Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course offers comprehensive training in the fundamental clinical procedures required for medical assistants within various healthcare settings. Students learn essential skills such as taking patient histories, measuring vital signs, preparing patients for examination, assisting with minor office surgeries, administering injections, collecting and processing specimens, and performing basic laboratory tests. Emphasis is placed on aseptic techniques, infection control, patient safety, and effective communication with patients and healthcare team members. Through a blend of classroom instruction, hands-on practice, and simulations, students gain the practical knowledge necessary to support physicians and provide high-quality patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize the characteristics of nonassertive communication.
Answer: Keeping the eyes downcast, shifting one's weight when talking, slumping the shoulders or wringing the hands, whining or using a hesitant tone of voice. Also, using terminology such as "maybe," or "I guess," "I wonder if you could," "Would you mind very much if," or "It's not really important."
Q2) Which type of coping strategies may actually increase stress levels?
A) Adaptive coping mechanism
B) Nonadaptive coping mechanism
C) Constructive coping mechanism
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Match concrete perceivers with all the appropriate applications. (Select all that apply.)
A) Watch, observe, and reflect
B) Learn by doing
C) Prefer learning things that have personal meaning
D) Need time to think about it
E) Use a step-by-step approach to learning
F) Analyze new material
Answer: B, C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Holistic refers to the individual parts of the body rather than all of its systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q2) A registered nurse who administers anesthetics to patients is called a nurse
Answer: anesthetist
A nurse anesthetist administers anesthetics; a nurse practitioner provides basic care services.
Q3) The agency that inspects facilities for workplace safety violations is
A) the CDC.
B) OSHA.
C) CLIA.
D) the DHHS.
Answer: B
Q4) Most medical assisting positions are in hospitals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) A task that is noted as an E priority is probably a(n)
A) important task.
B) task that should be done early in the day.
C) errand.
D) extra task for that day.
Answer: C
Q2) One of the medical assistant's most important characteristics is a strong ______________.
Answer: work ethic
Work ethics are sets of values based on the moral virtues of hard work and diligence. They involve a whole range of activities, from individual acts to the philosophy of the entire office.
Q3) Patients are not concerned about the medical assistant's grooming and wardrobe. A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q4) The personality that people project in public is their persona.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not likely to be one of the factors that influence the first impression we make on others?
A) What we say
B) What we do
C) What we think
D) How we look
Q2) Which of the following strategies could be used to help school-aged children gain a sense of control during the health visit?
A) Give them the opportunity to make certain decisions about treatment
B) Respect their privacy
C) Keep them informed in a language they can understand
D) Encourage them to ask questions
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following can be a channel in linear communication?
A) Spoken word
B) Written message
C) Body language
D) E-mail message
E) All of the above
Q4) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the "litigious nature of today's society"?
A) Crowding has caused people to need more personal space.
B) Patients are more likely to bring lawsuits than in the past.
C) A growing diversity of cultures is represented in the United States.
D) Fewer people have access to medical care.
Q2) An emancipated minor is over the age of 18.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The HITECH Act imposes data breach notification requirements for unauthorized uses and disclosures of "unsecured PHI."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Something marked by wisdom or judiciousness is said to be __________.
Q5) Medical assistants cannot legally perform skills for which they have not been trained.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The finding or decision of a jury on a matter submitted to it in trial is called the
Q7) Civil cases must be proven by a(n) __________ of the evidence.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician involved in caring for a patient should be an advocate for the family rather than for the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The realm embracing property rights that belong to the community at large is called the __________________.
Q3) Refraining from the act of causing harm or committing evil is called
A) nonmaleficence.
B) beneficence.
C) duty.
D) fidelity.
Q4) Which statement best describes the practice of physicians waiving co-payments required by insurance companies?
A) The practice may violate insurers' policies if done routinely.
B) The practice is the best and most humane way to treat needy patients.
C) The practice is encouraged by insurance companies.
D) The practice encourages patients to take advantage of the medical payment system.
Q5) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ was enacted partly to ensure that medical records would be kept private and confidential.
Q2) DVD stands for ________________________.
Q3) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Disseminated
B) Desseminated
Q4) Computer hardware can be divided into all of the following categories except one. Which is the exception?
