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Clinical Psychology is the scientific study and application of psychological theories, methods, and principles to understand, assess, and treat individuals experiencing psychological distress and mental health issues. This course explores the assessment, diagnosis, and evidence-based interventions for a range of psychological disorders, while also addressing ethical considerations and the importance of cultural sensitivity in clinical practice. Students will learn about major therapeutic approaches, such as cognitive-behavioral, psychodynamic, and humanistic therapies, and will gain insight into the professional roles and responsibilities of clinical psychologists in various healthcare and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Behavior Modification Principles and Procedures 5th Edition by Raymond G. Miltenberger
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Q1) Watson started a movement in psychology known as:
A) psychoanalysis
B) experimental psychology
C) behaviorism
D) existentialism
Answer: C
Q2) A behavioral excess is defined as _______________________________________________.
Answer: too much of a particular behavior
Q3) Behavior is defined as _________________________________________________________.
Answer: what people say and do
Q4) Why does behavior modification focus on changing current environmental variables rather than past events to change behavior?
Answer: Although information of past events is useful, knowledge of current controlling variables will be most useful for developing effective behavior modification interventions because you can only change events in the current environment as part of a behavior modification intervention.
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Q1) What is it called when two observers record the same behavior of the same person during the same time period and compare the results of their recording?
Answer: interobserver agreement; IOA
Q2) A teacher observes and records instances of misbehavior by a student.This is an example of:
A) indirect assessment
B) direct assessment
C) covert observation
D) participant recording
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in developing a behavior recording plan?
A) defining the target behavior
B) applying procedures to change the target behavior
C) determining the logistics of recording
D) choosing a recording method
Answer: B
Q4) Calculate interobserver agreement for the interval recording of observer A and B.___________
Answer: 7/7+3=70%; 70%
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Q1) Data points should be connected across phase lines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In behavior modification, the main way to document behavior change is through the use of a(n):
A) graph
B) questionnaire
C) interview
D) statistical analysis
Answer: A
Q3) The two variables represented on a graph are:
A) the independent and dependent variables
B) time and behavior
C) the extraneous and controlling variables
D) frequency and outcome
Answer: B
Q4) In an A-B design, A= _________ and B= __________.
Answer: baseline; treatment
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Q1) An intermittent schedule of reinforcement is most effective for _____________ a behavior.
A) learning
B) maintaining
C) changing
D) all of these
Q2) In positive reinforcement, what happens immediately following the occurrence of the behavior?
Q3) A telemarketer has to make a certain number of calls before a sale is made.However, the telemarketer does not know the exact number of calls that will be required in order to make a sale.This is an example of a _________ schedule of reinforcement:
A) fixed ratio
B) variable ratio
C) fixed interval
D) variable interval
Q4) If a positive reinforcer is delivered following the behavior, the behavior is more likely to occur in the future.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When the behavior occurs, the reinforcer is no longer delivered.This is a definition of extinction of:
A) negatively reinforced behavior
B) an intermittently reinforced behavior
C) a potitively reinforced behavior
D) a continuously reinforced behavior
Q2) In comparison to a behavior that has been continuously reinforced, a behavior that has been intermittently reinforced will _____________ when reinforcement is stopped
A) decrease more rapidly
B) decrease at the same rate
C) decrease more slowly
D) remain at about the same level
Q3) What are the two factors that influence extinction?
Q4) When extinction begins and the behavior temporarily increases in frequency, duration, or intensity, this phenomenon is called a(n)
Q5) When a behavior is no longer reinforced, the behavior _______________________ in the future.
Q6) What are three things that may happen during an extinction burst?
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Q1) In behavior modification, if a stimulus is presented following the behavior and it influences the future probability of the behavior, the process is either ____________ or ____________.
A) negative reinforcement ; negative punishment
B) positive reinforcement ; positive punishment
C) positive reinforcement ; negative reinforcement
D) positive punishment ; negative punishment
Q2) A consequence can be considered a punisher if the:
A) consequence appears unfavorable
B) behavior decreases temporarily
C) behavior decreases in the future
D) consequence is extreme
Q3) If following the behavior, the reinforcer that was maintaining the behavior is removed and the behavior decreases it is called ____________.If a positive reinforcer the person had already acquired is removed following the behavior and the behavior decreases it is called ____________.
