Clinical Respiratory Medicine
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Clinical Respiratory Medicine is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with an in-depth understanding of the pathophysiology, diagnosis, and management of respiratory diseases. Covering topics such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), interstitial lung diseases, pulmonary infections, and respiratory failure, the course integrates clinical case discussions, diagnostic approaches including imaging and pulmonary function tests, and current therapeutic strategies. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient assessment, and multidisciplinary care, preparing students for effective clinical decision-making in both acute and chronic respiratory conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Respiratory Disease A Case Study Approach to Patient Care 3rd Edition by James R. Dexter
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20 Chapters
484 Verified Questions
484 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3793
2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Patient Assessment
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75737
Sample Questions
Q1) The pulse oximeter may not be reliable in which of the following conditions?
A)Poor circulation
B)Carbon monoxide poisoning
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is least likely to cause a patient to cough?
A)Pericarditis
B)Inhalation of cigarette smoke
C)Infection of the bronchi
D)Pleural inflammation
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following disorders is most likely to cause ventilatory failure and respiratory acidosis?
A)Pulmonary fibrosis
B)Lobar pneumonia
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Neuromuscular disease
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Introduction to Respiratory Failure
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are monitoring a patient during mechanical ventilation and the peak pressure is reaching 55 cm H<sub>2</sub>0.What problem does this potentially cause?
A)Barotrauma
B)Renal failure
C)Hypertension
D)Auto-PEEP
Answer: A
Q2) Your patient is being weaned using IMV.He appears to be tolerating the wean,but labors during the spontaneous breaths because the endotracheal tube is probably too small.What could be done to overcome this problem?
A)Increase the tidal volume during IMV breaths
B)Add pressure support
C)Increase the flow rate during the IMV breaths
D)Give the patient a mild sedative
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Asthma
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adult patients with chronic asthma are at greater risk for developing what condition?
A)ARDS
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)COPD
D)Lung cancer
Answer: C
Q2) What is indicated by a paradoxical breathing pattern during an acute asthma attack?
A)Severe hypoxia
B)Severe hypercapnia
C)Diaphragm fatigue
D)Pneumothorax
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with provoking an asthma attack?
A)Aspirin use
B)Exercise
C)Viral respiratory infection
D)Use of Atropine to increase heart rate
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common source of noxious fumes and inhaled particles associated with the cause of COPD?
A)Smog
B)Smoking
C)Occupational dusts
D)Indoor pollutants
Q2) Which of the following physical examination findings is least associated with an acute exacerbation of COPD?
A)Abnormal sensorium
B)Heart rate = 124/min
C)Respiratory rate = 14/min
D)None of the above
Q3) COPD patients with cor pulmonale typically have which of the following physical examination findings?
A)JVD
B)Hepatomegaly
C)Pedal edema
D)All the above
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6
Chapter 5: Cystic Fibrosis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the chances that a couple will have a child with cystic fibrosis if both parents are carriers of the gene?
A)1:2
B)1:4
C)1:8
D)1:16
Q2) Which of the following upper airway problems is common in patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Nasal polyps
B)Sinusitis
C)Deviated septum
D)A and B only
Q3) Common pulmonary problems associated with cystic fibrosis include all the following except:
A)Bronchiectasis
B)Pneumonia
C)Bronchial hyperactivity
D)Pleural effusion
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Chapter 6: Hemodynamic Monitoring and Shock
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hemodynamic monitoring result is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?
A)CVP = 2 mmHg
B)Cardiac output = 5 L/min
C)PCWP = 20 mmHg
D)Mean blood pressure = 85 mmHg
Q2) What percent of patients who have a myocardial infarction develop cardiogenic shock?
A)Less than 10%
B)About 25%
C)About 50%
D)About 75%
Q3) Your patient has a history of heart failure and now has a CVP of 10 mmHg and a PCWP of 21 mmHg.Which of the following therapies is most likely needed?
A)Inderal
B)Lasix
C)CPAP
D)Intubation
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Chapter 7: Pulmonary Thromboembolic Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors is considered a risk factor for deep venous thrombi?
A)Obesity
B)Use of estrogen-containing drugs
C)Postpartum status
D)All the above
Q2) When is thrombolytic therapy most useful?