A) Input devices
B) External components
C) Secondary storage devices
D) Network access devices
Q5) A terabyte is approximately 1 trillion bytes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A kilobyte is approximately 2,410 bits.
A)True
B)False
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Q7) Good __________ is essential to writing effective, professional business letters.
Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pleasing telephone voice is developed by using A) customer service.
B) a monotone.
C) clarity.
D) professional jargon.
Q2) Which of the following is not required when a telephone message is taken?
A) The caller's name and phone number
B) The time and date
C) The name of the person to whom the call is directed
D) The caller's account number
Q3) STAT means "as soon as possible."
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using speakerphone, which of the following should occur to comply with HIPAA?
A) Inform the caller that you will be using speakerphone
B) Let the person know who else will be listening in
C) Door or reception window should be closed
D) Should not be used in areas where conversation can be overheard
Q5) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appearance of the reception room influences the patient's perception of the entire office.
A)True B)False
Q2) When the office staff commits to making the patient feel welcome, success of the practice is _____________.
Q3) An incidental disclosure
A) cannot reasonably be prevented.
B) is limited in nature.
C) occurs as a result of another use or disclosure that is permitted.
D) All of the above.
Q4) Placing the paperwork that new patients must fill out on the physician's Web site saves time during the new patient's first appointment.
A)True B)False
Q5) Journals for physicians may not be displayed as reading material in the reception area.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inventory management involves tracking inventory and identifying the quantity of product to purchase. The goal of inventory management is to have adequate supplies on hand to use in the healthcare facility, yet not have too much stock that will expire or take a long time to use.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) An ordered item that has not been delivered when promised or demanded but will be supplied at a later date is said to be
A) backordered.
B) front-ordered.
C) on hold.
D) circumvented.
Q3) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q4) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
Q5) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When documents are added to a patient's chart, the most recent information should be placed on top.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The EHR system's __________ component allows the physician's staff to communicate with and send claims electronically to insurance companies.
Q3) Any of a set of physical properties, the value of which determines characteristics or behavior, is called a(n) __________.
Q4) For a record to be admissible as evidence in court, the person dictating or writing the entries must be able to attest that they were true and correct at the time they were written. The best indication of this is the provider's signature or initials on the typed or EHR entry.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q5) Meriting condemnation, responsibility, or blame especially as wrong or harmful is called __________.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q2) The "code first" notation can usually be ignored.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q4) ______________ are notes included in the Tabular Index to provide additional guidance for selected diagnosis codes.
Q5) The coder should always refer to the Tabular Index first.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
14
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images
A) 78201
B) 78205
C) 78220
D) 78223
Q3) It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
Q5) CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
Q6) Which of the following codes is assigned to an urgent care facility as the place of service?
A) 01
B) 13
C) 20
D) 23
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pays the hospital surgical room fee?
A) Disability
B) Basic medical
C) Surgical
D) Hospital
E) Both C and D
Q2) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of managed care?
A) Authorized services usually are covered.
B) Physicians' choices in the treatment of patients can be limited.
C) More paperwork may be necessary.
D) Reimbursement is historically less than with traditional health insurance.
Q3) Organizations that fund their own insurance programs offer their employees
A) group coverage.
B) individual coverage.
C) government plans.
D) self-funded plans.
Q4) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) When completing the CMS-1500 Form, which section contains information about the patient and the insured?
A) Section 1
B) Section 2
C) Section 3
D) Section 4
Q2) A secondary health plan is noted in which block?
A) 11a
B) 11b
C) 11c
D) 11d
Q3) The patient's name is found in block
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
Q4) Dirty claims cannot be resubmitted.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needs to occur when a check is returned from the bank for NSF?
A) The payment posted to the patient account must be reversed.
B) A charge line item must be added with the amount of the NSF check.
C) The original payment must be deleted.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following agreements for payment plans is not subject to TILA and does not require a signed Truth in Lending Statement?
A) Specific agreement for less than four installments and finance charge
B) Specific agreement with more than four installments and finance charge
C) No specific agreement with more than four installments and no finance charge
D) Credit card or loan specifically for healthcare treatment
E) All of the above
Q3) In the physician's office, the accounts payable is the amount of money that all patients owe the physician.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a bank cashes a check that is later returned for insufficient funds, whom does it charge to recover the amount lost?