A) extinction; negative punishment
B) negative punishment; extinction
C) negative reinforcement; negative punishment
D) extinction; negative reinforcement
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Q1) Bill drives faster than the speed limit only when his friends are in the car with him because they tell him he is cool.He doesn't speed when his parents or girlfriend are in the car because they don't say it's cool.What is the S in this example?
A) parents
B) girlfriend
C) friends
D) parents and girlfriend
Q2) The relationship between an antecedent, behavior, and consequence is referred to as a(n):
A) three term contract
B) three term contingency
C) stimulus control
D) three way interaction
Q3) A behavior is more likely to occur in the presence of the S .
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a discriminative stimulus?
Q5) A(n) ________________ is the stimulus that is present when the behavior is not reinforced.
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Q1) During spontaneous recovery, the magnitude of the CR is usually smaller than the magnitude of the CR that occurred prior to extinction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a result of being paired with a loud noise, a flashing light has come to elicit a startle reflex.When the flashing light is repeatedly presented without the loud noise, the startle reflex eventually stops occurring.This process in which a conditioned stimulus is no longer able to elicit a conditioned response is referred to as:
A) respondent extinction
B) operant extinction
C) secondary conditioning
D) reverse conditioning
Q3) John is playing in the front yard when a big dog starts running and barking towards him.The dog attack makes John's heart beat faster and John runs into the house to get away from the dog.Identify both the respondent and operant behaviors that occurred.
Q4) Respondent conditioning occurs when a(n) is paired with a(n).
Q5) List 5 factors that influence respondent conditioning.
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Q1) When reinforcement for each approximation of the target behavior is eliminated ____________ occurs, and a ____________ behavior is then reinforced.
A) an extinction burst ; novel
B) spontaneous recovery ; desirable
C) punishment ; desirable
D) conditioning ; prior
Q2) Define shaping.Provide an example.
Q3) _________________________, or shaping steps, are behaviors that are closer and closer to the target behavior.
Q4) Which of the following behavioral principles is(are) involved in shaping?
A) extinction
B) punishment
C) reinforcement
D) A and C
Q5) ______________ and _______________ are the two behavioral principles involved in shaping.
Q6) Why is it important to move from reinforcing one approximation to the next approximation at a proper pace?
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Q1) Brian has been teaching his son to shoot a basketball correctly.Initially, Brian lowered the backboard and used a smaller ball to increase the chances his son would shoot the ball correctly.Once his son begins having success, Brian begins to raise the backboard and use a larger ball.This is an example of:
A) stimulus delay
B) stimulus fading
C) prompt delay
D) prompt fading
Q2) Describe how you would use flash cards to learn psychology terms using prompting and fading.
Q3) Ultimately, the discriminative stimulus must have stimulus control over the behavior. A)True
B)False
Q4) What is fading?
Q5) Teaching is complete when prompts are no longer being used to get the behavior to occur.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) TFBackward chaining procedures are mostly used with individuals who have severe intellectual disabilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The occurrence of a component behavior in a behavioral chain depends on the occurrence of the previous component behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A complex behavior that is made up of many component behaviors that occur together in a sequence is called a(n) _____________.
Q4) When you provide a reinforcer after each response in backward and forward chaining the outcome of that response becomes a:
A) conditioned stimulus for the next response
B) S-delta for the next response
C) conditioned reinforcer
D) A and C
Q5) TFTotal task presentation works best for long and complex tasks.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A psychologist is helping a student improve his social skills.After instructing him on how to carry on a conversation with other students, the psychologist has the student practice.Practicing the behavior after receiving instructions is referred to as:
A) modeling
B) feedback
C) rehearsal
D) testing
Q2) BST procedures are NOT used to:
A) teach new behaviors
B) overcome behavioral deficits
C) decrease a problem behavior
D) B and C
Q3) Rehearsing the behavior is an important part of behavioral skills training because it:
A) demonstrates whether the learner has learned the behavior
B) provides the chance for reinforcement of the behavior
C) provides the opportunity to correct errors
D) all of these
Q4) Provide 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of group behavioral skills training.
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Q1) List and describe the 3 ways to conduct an ABC observation.
Q2) Which method of ABC observation is typically used after the behavior, antecedents, and consequences have already been identified?
A) checklist method
B) descriptive method
C) interval recording method
D) A and C
Q3) How is information gathered in an indirect functional assessment method?
A) recording antecedents, behaviors, and consequences as they occur
B) interviews
C) questionnaires
D) B and C
Q4) Experimental methods, also known as ___________ analysis, or ___________ analysis.
