Clinical Procedures for Surgical Technologists
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental clinical procedures essential for surgical technologists. Students will learn to apply aseptic techniques, assist in a variety of surgical environments, and develop proficiency in the preparation and handling of surgical instruments and equipment. Emphasis is placed on patient positioning, preoperative and postoperative care, as well as surgical site preparation. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with hands-on practice, preparing students to support surgical teams effectively and ensure patient safety throughout surgical interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following personal character traits pertains to one's pledge to recognize and admit mistakes so that corrective action can be taken immediately?
A)Surgical conscience
B)Respect for the team
C)Good manual dexterity
D)Organizational skills
Answer: A
Q2) How many phases of patient care constitute surgical case management?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Answer: B
Q3) Entry level surgical technologists can fill which of the following roles:
A)Scrub surgical technologist
B)Circulating surgical technologist
C)Second assisting surgical technologist
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ann Contreras has consulted a noted colorectal surgeon after experiencing episodes of rectal bleeding over the last 2 weeks. She had a screening colonoscopy 5 years ago with several adenomatous polyps and mild diverticular disease. She presents to the endoscopy suite after a successful bowel prep and NPO since midnight. The GI endoscopist is confident that she will find tumor growth in the rectum and decides to employ further diagnostic applications to determine potential for metastasis. Which of the following endoscopic procedures best describes Ann's procedure?
A)Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP)
B)Rectal manometry with dilatation
C)Flexible sigmoidoscopy
D)Colonoscopy with endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement about the McBurney incision is most correct?
A)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the left lower quadrant.
B)It is the incision of choice to repair a direct inguinal hernia.
C)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the right lower quadrant.
D)The direction is more transverse than oblique.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liver, pancreas, and spleen share many similarities. Select the statement about these organs that is true.
A)All three are solid organs and very vascular.
B)All three are metabolic organs.
C)All three organs have terminal attachments to the duodenum.
D)All of the options are false.
Answer: A
Q2) The liver is essential in the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, generating nutrient stores of which substance that supplies energy sources to the brain and body?
A)Carbohydrate glucose substrate
B)Glycogen
C)Serum glucosamine
D)Bile salts
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morris Bettelman, an 86-year-old retired plumber, states that he has suffered from a groin hernia all of his adult life; he states, "as far back as I can remember." Sometimes he has to push the bulge back into his abdominal muscle and then he is fine until he has a coughing spell. This morning the bulge was large and tender when he woke up and he could not reduce it. As the pain increased, he felt weak and nauseous. His daughter took him to the emergency department. Morris was diagnosed with a strangulated incarcerated hernia and scheduled for emergency surgery. If the contents of Morris' hernia sac become compromised, with strangulation of the bowel, the probable label on his surgical specimen will be:
A)compromised bowel.
B)strangulated bowel.
C)necrotic bowel.
D)intestinal obstruction.
Q2) What composes the lining of a herniated abdominal sac?
A)Fascia
B)Peritoneum
C)Muscularis
D)Rectus abdominis muscle
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Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the skin preparation for a gynecologic procedure that requires both an abdominal and a vaginal prep, the circulator must ensure that cross-contamination does not occur. Select two principles of aseptic technique that support cross-contamination prevention.
A)Tuck sterile towels under the patient's buttocks and both sides of the abdomen.
B)Insert the urinary catheter to drainage before beginning the prep.
C)Prep the abdomen before beginning the vaginal prep.
D)Use two separate prep trays (one for the abdomen, one for the vagina).
Q2) Marla Moriarity, a 32-year-old recently unemployed and uninsured college professor, is diagnosed with an early ectopic pregnancy. Her obstetrician has given her the option of surgical or medical therapy. She is well-informed about the details of each medical and surgical option, but her primary concern about her condition is that her decision will be based upon her strong cultural belief system that will not sanction the destruction of the fetus. Marla's treatment decision will most likely be:
A)the medical therapy of IM methotrexate for 5 to 7 days.
B)laparoscopic injection of methotrexate to the extrauterine gestational sac.
C)emergency laparotomy for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
D)salpingectomy.
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The renal artery and vein enter and exit the kidney on the medial side of the organ through a concave area known as the:
A)calyces.
B)pedicle.
C)hilum.
D)renal pelvis.
Q2) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate, which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A)Systemic disease
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Post-treatment cancer in remission
D)Active cancer
Q3) The kidneys are highly vascular organs. Approximately how much of the entire circulating blood volume do the kidneys process at any one time?
A)One fifth
B)1 ml per kg body weight
C)One third
D)30 ml per hour
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substernal or intrathoracic thyroidectomy is indicated for extensions of goiters that are encroaching into the substernal or intrathoracic regions, causing tracheal or esophageal obstruction. Access to the substernal compartment is typically facilitated by:
A)splitting the sternum.