A) The check's maker
B) The person who received the money
C) The person to whom the check was written
D) The person who last endorsed the check
Q2) A plan in which payments are transferred, usually electronically, by a paying agency directly to the account of a recipient is called
A) disbursement.
B) direct deposit.
C) customer-oriented banking.
D) endorsement banking.
Q3) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called the __________.
Q4) When should checks from patients and other sources be deposited?
A) At the same time bills are paid
B) As soon as possible after they are received
C) When the bank statement is reconciled each month
D) At the end of every week
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under the at-will employee guideline, the employee can terminate employment for good cause, bad cause, or no cause-unless an express contract is signed for a specific term or the employee is a member of a collective bargaining group, such as a union.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Which of the following is a quality of an effective leader or office manager?
A) Has a sense of fairness
B) Has good communications skills
C) Uses good judgment
D) All of the above
Q3) Some managers assign a person to assist new employees during the initial probationary period; this person is called a
A) mentor.
B) supervisor.
C) co-worker.
D) subordinate.
Q4) The ________ is the Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following categories evaluates the advantage a healthcare facility would have over its competitors?
A) Strengths
B) Weaknesses
C) Opportunities
D) Threats
Q2) In order for the search engine to pick up the website, the web designer includes appropriate key words in the website developer code. Key words and code should be updated on a regular basis by medical office management.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) A monthly e-newsletter is a great marketing idea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with purchased broadcast time, print space, or other forms of written and visual media is called _____________.
21
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A germicide is an agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important step in achieving hand asepsis is
A) removing jewelry.
B) rinsing with alcohol.
C) using surgical soap.
D) wearing gloves.
Q3) Relapse and remission are seen frequently in what types of infections?
A) Chronic infections
B) Latent infections
C) Infections with rapid onset
D) Infections that cause fever
Q4) Adequate infection control procedures include all of the following except
A) intermittent hand washing.
B) proper use of antiseptics.
C) effective disinfection.
D) sterilization.
Q5) A(n) __________ agent is a medication that relieves a patient's symptoms but does not cure a disease.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an objective sign of disease is the patient's reported level of pain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lois Anderson was recently diagnosed with a functional disorder of the colon. Which of the following is true about her condition?
A) Her laboratory results are negative.
B) A colonoscopy reveals abnormal tissue.
C) Clinical signs indicate disease.
D) None of the above is true.
Q3) Which of the following sections of the medical record includes the physical examination findings?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q4) The medical assistant is responsible for performing the systems review.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health belief model focuses on what patients believe about themselves and how a health problem affects them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is integral to the informed consent mandate in the Patients' Bill of Rights?
A) Right to information before they receive care
B) Patient confidentiality as it relates to patient education
C) Providing adequate, correct, and understandable information
D) All of the above
Q3) Often the key to patient understanding and __________ is involvement of family members.
Q4) Mr. Ignatio's daughter called today and wants details about her father's diagnosis. How should the medical assistant manage this request?
A) Send the daughter a copy of her father's records.
B) Ask the daughter to come to the office to review the patient's record.
C) Refer to Mr. Ignatio's authorization of access to his personal information before answering any questions.
D) Call the patient's attorney for approval.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which health condition is related to stress?
A) Headaches
B) Hypertension
C) Diarrhea
D) All of the above
Q2) The BMI compares the patient's weight with traditional height and weight charts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which nutrient has 9 kcal/g?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fat
D) Water
Q4) Which of the following come from animal sources and have a mixture of all eight essential amino acids?
A) Complete proteins
B) Incomplete proteins
C) Vegetable proteins
D) All of the above
Q5) Explain the recommendations for fat consumption.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) A patient whose blood pressure is less than 90/50 mm Hg would be diagnosed with
Q2) The volume of the pulse refers to the length of time between each beat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which blood pressure reading would be seen in an adult with hypotension?
A) Systolic BP below 110 mm Hg
B) Diastolic BP above 60 mm Hg
C) Systolic BP below 90 mm Hg
D) Diastolic BP below 60 mm Hg
Q4) Which of the following pulses is auscultated with a stethoscope?
