Clinical Radiography Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Radiography is a course designed to equip students with the practical knowledge and technical skills required for the production and interpretation of diagnostic radiographic images. Emphasizing patient safety, radiation protection, and ethical practice, the course covers a range of imaging techniques including conventional X-rays, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and digital imaging systems. Students will learn about anatomical positioning, image acquisition, quality control, contrast media, and the identification of normal and pathological findings. Practical sessions, case studies, and clinical placements are integral to developing the competence necessary for effective communication with healthcare teams and delivering high-quality patient care in a dynamic clinical environment.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The controlling factors for magnification are:
A) density and contrast.
B) object-to-image receptor distance (OID) and source-to-image receptor distance (SID).
C) central ray angle and central ray alignment.
D) part/image receptor alignment and SID.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following devices are considered IRs?
1)Television monitor
2)Computed radiography image plate
3)Cassette with film
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is required to maintain an even radiographic density on body parts that have significant variations in tissue density?
A) Increase the kVp.
B) Increase the mA.
C) Use a compensating filter.
D) Use a compression device.
Answer: C
Q2) The Boomerang filter would provide an even image density for which body area?
A) Hip
B) Chest
C) Shoulder
D) C7-T1 region
Answer: C
Q3) The simplest and most common shape of compensating filter is the:
A) wedge.
B) trough.
C) double-wedge.
D) Boomerang.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rounded process at an articular extremity is called a:
A) condyle.
B) malleolus.
C) tubercle.
D) styloid.
Answer: A
Q2) For which type of body habitus will the lungs be very short and wide?
A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Hyposthenic
Answer: C
Q3) The jugular notch is located at the level of:
A) T2-T3.
B) T4-T5.
C) L2-L3.
D) L4-L5.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many phalanges are there in the hand?
A) 14
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
Q2) Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
A) AP, acute flexion
B) AP, partial flexion
C) AP oblique, medial rotation
D) AP oblique, lateral rotation
Q3) How many degrees is the hand rotated for a PA oblique projection of the digit?
A) 25
B) 40
C) 45
D) 40 to 45
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the clavicle when performed on a patient in the supine position is _____ degrees.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 15 to 25
D) 15 to 30
Q2) For an AP projection of the shoulder, the central ray should be directed:
A) 15 degrees.
B) 30 degrees.
C) 15 to 30 degrees.
D) perpendicular to the IR.
Q3) Which of the following structures is projected in lateral profile on a PA oblique (scapular Y) projection?
A) Humerus
B) Scapula
C) Clavicle
D) Acromion
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central-ray angle for an AP, bilateral weight-bearing knee is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 5 to 7 degrees cephalad.
C) 5 to 7 degrees caudad.
D) dependent upon the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement.
Q2) How far should the knee be flexed for the tangential projection (Settegast method) of the patella when done in the prone position?
1)50 to 60 degrees from the table
2)As much as possible
3)Until the patella is perpendicular
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The circular fibrocartilage disks or pads that lie on the tibial plateaus are called the:
A) bursae.
B) menisci.
C) articular cartilages.
D) articular capsules.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods demonstrate the hip in an axiolateral projection?
A) Chassard-Lapiné
B) Modified Cleaves
C) Danelius-Miller
D) Lauenstein, Hickey
Q2) The body is placed at what angle for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?
A) 45 degrees
B) 50 degrees
C) 40 to 50 degrees
D) 45 to 60 degrees
Q3) Which of the following devices are necessary to perform an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)?
1)Sandbags
2)Leg support device
3)Vertical IR holder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much is the body rotated from the lateral position to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic region?
A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 15 to 20 degrees
D) 70 to 75 degrees
Q2) How many true, or movable, vertebrae are there in the vertebral column?
A) 7
B) 12
C) 24
D) 33
Q3) The part of the lamina that lies between the superior and inferior articular processes on a typical lumbar vertebra is called the:
A) transverse process.
B) pars interarticularis.
C) accessory process.
D) mammillary process.
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the lowest position in the body?
A) Obese
B) Hyposthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Emaciated
Q2) What is the respiration phase for a lateral projection of the sternum?
A) Deep expiration
B) Deep inspiration
C) Slow, shallow breathing
D) Long, deep breathing
Q3) How is the head positioned for a PA projection of both sternoclavicular articulations?
A) On the left side
B) On the right side
C) With the forehead and nose on the table
D) With the midsagittal plane vertical
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11
Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are a part of the mediastinum?
1)Lungs
2)Heart
3)Esophagus
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Why is the left lateral chest position the most commonly used for lateral radiographs of the chest?
A) Less chance of body rotation
B) Patient's heart is closer to the IR
C) There is greater magnification of the heart
D) Easier to visualize interlobar fissures
Q3) What is the patient position for a lateral projection done in the dorsal decubitus position?
A) Seated
B) Standing
C) Prone
D) Supine
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Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Q1) Which landmark is used to localize the shoulder joint for upper limb long bone measurement?
