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Clinical Psychology is a branch of psychology focused on assessing, diagnosing, and treating mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders across the lifespan. This course introduces students to the foundational theories, evidence-based practices, and therapeutic interventions used in clinical settings. Topics include psychological assessment, psychopathology, therapeutic modalities (such as cognitive-behavioral, psychodynamic, and humanistic approaches), as well as ethical and professional issues in clinical practice. Students will also explore the integration of research and clinical work, multicultural considerations, and the evolving role of clinical psychologists in diverse health care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 8th Edition by David H. Barlow
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Freudian theory, "libido" and "thanatos" represent the two basic but opposing drives of
A) life and death.
B) sex and celibacy.
C) good and evil.
D) pleasure and pain.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate statement about "stage" theories of development?
A) In Freudian theory, sexual arousal and interest occur during the latency stage.
B) In Erikson's theory, development occurs across the lifespan.
C) In Freudian theory, intrapsychic conflicts are resolved in early childhood.
D) In Fromm's theory, culture and society influence personality.
Answer: B
Q3) Give an example of a modern mass hysteria.
Answer: Answer will vary.All answers will tell of one person (or a few people) seriously impacted followed by others (more people) with mirroring concerns. One example is the panic that ensues after a sudden, loud noise in a crowded area the week after a major school shooting.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of the limbic system include control or regulation of A) basic body functions such as breathing.
B) sleep cycles.
C) emotional experiences, expressions, impulse control, and basic drives such as aggression, sex, hunger, and thirst.
D) body posture, coordinated movement, and involuntary responses such as reflexes and other automatic processes.
Answer: C
Q2) According to the diathesis-stress model, psychopathology is the result of the A) interaction between normal and defective or damaged genes.
B) stress level of an individual and how stress is managed in a person's life.
C) family history of an individual.
D) interaction of an inherited tendency and events in a person's life.
Answer: D
Q3) For most people, verbal and cognitive processes are usually controlled by the .
A) left hemisphere of the cortex
B) right hemisphere of the cortex
C) entire cortex
D) midbrain
Answer: A
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Q1) A procedure used to assess brain functioning much like a PET scan, but less accurate and using a different tracer substance, is ___________.
A) SQUID
B) SPECT
C) TCM
D) JCT
Answer: B
Q2) A classical categorical approach to diagnosis is
A) more useful in psychology than in medicine.
B) more useful in medicine than in psychology.
C) not appropriate in either medicine or psychology.
D) equally useful in medicine and psychology.
Answer: B
Q3) The MMPI is a notable measurement instrument because it
A) has been shown to be valid with a range of psychological problems.
B) relies on subjective interpretations of patterns.
C) is short and easy to administer.
D) is the oldest test measure developed.
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of treatment process research?
A) Examining the impact of Prozac on depression
B) Determining how many therapy sessions it takes for most anxiety patients to feel better
C) Examining the impact of Prozac on serotonin levels
D) Determining which treatment reduces patients' anxiety in the fewest number of sessions
Q2) Internal validity is defined as
A) the extent to which the results of a study can be explained by the dependent variable.
B) the degree to which the hypothesis is supported by the study.
C) the overall quality of the research.
D) the extent to which the results in a study can be explained by the independent variable.
Q3) In research, the term "clinical significance" refers to
A) whether the effects observed in the study are due to chance.
B) the external validity of the study.
C) whether the treatment was meaningful for those affected.
D) randomization of the sampling procedure.
Q4) Why is studying behavior across cultures important?
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Q1) The purpose of creating mini panic attacks in panic control treatment therapy is to A) allow the patient to develop alternative attitudes about the feared situation.
B) convince the patient that panic attacks are not real.
C) force the panic attacks into the unconscious.
D) help patients identify what makes them panic.
Q2) Research suggests that anxiety and depression frequently A) co-occur.
B) are totally separate disorders.
C) can occur in the same person, but not at the same time.
D) share no vulnerability.
Q3) "I've got to get out of here right now, or I may not make it!" This statement is most likely to be said by someone experiencing a(n)
A) episode of depression.
B) future-oriented mood state.
C) fear reaction.
D) parasympathetic "surge."
Q4) Define generalized anxiety disorder, and discuss how it differs from panic attacks.
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Q1) According to the autohypnotic model, people who are suggestible may be
A) able to create false memories to ease their trauma.