A) Apical
B) Brachial
C) Temporal
D) Radial
Q5) Aural temperatures are recommended for adults, when possible, because the
A) tympanic membrane shares the blood supply of the hypothalamus.
B) ear canal is a protected cavity.
C) risk of spreading communicable diseases is reduced.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Aphonia typically is seen in patients who have overused their voice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For administration of a rectal suppository, the patient would be placed in the __________ position.
Q3) Which of the following examination positions can be used for a rectal examination?
A) Trendelenburg's
B) Sims'
C) Supine
D) Prone
Q4) List and describe the four types of body tissue.
Q5) Platelets are specialized blood cells that help combat infections.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An otorhinolaryngologist is a physician who specializes in what area?
A) Ear and throat
B) Eye, ear, and throat
C) Eye, ear, and nose
D) Ear, nose, and throat
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medication order is given by the physician for a specific patient and includes the A) drug to be given.
B) dosage and form of the drug.
C) time and route of administration.
D) all of the above
Q2) The ___________ identifies the patient's name and address and gives the date.
A) superscription
B) inscription
C) subscription
D) signature
Q3) Schedule _____ includes drugs that have an accepted medical use but with severe restrictions.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q4) Monistat is used to treat fungal infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many fluid ounces equal 90 mL?
A) 20 fl oz
B) 3.5 fl oz
C) 3 fl oz
D) 4 fl oz
Q2) One fluid ounce is equal to ____ mL.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 25
D) 30
Q3) Which of the following is true about a drug's brand name on a medication label?
A) The generic name is always listed on the label before the brand name.
B) The brand name must be listed on all drug labels.
C) The brand name is followed by a symbol that designates patent protection.
D) If a medication is stocked as a generic drug, the brand name is listed under the generic name.
Q4) Which of the following is a metric unit of volume?
A) Ounce
B) mL
C) mg
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ___________ is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants and children.
A) ventrogluteal site
B) deltoid muscle
C) dorsogluteal site
D) vastus lateralis
Q2) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, a primary concern is to avoid injecting the medication into the __________ nerve.
Q3) Antibiotics typically are prescribed initially in a(n) __________ dose to reach therapeutic blood levels as quickly as possible.
Q4) A tablet may be given a(n) __________ coating so that the medicine is absorbed in the small intestine.
Q5) Body areas to avoid when choosing the site for an injection include
A) healthy muscle tissue.
B) scar tissue.
C) moles, birthmarks, warts, tumors, lumps, and bones.
D) B and C
Q6) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, the injection is administered into the __________ muscle.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) You are babysitting your neighbor's infant and discover that the baby is not breathing. What should you do?
A) If there is no pulse, immediately call EMS.
B) Call EMS immediately and then return to the infant to start CPR.
C) Administer 2 rescue breaths, and if the infant does not respond, call EMS.
D) Perform CPR for about 2 minutes and then call EMS.
Q2) An AED apex pad is placed next to or underneath the left breast for which of the following patient scenarios?
A) Child
B) Female patient
C) Male patient
D) Adolescent
Q3) If a patient calls the physician's office with a life-threatening emergency, you should place the person on hold while you activate EMS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hemorrhagic shock is caused by excessive loss of blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ errors occur when the eye is unable to focus light effectively on the retina.
Q2) Amblyopia is an abnormal sensitivity to light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is a highly infectious disease, typically caused by staphylococcal bacteria, that causes edema, a purulent discharge, and inflammation of the eye.
Q4) Which of the following is true about an error of refraction?
A) Light rays are not being bent properly to focus on the retina.
B) Light rays are not being expanded as they should be.
C) The rods and cones are not functioning.
D) The retina lacks a sufficient blood supply.
Q5) Which of the following choroid structures regulates the shape of the lens and secretes aqueous humor?
A) Ciliary body
B) Retina
C) Iris
D) Sclera
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Q6) When light focuses behind the retina, the patient is diagnosed with __________.
Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) A wound that heals well with little evidence of scar formation is called a keloid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The physician orders a series of diagnostic tests to determine the stage of the tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A fissure is an example of a primary lesion of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The RAST blood tests are primarily used to determine food allergies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Botox is a neurotoxin that temporarily paralyzes the muscles of the face to reduce the appearance of wrinkles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
Q7) The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pouches or tunnels in the large intestine that can trap seeds are called
A) Crohn's disease.
