuries may not fully reveal the degree or depth of injury. What noninvasive diagnostic test is critical to diagnosis in potential traumatic brain injury?
A)Pupil reflex and response to light
B)Skull radiograph
C)CT scan of the head
D)Neurovascular arteriography
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Page 20