Q5) The term functional analysis is synonymous with (means the same as):
A) functional assessment
B) experimental analysis
C) descriptive analysis
D) A and B
Q6) When an observer records the three-term-contingency, this is called
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Q1) Terminating reinforcement for a behavior so that the behavior decreases is referred to as:
A) antecedent control
B) punishment
C) negative reinforcement
D) extinction
Q2) When the problem behavior no longer occurs in all relevant circumstances following extinction, ___________ is said to have occurred.
A) discrimination
B) fading
C) shaping
D) generalization
Q3) Which of the following is necessary in order to determine the effects of extinction?
A) a rough estimate of the behavior before treatment
B) data collection limited to the treatment setting
C) a baseline assessment
D) a label for the problem behavior
Q4) Define extinction and provide an example.
Q5) What is sensory extinction?When would you use a sensory extinction procedure?
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Q1) Utilizing the same reinforcer that is maintaining an undesirable behavior is an effective way to increase a desirable behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Provide an example of full session DRL.
Q3) Three ways to identify an appropriate reinforcer are___________, ___________, and ___________.
Q4) The same reinforcers will be effective for most people.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What happens in a DRA procedure?
Q6) When a desirable behavior results in escape or avoidance of an aversive stimulus, it is referred to as differential:
A) negative reinforcement
B) positive reinforcement
C) negative punishment
D) positive punishment
Q7) Reinforcement delivered when fewer than a specified number of responses occurs in a period of time is referred to as ___________ DRL.
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Q1) Antecedent control procedures involve a change in the antecedents that evoke the occurrence of a problem behavior or the occurrence of _________________________ to replace the problem behavior.
Q2) Judy wants to keep her apartment clean on a regular basis, however, she is often watching TV, talking on the phone or going to parties.Therefore, her apartment usually remains unkempt.What are the competing behaviors for Judy cleaning her apartment? To make these competing behaviors less likely to occur:How would you remove the discriminative stimulus? How would you present an abolishing operation? How would you increase response effort?
Q3) Bill wants to increase the amount of water that he drinks each day, but is having difficulty because he drinks too much pop instead.Bill gets rid of all the pop in his apartment and no longer goes down the pop aisle in the supermarket.Removing the pop and avoiding the pop aisle in the supermarket is an example of ____________ for his competing behavior.
A) removing the discriminative stimulus and cues
B) presenting the discriminative stimulus and cues
C) decreasing response effort
D) eliminating establishing operations
Q4) Increasing response effort will make a behavior ____________ likely to occur.
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Q1) A time-out room should have a lock on the door so the client is unable to escape back to the reinforcing environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In __________________________, a specified amount of a reinforcer is removed contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior.
Q3) Sitting down and talking with a child to prevent escape from time-out is acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are response cost, time-out and extinction different?
Q5) The use of response cost involves the consideration of:
A) whether interactions can be avoided
B) which reinforcer to remove and when the loss will occur
C) whether escape can be prevented
D) when the punishing stimulus will be presented
Q6) When is nonexclusionary time-out most likely to be used?
Q7) Time-out is a _______________________ punishment procedure.
Q8) Define response cost.
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Q1) When an individual understands and willingly agrees to the punishment procedure it is referred to as:
A) informed consent
B) a behavioral contract
C) informed participation
D) voluntary agreement
Q2) Positive punishment procedures are often seen as treatments of last resort by professionals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In contingent exercise, what must the learner do following the problem behavior?
A) correct the environment damaged by the behavior
B) comply with the task that was requested prior to the problem behavior
C) repeatedly engage in the correct behavior
D) engage in an effortful behavior that is not related to the problem behavior.
Q4) Two major categories of aversive events used in positive punishment procedures are ___________ and ___________.
Q5) What is appropriate to do if an individual attempts to avoid or escape from the performance of an aversive activity?___________
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Q1) A psychologist is teaching a woman with intellectual disabilities the skills that she needs to clean her apartment.Training sessions are conducted in the woman's apartment, and the psychologist provides reinforcers when the woman demonstrates the proper cleaning skills.Which strategy for promoting generalization is the psychologist using?
A) teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses
B) reinforcing occurrences of generalization
C) training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement
D) incorporating common stimuli into the training session
Q2) In order to increase the probability that the target behavior will occur in all relevant situations following training, you should:
A) use punishment on competing behaviors
B) reinforce the behavior in the presence of the S-delta
C) program for generalization
D) conduct a task analysis
Q3) If ___________ contingencies are discontinued prematurely, there is a risk that the problem behavior may begin to occur more frequently.