B) duodenal ulcers.
C) diverticuli.
D) diverticulitis.
Q2) The absorption of nutrients is the primary role of the A) stomach.
B) villi.
C) large intestine.
D) duodenum.
Q3) The acronym GERD stands for __________.
Q4) You are responsible for conducting patient education in preparation for a three-time stool collection for occult blood. What foods should the patient avoid?
A) Red meat
B) Dairy products
C) Canned vegetables
D) Caffeine
Q5) The medical term for enlargement of the liver is __________.
Q6) __________ is the wavelike, muscular movement of substances through the GI tract.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about patient preparation for renal ultrasonography?
A) The patient must be kept NPO for at least 8 hours before the exam.
B) The patient should be prepared for the loud noises made by the equipment.
C) The procedure is noninvasive and painless.
D) Intravenous dye is used.
Q2) ________________ is a malignancy frequently seen in patients with AIDS that causes purple papules to form on the skin.
Q3) ___________________________ is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction in the glomerular capsule.
Q4) Which of the following is an FDA-approved HIV test designed for home screening?
A) HIV-1 Test System
B) OraQuick Advance HIV1/2 Antibody Test
C) Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)
D) Viral load test
Q5) Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of cancer of the bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Tony Rocco is a 42-year-old patient with a history of renal calculi. He is scheduled for his first ESWL tomorrow. Summarize the patient education he should receive about the procedure.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are idiopathic benign tumors composed mainly of smooth muscle and some fibrous connective tissue?
A) Fibromyomas
B) Leiomyomas
C) Myomas
D) All of the above
Q2) Development of the mammary glands is controlled by which hormone(s)?
A) Estrogen
B) Oxytocin
C) Progesterone
D) Prolactin
E) A and C
Q3) Which method of birth control has the highest failure rate?
A) Condom
B) Diaphragm
C) IUD
D) Birth control pills
Q4) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
Q5) ____________ tissues are adjacent to or part of organs or tissues, such as the fallopian tubes and the uterus.
36
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strep throat may result in damage to the heart valves if not treated properly with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Immunization with Varivax may prevent the development of shingles in the future.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Possible signs that an adolescent may be considering suicide include
A) sexual promiscuity.
B) a very active social life.
C) giving away prized objects.
D) Both A and C
Q4) The classic definition of __________ is a condition in which an infant between 2 weeks and 4 months of age has crying episodes that occur at least three times a week, last longer than 3 hours a day, and persist for at least 3 weeks.
Q5) A 2-month-old infant is scheduled for immunizations. Which ones should the child receive and how should they be administered? The baby's father asks whether the vaccines will make his daughter sick. What can you tell him about the typical side effects of these vaccinations?
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is safer for patients with circulatory disorders to use an electric heating pad than a commercial hot pack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following specialized imaging techniques is used to assess bone density?
A) Arthogram
B) Bone scan
C) Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
D) Computed tomography
E) Electromyography
Q3) Which type of muscle is responsible for moving fluids through the urinary system?
A) Skeletal
B) Smooth
C) Striated
D) Voluntary
Q4) The primary symptom of myasthenia gravis is rapid eye movement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIPAA privacy regulations have special stipulations regarding access to which of the following information?
A) Hospital admission for a suicide attempt
B) Psychotherapy notes
C) A history of medication use for depression
D) The diagnosis of schizophrenia
Q2) The cerebellum is responsible for
A) controlling the autonomic nervous system.
B) balance, equilibrium, posture, and muscle coordination.
C) coordinating reflexes.
D) verbal functions (e.g., reading, writing, speaking).
Q3) A subdural hematoma is more likely to occur in which patient?
A) A 2-year-old who trips going down the steps
B) A 28-year-old athlete
C) A high school student playing touch football
D) An elderly patient who falls
Q4) As a medical assistant working with patients with neurologic disorders, you must be able to recognize general symptoms of neurologic problems. Summarize five typical symptoms.
Q5) The _____________ is the largest and uppermost section of the brain.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4233
Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine gland requires iodine to produce its hormone?