B) able to use dissociation as a defense against extreme trauma.
C) able to remember the trauma that created the false memories.
D) unable to switch at will.
Q2) Catharsis is
A) the process of placing a tube into the bladder to release urine.
B) a conscious behavioral process.
C) a purging of emotionally traumatic events.
D) none of these
Q3) Women are more likely than men to be diagnosed with Somatic Symptom Disorder. Why do you think that this is the case?
Q4) Studies of faking, amnesia, and hypnosis, such as the one conducted by Spanos (1996), suggest that symptoms of dissociative identity disorder
A) cannot be developed through therapist suggestion and reinforcement.
B) are almost always the result of hypnotically inserted (false) memories.
C) can be developed through therapist suggestion and reinforcement.
D) are almost never the result of therapist intervention.
Q5) Discuss the controversy surrounding false memories.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Overwhelming evidence suggests mood disorders are familial and reflect an underlying genetic vulnerability.
B) Studies are now beginning to identify a small group of genes that may contribute to genetic vulnerability to <sup>som</sup><sup>e</sup><sup> </sup><sup>type</sup><sup>s</sup><sup> </sup><sup>o</sup><sup>f</sup><sup> </sup><sup>depression.</sup>
C) The genetic contribution to depression falls in the range of approximately 40% for females and 20% for males.
D) All of the above
Q2) The antidepressant medication lithium is also referred to as a mood stabilizer because it
A) increases the availability of both dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain.
B) is less toxic than the SSRI medications.
C) helps to prevent manic episodes.
D) increases thyroid functioning, which results in improved mood stabilization.
Q3) What are the three indices for understanding suicidal behavior and why is it important to know them?
Q4) Discuss the relationship between depression and anxiety.
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Q1) Fred has been having a great deal of trouble initiating and maintaining sleep. He guesses that he is sleeping for an average of about 3 hours each night and complains that he feels terrible during the day. In addition, Fred has always experienced some anxiety but has recently felt a tremendous increase in his overall anxiety level. The existence of both a sleep disorder and anxiety
A) makes the diagnosis of primary insomnia incorrect.
B) increases our confidence that primary insomnia is the correct diagnosis. C) indicates that the insomnia is a result of the anxiety rather than a cause of the anxiety.
D) is extremely common since sleep problems can be both a cause and a result of anxiety.
Q2) As we grow older, it seems that the amount of sleep that we require . A) decreases B) increases C) stays the same
D) decreases until early adulthood and then begins to increase again
Q3) Describe primary insomnia and contrast it with hypersomnolence disorder and narcolepsy.
Q4) What is "sleep hygiene?" Give at least two examples.
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Q1) Research has shown that excessive secretion of the stress hormone cortisol can result in cell death in the hippocampal region of the brain in cases of .
A) substance abuse
B) mania
C) posttraumatic stress disorder
D) AIDS
Q2) Which of the following immune cells enhance immune system responses by signaling B cells to produce antibodies and signaling other T cells to destroy antigens?
A) B cells
B) Helper T cells
C) T suppressor cells
D) NK cells
Q3) A controlled research study investigating the effects of a cognitive-behavioral treatment for chronic fatigue syndrome resulted in improvement on A) measures of fatigue.
B) measures of illness belief.
C) both measures of fatigue and measures of illness belief.
D) neither measures of fatigue nor measures of illness belief.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent studies on sexual practice indicate that sexual practices are A) consistent in many different countries.
B) very different in Western and Asian countries.
C) inconsistent no matter where they are measured.
D) culturally diverse.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about gender nonconformity in children:
A) Gender nonconformity is common.
B) Gender nonconformity always leads to gender dysphoria.
C) Gender nonconformity can lead to negative social adjustment.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Explain the features of the treatment options (psychosocial and surgical sex reassignment) for gender identity disorder. Why is it so important for the patient to consider treatment options very carefully?
Q4) A paraphilic disorder is defined as A) a sexual dysfunction.
B) an attraction to inappropriate individuals or objects.
C) an attraction to machines.
D) a desire that dominates the personality.
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Q5) Describe and contrast male erectile disorder and female sexual arousal disorder with inhibited orgasmic disorders.
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Q1) Although AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) programs are considered effective, the drop-out rate for GA (Gambler's Anonymous) programs is .