Q4) Improvement in functioning following treatment for a problem behavior is defined in what 3 ways?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true concerning self-monitoring?
A) self-monitoring involves recording each instance of the target behavior
B) self-monitoring in conjunction with goal setting may change the behavior in the desired direction
C) self-monitoring is stopped once the behavior reaches the desired level
D) self-monitoring provides information on whether additional self-management strategies are required
Q2) What is the first step in a self-management plan?
A) goal setting
B) functional assessment
C) making the decision to engage in self-management
D) defining the target behavior and competing behaviors
Q3) Larry wants to increase the amount of exercise that he gets.Larry arranges for significant others in his life to help influence his target behavior by having them exercise with him and give him encouragement and praise.This self-management strategy is referred to as:
A) social support
B) behavioral assistance
C) peer assistance
D) environmental support
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Q1) What is the main way in which the habit reversal procedure varies across the different types of habit disorders?
Q2) Tourette's disorder is diagnosed when ________________ and ________________ tics occur.
Q3) Provide an example of a competing behavior for hair-pulling.
Q4) Habit reversal procedures include all of the following components except:
A) awareness training
B) motivational strategies
C) avoidance training
D) competing response training
Q5) If nervous habits decreased nervous tension they would serve a ________________ reinforcement function.
Q6) Sam engages in repetitive throat-clearing behavior even though he does not have a cold or any problem with his throat.Sam's behavior of repetitive throat-clearing is an example of a:
A) nervous habit
B) vocal tic
C) motor tic
D) stuttering
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Q1) Which of the following is true concerning establishing the time and place for exchanging tokens?
A) individuals should always have access to the token store
B) individuals in the token economy should determine the time and place
C) the time and place for token exchange should be planned in advance
D) a specific time and place is only important when a large number of people are involved
Q2) In a token economy, the token exchange rate refers to the number of tokens:
A) received for each instance of the desirable behavior
B) lost for each instance of undesirable behavior
C) required to obtain backup reinforcers
D) A and C
Q3) When a response cost procedure is included, it should be introduced before the token economy has been in place for a period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The effectiveness of a token as a reinforcer depends on the back-up reinforcers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a token economy tokens are exchanged for _________________________.
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Q1) Which of the following is used in a behavioral contract to determine whether the target behavior occurred or did not occur?
A) verbal reports of the client
B) permanent products of the behavior
C) self-monitoring by the client
D) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is used in a behavioral contract to determine whether the target behavior occurred or did not occur?
A) subjective evidence
B) objective evidence
C) verbal reports by the contractee
D) all of these
Q3) In a behavioral contract, the negotiated consequences of the target behavior are:
A) immediate
B) delayed
C) non-contingent
D) nonspecific
Q4) Define a one party contract.
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Q1) Progressive muscle relaxation involves:
A) deep, rhythmic breathing
B) tensing and relaxing each of the major muscle groups in the body
C) focusing on a therapist who provides images of relaxing scene
D) assuming relaxed postures with all parts of the body supported in a recliner of comfortable chair
Q2) Matt is working with a psychologist to overcome his fear of heights.They develop a fear hierarchy and Matt is exposed to progressively greater fear-producing situations while maintaining relaxation.Which procedure is being used to help Matt overcome his fear of heights?
A) systematic desensitization
B) in vivo desensitization
C) environmental desensitization
D) experimental desensitization
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true concerning in vivo desensitization?
A) the individual makes actual contact with the feared stimulus
B) there is not a problem with generalization
C) it does not require a lot of time to implement
D) relaxation training is not always used
Q4) The respondent behavior involved in Ellen's fear is ________________.
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Q1) In order to use behavior modification procedures to change a cognitive behavior, the behavior must be:
A) assigned a label
B) readily observable to others
C) operationally defined
D) overt
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of cognitive distortion?
A) overgeneralization
B) magnification
C) procrastination
D) personalization
Q3) What are acceptance-based therapies?
Q4) Cognitive behavior modification for depression involves first getting the person to engage in more ________________.
Q5) Cognitive restructuring occurs when a client ________________ distorted thoughts with ________________ that don't lead to distressing moods or behaviors.
Q6) Who identifies and records the occurrence of cognitive behaviors?
Q7) List the 3 steps in cognitive restructuring.
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