A) Superior margin of the humeral head
B) Medial margin of the glenoid fossa
C) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
D) 2 inches inferior and medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder
Q2) What projection is used for long bone measurement radiographs?
A) PA
B) AP
C) Lateral
D) Variable depending on body habitus
Q3) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Q1) Which of the following joints are most commonly examined by contrast arthrography?
1)Knee
2)Hip
3)Shoulder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
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Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging modality is often used to evaluate trauma to the abdomen?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) NM
D) Sonography
Q2) Signs of shock include all of the following except:
A) cool, clammy skin.
B) diaphoresis.
C) excessive thirst.
D) vomiting.
Q3) Which of the following procedures are appropriate for trauma patients?
1)Remove immobilization devices that may cause imaging artifacts.
2)Move tube and IR, instead of injured part, when possible.
3)Perform all AP projections, then all lateral projections.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which salivary glands are the largest?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual are equal in size.
Q2) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q3) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q4) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Q1) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
Q2) The organ of voice is the:
A) uvula.
B) epiglottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
Q3) For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the:
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) laryngeal prominence.
C) cricoid cartilage.
D) jugular notch.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) A properly exposed abdominal image will exhibit the:
1)psoas muscles.
2)lower border of the liver.
3)transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Where is the center of the IR positioned for a lateral projection of the abdomen performed with the patient in the dorsal decubitus position?
A) L3
B) At the iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) 2 inches below the iliac crests
Q3) The serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic walls is called the:
A) peritoneum.
B) mesentery.
C) omentum.
D) peritoneal cavity.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) A PA projection of the stomach and duodenum is often performed using a 14 * 17 inch (35 * 43 cm) IR. Which of the following describes the plane that is centered to the grid for this projection?
A) The midsagittal plane
B) A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column
C) A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column
D) A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the abdomen
Q2) At which level is the IR centered for an AP or PA oblique stomach and duodenum?
A) L1/L2
B) L2/L3
C) L3/L4
D) Iliac crests
Q3) The mucosa of the small intestine contains a series of fingerlike projections called: A) villi.
B) rugae.
C) haustra.
D) taeniae coli.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) IV medications are administered via the _____ system.
A) arterial
B) venous
C) lymphatic
D) arterial and venous
Q2) How is the central ray positioned to free the bladder neck of superimposition during a female cystourethrogram?
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees caudad
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 10 degrees cephalad
Q3) Functions of the kidney include:
1. removing waste products from the blood.
2. maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance.
3. secreting substances that affect blood pressure.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
Q2) Which of the following is a type of temporary intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)?
A) Essure
B) ParaGard
C) Insure
D) CerviGard
Q3) Measurement of the fetal head and pelvic outlet can be performed using which of the following?
1)Sonography
2)Hysterosalpingography
3)Pelvimetry (Colcher-Sussman method)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Q1) Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the image receptor for the acanthoparietal projection (reverse Waters method) of the facial bones?
A) Mentomeatal line
B) Infraorbitomeatal line
C) Acanthiomeatal line
D) Glabellomeatal line
Q2) The two ethmoidal sinuses are located within which bone?
A) Frontal
B) Ethmoid
C) Sphenoid
D) Maxillary
Q3) Which skull suture is found between the frontal and parietal bones?
A) Sagittal
B) Coronal
C) Squamosal
D) Lambdoidal
Q4) Which skull type is narrow from side to side?
A) Mesocephalic
B) Dolichocephalic
C) Brachycephalic
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Mammography
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Q1) Which of the following projections of the breast will best demonstrate "milk of calcium"?
A) Craniocaudal
B) Mediolateral
C) Mediolateral oblique
D) Lateromedial oblique
Q2) The mean glandular dose for a typical two-projection mammogram done using a screen/IR is _____ mrad.
A) 100
B) 320
C) 400
D) 450
Q3) For which projection of the breast is the AEC turned off?
A) CC with full implant
B) CC with displaced implant
C) All magnification projections
D) Mediolateral oblique
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Q1) Percutaneous vertebroplasty is done under fluoroscopy to:
A) stabilize fracture fragments.
B) restore the spine to a more normal curve.
C) reduce hunchback deformities.
D) locate vascular abnormalities.
Q2) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q3) Where is the contrast medium injected for a myelogram?
A) Brachial vein
B) Femoral artery
C) L1-L2 interspace
D) L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace
Q4) What is the imaging method of choice in diagnosing multiple sclerosis?
A) CR
B) CT
C) MRI
D) DSR
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The muscular wall of the heart is called the:
A) myocardium.
B) epicardium.
C) endocardium.
D) pericardium.
Q2) A stent is used to:
A) open up a stenosis in a vessel.
B) reduce or stop blood flow.
C) remove plaque within artery walls.
D) filter emboli from the blood.
Q3) The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas within a vessel is termed:
A) "gamma knife" therapy.
B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
C) interventional radiology.
D) transcatheter embolization.