A)During the first five days after clot formation
B)Only during the first 12 hours after clot formation
C)One week after clot formation
D)None of the above
Q3) Your patient has a fairly large pulmonary thromboembolism.What physical exam finding(s)is/are expected?
A)Loud P2
B)Jugular venous distention
C)Hypotension
D)All the above
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Chapter 8: Heart Failure
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary ways in which edema forms from leakage of fluid out of the capillaries?
A)Increased capillary permeability
B)Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
C)Increased blood protein concentrations
D)Lymphatic obstruction
Q2) What is the primary electrolyte and fluid balance problem associated with heart failure that results in reduced renal perfusion?
A)Potassium retention and excessive water elimination
B)Potassium loss and water retention
C)Sodium loss and water elimination
D)Sodium retention and water retention
Q3) Which of the following findings on the chest radiograph suggests a more severe case of congestive heart failure?
A)Pleural effusions
B)Kerley A and B lines
C)Widening of the pulmonary arteries
D)Interstitial edema
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Chapter 9: Smoke Inhalation Injury and Burns
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What poisonous gas is emitted when products made of nylon burn?
A)Hydrogen sulfite
B)Hydrogen cyanide
C)Chlorine
D)Sodium sulfate
Q2) About how many people die each year in the United States due to fire injuries?
A)1,000
B)4,000
C)10,000
D)15,000
Q3) Most burn patients become colonized with which of these bacteria within a week of admission?
A)Serratia marscescens
B)Bacillus cereus
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Eikenella corrodens
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Chapter 10: Near Drowning
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing CPR on a drowning victim and no pulse or spontaneous breathing has returned.Beyond what time does the prognosis decrease significantly if the CPR is not successful?
A)10 minutes
B)15 minutes
C)20 minutes
D)25 minutes
Q2) What is the key to reducing the number of drowning victims in the future?
A)Better CPR training
B)Reducing the number of pools and spas
C)Prevention
D)Providing defibrillators at public pools
Q3) What minimum Glasgow Coma Scale score is associated with a low risk for neurologic damage and mortality?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
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Chapter 11: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding "permissive hypercapnia" in managing your ARDS patients?
A)Volumes should be kept low,but pH kept >7.20
B)Use of volumes which keep plateau pressures <30 cm
C)PaCO<sub>2</sub> can be allowed to be as high as 100 mmHg as long as pH is corrected with NaHCO<sub>3</sub>-
D)Pressure-limited ventilation is acceptable in some,but not all cases
Q2) Which of the following is a common cause of acute lung injury?
A)Sepsis
B)Severe trauma
C)Aspiration
D)All the above
Q3) Which of the following measurements is obtainable only with a Swan-Ganz catheter?
A)PCWP
B)SaO<sub>2</sub>
C)CVP
D)None of the above (all are obtainable with a Swan-Ganz catheter)
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Chapter 12: Chest Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can result from blunt force injury to the larynx except:
A)Sudden airway occlusion from crushed larynx
B)Cricotracheal dislocation
C)Retropharyngeal perforation
D)Airway edema
Q2) Unilateral trauma to the lung or bronchi might necessitate which of these?
A)Double-sided chest tubes
B)Placing the patient in the lateral position with the involved side down
C)Independent lung ventilation with a double-lumen endotracheal tube
D)None of the above
Q3) Your chest trauma patient arrives in the emergency department wearing a cervical collar and is being assisted via a resuscitation bag.Which of the following steps would be least appropriate?
A)Nasotracheal intubation employing a bronchoscope
B)Attempt an orotracheal intubation by hyperextending the neck
C)Set up for a cricothyrotomy
D)Place an oropharyngeal airway
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Chapter 13: Postoperative Atelectasis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the fully awake and cooperative patient,what lung inflation technique may be best for treating and preventing postoperative atelectasis?
A)IPPB
B)Deep breathing and coughing
C)PEP therapy
D)CPAP by mask
Q2) Which of the following increases in proportion to the amount of the lung involved in the atelectasis?
A)Heart rate
B)Respiratory rate
C)P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
D)Body temperature
Q3) What therapy is often very effective in treating lobar atelectasis in the postoperative patient?
A)A short,vigorous course of chest physical therapy
B)IPPB
C)CPAP with humidity therapy
D)Simulated coughing
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15
Chapter 14: Interstitial Lung Disease
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What may be the earliest evidence on a standard pulmonary function test of the presence of ILD?