A) 10 to 30%
B) 30 to 50%
C) 50 to 70%
D) 70 to 90%
Q2) According to Jellinek's model (no longer considered accurate but still of scientific interest), an individual with alcoholism progresses through four stages. Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes the characteristic behaviors associated with each of Jellinek's stages?
A) Prealcoholic stage - hangovers, DWI or DUI charges, blackouts
B) Prodromal stage - drinking heavily but few outward signs of problems
C) Chronic stage - primary daily activities involve drinking and getting drunk
D) Crucial stage - loss of control with occasional binges
Q3) Because of its impact on GABA receptors, alcohol neuronal communication. A) inhibits B) facilitates C) randomizes
D) eliminates

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Q1) When someone has a personality disorder,
A) the person may feel that they do not have a problem.
B) the person is always distressed by his/her disorder.
C) the disorder may come and go.
D) the disorder tends to start very suddenly.
Q2) Sally is chatty and makes friends easily because she goes up and introduces herself to others at lunch. Sally is showing which of the "Big Five" personality dimensions?
A) Extroversion
B) Agreeableness
C) Conscientiousness
D) Neuroticism
Q3) Which of the following prevention strategies looks promising for children who are at risk for later antisocial personality disorder?
A) A training program for parents of toddlers (ages 1½ to 2½ years)
B) A program for families with a high degree of family dysfunction
C) A program for families where at least one parent has a history of antisocial personality disorder
D) All of the above
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Q1) An integrated treatment approach to schizophrenia would include
A) collaborative psychopharmacology.
B) assertive community treatment.
C) family psychoeducation.
D) all of the above.
Q2) In the textbook case of Arthur, he said that he had a "secret plan to save all the starving children in the world." After Arthur showed other bizarre behavior and also said he was going to climb the fence of a government building, his parents tried to have him admitted to a psychiatric hospital. They were not able to do that because
A) he was not considered a danger to himself or others.
B) he was given medication instead to calm him down.
C) the hospital staff didn't believe his parents.
D) his behavior was due to a substance abuse problem.
Q3) What is the generic name of the antipsychotic medication Thorazine?
A) Haloperidol
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Clozapine
D) Risperidone
Q4) Discuss the psychotic disorders that can be diagnosed other than schizophrenia.
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Q1) Based on the research of Lovaas (1987), improvements in the intellectual and educational functioning of autistic children have been documented for intervention programs that
A) use a group therapy model.
B) provide multiple therapists.
C) meet for 40 hours or more per week.
D) are school based.
Q2) Current estimates (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2013) are that approximately children in the United States are being treated with stimulant medications.
A) 1 million
B) 4 million
C) 10 million
D) 14.5 million
Q3) People with ADHD that meet the criteria for inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity are labeled as the _____ subtype.
A) mixed
B) multiple
C) combined
D) most severe
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Q1) Grandpa is admitted to critical care during one of his delirium episodes. Approximately what is Grandpa's increased risk of mortality in the next year?
A) Twice the risk
B) 2.5 times the risk
C) 5% more risk
D) 25% more risk
Q2) Explain how neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is usually treated. Include information about medication and psychosocial therapies. How would you characterize the success of the currently available treatment options for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease?
Q3) Describe the differences and similarities between neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease and vascular neurocognitive disorder. Why it is not always possible to determine the actual cause of neurocognitive disorder while the patient is alive?
Q4) What is the prevalence of Alzheimer's Disease and why is it difficult to measure?
Q5) Describe delirium, its typical causes, and how it is treated.
Q6) How does a holistic psychosocial intervention best serve someone with a cognitive impairment?
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Q1) In the United States, people convicted of criminal behavior
A) always receive a prison sentence.
B) are always considered responsible for their behavior.
C) sometimes are not considered responsible for their behavior.
D) sometimes have been found incompetent to stand trial.
Q2) Which of the following psychological tests has been used to accurately identify malingering in people claiming to have posttraumatic stress disorder?
A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
B) Wechsler Adult Scale of Intelligence (WAIS)
C) Rorschach Malingering Detection Test (RMDT)
D) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Q3) Discuss the historical development of the insanity defense from the 1843 M'Naghten Rule in England to the findings of the American Law Institute in the 1960s.
Q4) The term "therapeutic jurisprudence" refers to using what we know about behavior change to
A) punish those who break the law.
B) help people in trouble with the law.
C) protect society from dangerous individuals.
D) provide therapy to incarcerated individuals.
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