B)using a right mini-thoracotomy approach.
C)using long instruments through a regular thyroid incision.
D)using a mediastinoscopy approach.
Q2) Jennifer Peoples is a 41-year-old woman with suspected primary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid; she is scheduled for total thyroidectomy surgery. How can the scrub person, Joni, a new surgical technologist, participate in using risk reduction strategies in the scrub role?
A)Pay meticulous attention to sterile technique.
B)Provide efficient and expedient hemostatic devices and materials as needed.
C)Maintain sterility of the instruments until the patient leaves the room in the case of need for emergency tracheostomy.
D)All of the options reflect appropriate scrub role risk reduction techniques.
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Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the marginal boundaries of the breasts.
A)Second to fifth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to mid-clavicular line
B)Second to sixth rib horizontally, mid-sternum to mid-clavicular line
C)Second to sixth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to anterior axillary line
D)Second to fifth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to mid-axillary line
Q2) Breast screening guidelines are developed and published by the American Cancer Society (ACS) for asymptomatic women of various age and risk groups. Select the statement that best reflects the ACS guidelines for women at high risk for breast cancer.
A)Biannual mammography with two views of each breast and clinical breast exam
B)An individualized screening plan
C)Biannual clinical breast exam, mammography, and bimonthly breast self-exam
D)Annual mammography, ultrasonography, and MRI with CT
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Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical technologist prepares a sterile treatment set-up for the surgeon to use before the DCR operative procedure is started. Select the statement that describes the justification for this sterile treatment set-up.
A)The surgeon will cut and mold the nasal splint to size before the nose becomes edematous.
B)The silastic tubing needs to be cut to size and soaked during the procedure.
C)The skin markings, with methylene blue, are done on clean skin before the skin prep.
D)The nasal cavity is anesthetized with cocaine and a local anesthetic is administered.
Q2) Evisceration
A)Removal of the eye contents with sclera and muscles left intact
B)Removal of the entire orbital contents, including the periosteum
C)Removal of the entire globe, severing muscular attachments and optic nerve
Q3) Exenteration
A)Removal of the eye contents with sclera and muscles left intact
B)Removal of the entire orbital contents, including the periosteum
C)Removal of the entire globe, severing muscular attachments and optic nerve
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11
Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the three salivary glands, which one is the largest?
A)Sublingual
B)Submandibular
C)Zygomatic
D)Parotid
Q2) The nasal cavity is associated with the ear by way of the ____________, and communicates with the conjunctiva through the __________________. Select the options that are appropriate to complete the sentence.
A)torus tubarius; canaliculi
B)eustachian tube; nasolacrimal duct
C)nasopharynx; medial caruncle
D)middle ear; lacrimal sac
Q3) What is the purpose of using an intravenous injection of a radiopaque contrast dye during select imaging diagnostic studies?
A)There is enhanced uptake of radiation in areas of suspicion.
B)It provides visual enhancement of anatomic structures.
C)It minimizes ionizing radiation scatter to noninvolved anatomic structures.
D)Contrast dye leaves a locator marker for impending surgery.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Callus formation
Q2) Tough, long strands of fibers that form the ends of muscles
A)Ligaments
B)Tendons
C)Cartilage
Q3) Fibrin network formation
Q4) Bands of dense connective tissue that hold bone to bone
A)Ligaments
B)Tendons
C)Cartilage
Q5) Invasion of osteoblasts
Q6) Hematoma formation
Q7) Paget's disease is a disorder affecting older adults. The bones are weak and poorly constructed. It is characterized by the proliferation of osteoclasts and compensatory increased osteoblastic activity. This degenerative process results in:
A)weak and non supported bone matrix.
B)replacement of cancellous bone with cortical bone.
C)rapid, disorganized bone remodeling.
D)immature bone cells with air spaces.
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Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the tissue most often responsible for spinal nerve root compression in patients with herniated intervertebral disks?
A)Annulus fibrosis
B)Nucleus pulposus
C)Posterior longitudinal ligament
D)Spinous process
Q2) What is a common congenital neural tube closure defect that may present as a fluid-filled sac in the lumbar region and contains neural elements?
A)Encephalocele
B)Chiari malformation
C)Hydrocephalus
D)Myelomeningocele
Q3) The brainstem consists of which three structures?
A)Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
B)Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
C)Mesencephalon, diencephalon, and cerebellum
D)Pons, medulla, and foramen magnum
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Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three most common skin cancers are basal cell, squamous cell, and melanoma.Treated early, skin cancers such as squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas may be cured by simple excision and closure (with pathologic diagnosis to ensure disease-free margins).Melanoma is treated much more aggressively because of its high mortality. The A-B-C-Ds of the warning signs for skin cancer stand for:
A)acute, borderline, color, dysplastic.