A)Abnormal DLCO
B)Decreased FEV1/FVC
C)Widened P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
D)Increased shunt
Q2) Which type of cell is responsible for most of the alveolar lining?
A)Alveolar macrophage
B)Type I cell
C)Type II cell
D)Clara cell
Q3) Nitroturantoin,a well-known cause of ILD,belongs to which class of drugs?
A)Antibiotics
B)Chemotherapeutics
C)Anti-inflammatory
D)Cardiovascular
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16
Chapter 15: Neuromuscular Diseases
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these specific treatment modalities is NOT used to treat Guillain-Barré syndrome patients?
A)Plasmapheresis
B)Anticholinesterase drug
C)Mechanical ventilation
D)NIPPV
Q2) What type of sleep apnea may play a role in sudden infant death syndrome?
A)Central
B)Obstructive
C)Both A and B
D)Mixed
Q3) What breathing pattern is seen in patients with acute neuromuscular disease that weakens the muscles of breathing?
A)Deep and fast
B)Rapid and shallow
C)Slow and deep
D)Slow and shallow
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17
Chapter 16: Bacterial Pneumonia
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram staining allows the patient to
A)"Fine tune" antibiotic therapy to treat a specific organism
B)Provide the CDC statistical research data
C)Identify the more virulent strains of pseudomonas
D)None of the above
Q2) What is the significance of increased immature WBCs (bands)in the peripheral blood?
A)Bacterial infection stimulates the bone marrow
B)Worsening infection may necessitate younger "soldiers"
C)A and B are correct
D)Significant only if all other blood cell types are elevated
Q3) Which of these is not a pathway for organisms to enter the lungs in the adult?
A)Aspiration
B)From the blood
C)Inhalation
D)From the lymphatic system
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18
Chapter 17: Pneumonia in the Immunocompromised Patient
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do polymorphonuclear cells originate?
A)Spleen
B)Thymus
C)Lymph nodes
D)Bone marrow
Q2) Which antibody goes on to be the major one fighting an infection?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common opportunistic pulmonary infection seen in a patient with a compromised immune system?
A)P.jaroveci
B)Mycobacterium avium complex
C)Candida albicans
D)Streptococcal pneumoniae
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Chapter 18: Sleep Disordered Breathing
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of obstructive sleep apnea?
A)Small lower jaw
B)Large tonsils
C)Large tongue
D)Obesity
Q2) All the following are monitored during a sleep study except:
A)EEG
B)ECG
C)Venous oxygen saturations
D)Pulse oximetry
Q3) What term is also used to describe stage III and IV NREM sleep?
A)Slow-wave sleep
B)K-wave sleep
C)Low-voltage sleep
D)Beta sleep
Q4) What is the goal of surgery in patients with obstructive sleep apnea?
A)Bypass the obstruction
B)Widen the airway
C)Increase the upper airway muscle tone
D)A and B only
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Tuberculosis
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common abnormality seen on the chest x-ray of the patient with primary TB?
A)Cavitation in the lower lobes
B)Dense consolidation in the upper lobes
C)Hilar lymph node enlargement
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the use of laboratory data in the evaluation of a patient with TB?
A)The WBC count is usually elevated
B)A mild anemia is seen in chronic TB
C)Immature white cell counts usually decrease with TB
D)An anion gap is often seen
Q3) Your patient is 32 years old and has a positive skin test but no active TB.What treatment would you recommend?
A)Repeat the skin test in 6 months
B)Perform a sputum culture
C)A low dose of prednisone for 6 weeks
D)A 6-9 month course of isoniazid
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Chapter 20: Lung Cancer
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hoarseness in your lung cancer patient may lead you to suspect what?
A)Acute bronchitis
B)Subglottic edema
C)Vocal cord paralysis
D)Acid-reflux disease
Q2) The clinical presentation of lung cancer depends on all of these except:
A)Cell type and growth rate
B)Location within lung
C)Immune status of patient
D)If the patient consumed filtered cigarettes
Q3) What is the primary treatment for small-cell carcinoma?
A)Surgery
B)Radiation
C)Chemotherapy
D)No therapy
Q4) Which of these are common sites for extrathoracic spread?
A)Brain and spinal cord
B)Bone marrow
C)Liver
D)All the above
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