A) Thyroid
B) Thymus
C) Gonads
D) Parathyroid
Q2) The islets of which endocrine gland regulate the blood glucose levels?
A) Parathyroid
B) Thyroid
C) Pineal
D) Pancreas
Q3) Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?
A) Plasma glucose level of 210 mg/dL
B) FPG of 126 mg/dL
C) OGTT result of 180 mg/dL
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin >6%
Q4) Patients with diabetes __________ stop producing insulin in the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
Q5) A surgical procedure could prove fatal for a patient with Cushing's syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carl Rowe is to have a sleep study at the local hospital. The study is performed with what technology?
A) Electroencephalogram
B) ECG
C) Polysomnography
D) A and C
Q2) Which symptom(s) is (are) typically not associated with allergic rhinitis?
A) Itchy eyes, ears, nose, throat, and roof of the mouth
B) Red and watery eyes
C) Clear, thin nasal discharge
D) Fever
Q3) A normal pulse oximetry reading is
A) lower than 80%.
B) 80% to 90%.
C) 90% to 92%.
D) 95% or higher.
Q4) Healthcare workers who have a positive PPD skin test must have the test repeated annually to screen for active tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about CK levels in a patient with an MI?
A) The more severe the cardiac damage, the longer it takes for CK levels to peak.
B) Levels begin to increase almost immediately after myocardial damage.
C) CK levels return to normal within 18 hours.
D) CK levels are not predictive of the extent of cardiac damage.
Q2) Describe the typical symptoms of an MI in men and an MI in women. Include in your answer the typical signs and symptoms of an MI in both genders.
Q3) A DVT typically is diagnosed by
A) x-ray films that pick up calcification.
B) Doppler studies that measure the rate of blood flow through a vessel.
C) PT blood tests.
D) troponin levels.
Q4) Rheumatic heart disease develops because of an antigen-antibody reaction several weeks after an untreated staphylococcal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contraction of the atria and ventricles is called __________.
Q6) ________________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ result(s) from weakening and stretching of the venous walls.
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes
C) Varicose veins
D) Edema of the lower extremities
Q2) The family of an aging patient in the practice contacts you about the need for home-based help for their mother. Summarize the services available in the area to help aging individuals remain in their homes.
Q3) The medical term for an age spot is __________.
Q4) __________ is a protein that makes up the inelastic fibers of tendons and ligaments.
Q5) Over time, vessel walls thicken and become less elastic because of the calcification and buildup of connective tissue in which condition?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Phlebitis
C) Arteriosclerosis
D) All of the above
Q6) A medication that can be prescribed to treat osteoporosis is __________.
Q7) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polarization is the same thing as myocardial contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lead __________ records the electrical activity between the left arm and the left leg.
Q3) Which deflection from the baseline represents the repolarization of the ventricles?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) ST segment
D) QRS complex
Q4) Which of the following artifacts appears as a series of uniform small spikes on the ECG paper?
A) Somatic tremor
B) Alternating current interference
C) Interrupted baseline
D) Wandering baseline
Q5) The QRS complex shows the contraction of both __________ and also reflects the completion of cardiac depolarization.
Q6) The __________ is the electric recording of the heart at rest.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) In a frontal projection, the coronal plane of the body or body part is parallel to the film plane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How would you explain an IVU procedure to a patient?
A) It uses iodine as a contrast medium and aids in the diagnosis of kidney stones.
B) No special patient prep is required.
C) It is performed with an MRI machine.
D) Iodine is used as a contrast medium, and the uterus is visualized.
Q3) The source-to-image distance is the distance from the gantry to the film.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of exposure to radiation is directly linked to the length of time spent in the radiation field.
A)True
B)False
Q5) PET scans frequently are used to assess the spread of cancerous tumors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ on swabs, tubes, transport media, and other collection containers should be checked before these items are used.
Q2) The microscope component that directs the light up through the stage is the A) condenser.
B) iris diaphragm.
C) ocular.
D) magnification system.
Q3) The ocular of the microscope generally magnifies the image
A) 2 times.
B) 5 times.
C) 10 times.
D) minimally.
Q4) __________ is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection.
Q5) For qualitative tests, a numeric value is attached to the result that specifically states the amount of analyte in a given volume of specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4240
Sample Questions
Q1) A urine specimen is tested and shown to have a pH of 8.0. This value is
A) abnormally low.