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), commonly recognized signs of autism are:
1)difficulty with social interaction.
2)problems with verbal and nonverbal communication.
3)repetitive behaviors or narrow, obsessive interests.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in:
A) male infants.
B) adolescent females.
C) male toddlers.
D) utero, between 3 to 6 weeks' gestation.
Q3) Common reasons for performing skull radiography on a pediatric patient are:
A) craniosynostosis and fracture.
B) sinusitis and fracture.
C) craniosynostosis and meningomyelocele.
D) meningomyelocele and sinusitis.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following help with communications with geriatric patients?
A) Speaking lower and closer
B) Bright lighting in the exam room
C) Assistance in stepping down from the table
D) Allowing time for the patient to rest between positions
Q2) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The aging experience is individual and is affected by:
1)attitude.
2)lifestyle choices.
3)heredity.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q4) The preclinical stage of Alzheimer's disease may be asymptomatic, but evidence of this disease can often be detected on imaging.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer when entering a strict isolation room for a mobile radiography examination?
1)Mask
2)Gown
3)Gloves
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile radiography may not be less than _____ inches.
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 24
Q3) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by:
A) both sterile and nonsterile team members.
B) only nonsterile team members.
C) only sterile team members.
D) only the surgeon.
Q2) Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1)Anesthesia provider
2)Physician assistant
3)Radiographer
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Sterile gowns are considered sterile from shoulder to:
A) cuff on the arms.
B) level of sterile field.
C) waist.
D) knee.
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29
Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) CT detectors are most commonly _____ detectors.
A) ionization (xenon gas)
B) scintillation (solid-state)
C) thermoluminescent
D) phosphorescent
Q2) The CT system's ability to freeze any motion of a scanned object is termed:
A) detector quantum efficiency.
B) temporal resolution.
C) reconstruction algorithm.
D) spatial resolution.
Q3) Oral contrast for CT should be mixed so it is:
A) the same as for general diagnostic examinations.
B) more concentrated than for general examinations.
C) less concentrated than for general examinations.
D) contrast media is not necessary.
Q4) Fourth-generation CT scanners use the following configuration:
A) translate tube and rotating detectors.
B) rotating tube and detectors.
C) only rotating detectors.
D) only rotating tube.
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) Standard pulse sequences show blood flow with a _____ signal compared with surrounding tissues.
A) strong
B) low
C) bright
D) T2
Q2) A spin echo pulse sequence can provide which of the following weighted images?
1)T1
2)T2
3)Proton density
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Proton density helps determine signal strength; however, it cannot be used alone because of the:
A) rate at which excited protons release energy to the environment.
B) different chemical environments of the nuclei.
C) fact that most soft tissues have similar numbers of protons.
D) influence of surrounding nuclei.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) If an echo pattern is similar throughout a structure or mass it is termed:
A) heterogeneous.
B) homogeneous.
C) complex.
D) anechoic.
Q2) The propagation speed of sound in soft tissue is _____ m/s.
A) 150
B) 330
C) 1020
D) 1540
Q3) The velocity of an ultrasound beam is:
A) constant in speed.
B) constant for all solids.
C) determined by the density of material.
D) proportional to frequency cubed.
Q4) Ultrasonic sound waves are:
A) poorly transmitted by liquids.
B) poorly transmitted by solids.
C) reflected at tissue interfaces.
D) constant in speed.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) If only one photon is detected and no other photon is observed during the time window for an annihilation pair, then:
A) the original event is discarded.
B) only the one photon is recorded.
C) the computer estimates the probable location.
D) the examination must be repeated in an hour.
Q2) Positron-emitting radionuclides have a:
1)neutron-deficient nucleus.
2)proton-deficient nucleus.
3)similar size to electrons.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) SPECT imaging produces images that:
A) are similar to those done in CT.
B) will show only large lesions.
C) require increased amounts of radionuclides.
D) show only motion.
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Page 33
Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because:
A) the images need to look the same over time.
B) the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change.
C) that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable.
D) radiologists want the same positioning to read the images.
Q2) Radiation dose for DXA scans is:
A) twice as much as for a diagnostic lumbar x-ray.
B) half as much as for a lumbar CT examination.
C) similar to natural background radiation.
D) similar to a diagnostic hand x-ray.
Q3) Precision relates to the ability of the system to:
A) measure the true value of an object.
B) reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object.
C) reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software.
D) measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean.
Q4) The purpose of bone densitometry is to:
A) establish the diagnosis of osteoporosis.
B) assess the response to osteoporosis therapy.
C) measure bone mineral density.
D) do all of the above.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure.
A) Fractionation
B) Differentiation
C) Palliation
D) Conformal radiation
Q2) Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses:
A) radioactive isotopes.
B) multileaf collimators.
C) cerrobend blocks.
D) permanent implants.
Q3) Gamma knife is primarily used to treat small benign or malignant lesions located in the:
A) abdomen.
B) breast.
C) brain.
D) prostate.
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