B)asymmetry, blanching, cohesion, depth.
C)aplastic, bilateral, chronic, dysplastic.
D)asymmetry, border, color, diameter.
Q2) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction or post-bariatric contouring, the perioperative team will assemble and organize supplies and devices because the procedure may require:
A)repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B)meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C)pressure dressings.
D)patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumonectomy is removal of an entire lung, usually to treat malignant neoplasms. What structures are excised or resected in order to remove the entire lung and complete the surgery?
A)A section of rib, bronchus, pulmonary artery and vein, and hilar pleura
B)The lung, peripheral adhesions, and pulmonary ligament
C)Mediastinal lymph nodes, portions of the chest wall or diaphragm, and parietal pleura
D)All of these structures may be resected during a pneumonectomy
Q2) Inspiration normally takes place when the intrathoracic pressure is slightly below atmospheric pressure and when a partial vacuum exists between the parietal and visceral pleural (intrathoracic) surfaces. As the muscles of inspiration contract to enlarge the chest cage, what action by the lungs occurs to facilitate air intake?
A)The lungs recoil and expand to draw air into them.
B)The lungs are passive and follow the diaphragm and chest wall.
C)The lungs produce a pressure gradient that suctions air.
D)The alveolar sacs expand when triggered by neural triggers in all 10 lung segments.
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Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What properties enable arteries to compensate for changes in blood pressure and blood volume?
A)Regeneration and thick muscularis
B)Dilatation and absence of valves
C)Contraction and constriction
D)Elasticity and distensibility
Q2) Substituting a cryo-preserved cadaveric vein or an in situ or reversed vein graft from the patient for an arterial bypass graft is an option for patients who have healthy, easily accessed saphenous veins. How does an in situ vein graft differ from a reversed vein graft?
A)With the in situ method, the vein segment is resected, reversed, and anastomosed into position.
B)The in situ method leaves the vein in its position and the valves are removed.
C)Arteriovenous fistulas are a common complication with the reversed vein graft method.
D)Valvulotomes are used to remove the valves in both methods.
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During Shelbie Wilson's valve repair, the surgeon realized that the torn leaflet was too damaged to be repaired and Shelbie would be better served with a bioprosthetic replacement valve. The circulator selected the implant from its secure storage area and transferred it in its storage solution to the sterile back table. What is the appropriate risk reduction strategy the surgical technologist needs to perform to prepare the bioprosthetic valve for implantation?
A)Rinse the biovalve in sterile albumin.
B)Rinse according to the biovalve manufacturer's instructions.
C)Rinse the biovalve in 5 baths of sterile saline.
D)Rinse the biovalve in glutaraldehyde.
Q2) The internal mammary arteries are frequently used as grafts during coronary bypass surgery. Where are they located?
A)They diverge from the anterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery.
B)They diverge from the subclavian arteries behind the sternum.
C)They diverge from the subclavian arteries anterior to the sternum.
D)They diverge from the innominate artery.
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Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Baby Boy Doe is a newborn found outside of the emergency department (ED). He is hypothermic and has several deep lacerations across his back, abdomen, and legs that will require surgical repair. He is transferred to the surgical bay of the ED and prepared for anesthesia induction. What risk reduction strategies are appropriate during the preanesthetic phase to achieve and maintain normothermia?
A)Adjust room temperature to 23° to 24° C (73.4° to 75.2° F).
B)Provide a radiant heat lamp during placement of monitoring lines and induction.
C)Wrap lower extremities in elastic bandages and encase in a plastic bag for newborns.
D)Keep child exposed as much as possible to benefit from the heat lamp.
Q2) Any misalignment of the eyes is called strabismus. The goal for treatment of strabismus is to straighten the eyes so that binocular vision functions appropriately. Surgery may be recommended to change the alignment of the eyes relative to each other by:
A)strengthening the eye muscles
B)weakening the eye muscles
C)repositioning the eye muscles
D)All of the options are correct.
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blunt trauma injuries may not fully reveal the degree or depth of injury. What noninvasive diagnostic test is critical to diagnosis in potential traumatic brain injury?
A)Pupil reflex and response to light
B)Skull radiograph
C)CT scan of the head
D)Neurovascular arteriography
Q2) A trauma patient is rushed to the OR after a primary survey is completed in the emergency department. He is a 36-year-old male with multiple penetrating gunshot and knife wounds to the abdomen. He is bleeding profusely. What appropriate actions are critical in the rapid preparation for this procedure?
A)Set up the autotransfusion system.
B)Prep the patient from the suprasternal notch to the mid-thigh.
C)Place the aortic cross-clamp on the Mayo stand.
D)Open a silo-bag closure system on the sterile field.
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