B) abnormally high.
C) midrange normal.
D) normal.
Q2) Ovulation testing measures the level of hCG in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the most common urine test for pregnancy?
A) Clinitest
B) Lateral flow immunoassay
C) CLIA-waved lateral flow urine test
D) None of the above
Q4) The reagent strip is highly sensitive to
A) hemoglobin.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) urinary albumin.
D) mucoproteins.
Q5) Refrigeration of urine can cause ___________ urates or phosphates to settle out of a urine sample.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
Q2) A(n) ____________ is a special laboratory filter paper that is used to collect a blood sample from newborns.
Q3) Light blue tubes for coagulation studies should be inverted how many times following removal and prior to placing them in the rack?
A) Two times
B) Three or four times
C) Five times
D) Eight to ten times
Q4) With regard to venipuncture needles, the smaller the gauge number, the larger the lumen of the needle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A hematoma can be caused by
A) excessive probing to locate a vein.
B) failure to insert the needle far enough into the vein.
C) penetration of the needle through a vein.
D) All of the above
Q6) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures the PT according to the time it takes the blood to form a fibrin clot?
A) ESR
B) Hgb determination
C) CLIA-waived
D) CBC
Q2) List five studies included in a CBC.
Q3) Which of the following tests is used to determine renal function?
A) Ferritin
B) Total bilirubin
C) pH
D) Creatinine
Q4) Mrs. Grace Hernandez is suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis. Explain the ESR procedure to Mrs. Hernandez.
Q5) Hemoglobin A<sub>1</sub>c determination is more useful than blood glucose measurement in the management of diabetes, because it provides information on the average blood sugar level over a 2- to 3-month period.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism that causes tuberculosis and also is an anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The microbiology laboratory report for Mrs. Wallace's urine culture lists eight antibiotics, five of which are followed by the letter "S." This means that these antibiotics
A) should be avoided when treating the infection.
B) should be considered when treating the infection.
C) are likely to cause sensitivity or allergy in the patient.
D) should be retested with a more sensitive method.
Q3) Which of the following CLIA-waived serology tests can be performed by a medical assistant to detect antibodies to a specific pathogen?
A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Lyme disease
D) HIV
E) All of the above
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the strongest nonabsorbable sutures?
A) Dacron and Prolene
B) Dexon and Maxon
C) Silk
D) Vicryl
E) Both A and B
Q2) Which of the following forceps are used to grasp tissue and in suturing?
A) Adson forceps
B) Allis tissue forceps
C) Adson thumb forceps
D) Toothed tissue forceps
E) Both A and C
Q3) _________ refers to a body cavity or canal that is in its normal open position, such as the trachea remaining open during surgery.
Q4) After instruments have been immersed in a chemical sterilizing agent, they should be rinsed with sterile water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the proper care of surgical instruments.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following passes through to a body organ or cavity?
A) Incised wound
B) Lacerated wound
C) Perforated wound
D) Penetrating wound
E) Both C and D
Q2) __________ healing occurs with a clean surgical cut and wound edges that approximate.
Q3) Air currents carry bacteria, so body movements and talking over a sterile field should be kept to a minimum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ occurs when a nonpenetrating wound damages blood vessels.
Q5) Explain the preoperative instructions for a patient having surgery.
Q6) In the __________ phase of wound healing, collagen closes the gap between tissues and scar tissue forms.
Q7) A large, gaping wound that must heal from the bottom of the wound outward heals by first intention.
A)True
B)False Page 52
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interview questions should not be asked in an interview?
A) Tell me about yourself.
B) Whom do you most admire?
C) Who takes care of your children while you work?
D) Why would you be successful in this position?
Q2) When are performance appraisals usually done?
A) First day of a new job
B) After the initial probationary period
C) Annually
D) Quarterly
E) Both B and C
Q3) Medical assistants must evaluate their own __________ and weaknesses.
Q4) It is helpful to conduct __________ interviews for practice.
Q5) A new employee may arrive late to work as long as it happens no more than twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A person with __________ is motivated, able to express love, and capable of handling criticism.
Q7) __________ is reading and marking corrections.
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