Clinical Practicum in Surgical Technology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
This course provides students with hands-on clinical experience in the operating room under the supervision of qualified surgical professionals. Emphasizing the application of sterile techniques, instrumentation handling, and operative procedures, students actively participate in surgical cases across various specialties. The practicum focuses on developing critical skills such as patient preparation, aseptic technique, intraoperative assisting, and collaboration with the surgical team, preparing students for entry-level roles as surgical technologists. Assessment includes performance evaluations, case logs, and reflection on real-world scenarios to enhance both technical proficiency and professional behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25509
Sample Questions
Q1) Students may work for compensation during official clinical hours.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Describe one way a relatively safe procedure can rapidly become a catastrophic or fatal event.
A)Preoperative patient anxiety
B)Postoperative pain
C)Unknown patient allergies
D)Subjective responses to OR activities
Answer: C
Q3) Which objective should a perioperative learner strive to attain?
A)Realize that a team approach to surgical procedures cannot always occur.
B)Validate the need for constant patient observation.
C)Maintain the belief that competent behaviors are more vital than humane behaviors.
D)Hands-on experience is the most important means to understanding surgery.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What documentation goes into the patient's chart and becomes part of the permanent record?
A)Specimen results
B)Intraoperative notes only
C)All routine and individualized care
D)Physical changes
Answer: C
Q2) Who is responsible for documenting the final counts at the end of the case as correct or incorrect?
A)Scrub person
B)Surgeon
C)Anesthesiologist
D)Circulating nurse
Answer: D
Q3) Identifying the surgical site is always done by placing an "X" over the site.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old mentally competent person can execute a living will or an advance directive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which is a benefit of EMR in the hospital setting?
A)Documentation can be transmitted to multiple caregivers quickly.
B)Patients can ask for copies of their health care records.
C)Everyone can view the health care records of any patient within a particular facility.
D)Laboratory results are hard to decipher when downloaded.
Answer: A
Q3) When a mishap occurs in patient care,the cause of the event is compared with other cases similar to that one.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional
Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the scrub person's responsibility?
A)Establish and maintain the sterile field
B)Assist anesthesia providers with patient positioning
C)Complete procedure documentation and specimen requisitions
D)Maintain communication with waiting patient family members
Q3) The circulating nurse's role as the patient's ____________________ and ____________________ is critical and extends throughout the entire perioperative environment.
Q4) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
Q5) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RNFA should simultaneously perform as a scrub nurse during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A physician assistant (PA)can assist in the OR and write prescriptions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q4) It is in the scope of the surgical technologists practice to hold retractors if asked by the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The first assistant usually assists in positioning the patient,surgical site exposure,closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of SCIP?
A)Surgical Care Improvement Project
B)Surgical Cost Infection Project
C)Surgical Control Policy
D)Surveillance Control
Q2) Which best describes the roles of a preceptor?
A)Assigns activities
B)Teaches a group orientation
C)Observes a student or employee
D)Teaches an orientee one-on-one; advises and encourages until the orientee can function on his or her own
Q3) Which is the responsibility of the central processing department?
A)Biomedical testing
B)Biohazard material transport
C)Distributing supplies
D)Linen storage
Q4) The head nurse or charge nurse acts as a liaison between staff members and administrative personnel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the "no-touch" technique mean?
A)The skin over the site of a tumor is not cleaned or prepped before the procedure.
B)Vigorous scrubbing is needed to clean and prep the skin over a tumor site.
C)The tumor is handled as little as possible during its removal.
D)The skin over the tumor site is to be manipulated before prepping.
Q2) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the ____________________.
Q3) In order for a victim of sexual trauma to regain a sense of control and security,the caregiver must
A)not wear gloves and use quick, brisk moves.
B)create loud noises and speak in loud tones in order to distract the patient.
C)approach the victim with patience and understanding.
D)constantly touch the patient to assure her or him that the hospital is a safe environment.
Q4) Before administration of anesthetics,a patient may be acutely aware of the surroundings and activities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shunt is placed when attempting to drain fluid from the ventricles to the right atrium of the heart?
A)Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B)Ventriculoamniotic shunt
C)Ventriculoatrial shunt
D)Ventriculocoronary shunt
Q2) Which is one of the most common causes of cardiac death within the first week of life?
A)Pulmonary fibrosis
B)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C)Aortic valve insufficiency
D)Ventricular septal defect
Q3) Talipes ________ means the forefoot is inverted and talipes ________ means the forefoot is everted.
A)venous; valgus
B)varus; valgus
C)equines; various
D)venous; variegated
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A comorbidity is the existence of two or more diseases in one individual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What theory suggests that the body loses its ability to keep pace with the maintenance of life processes?
A)Genetic mutation theory
B)Wear-and-tear theory
C)Viral theory
D)Environmental theory
Q3) Geriatric patients are at risk when positioning or moving them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some common findings seen when assessing an older adult patient's integumentary system might be
A)nonhealing foot wounds.
B)skin tags.
C)bruising on arms or hands.
D)bruises.
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to prop OR doors open during or in between surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In what room might a laparoscopic cholecystectomy be performed?
A)Endoscopy room
B)Interventional radiography room
C)Minimally invasive surgery room
D)Cystoscopy room
Q3) Where in the surgical environment would you find the receptionist,pneumatic tube system,and computer systems used to retrieve patient records?
A)Conference room
B)Support service office
C)Central control desk
D)Central processing area
Q4) During construction of the OR,negative pressure must be maintained in halls,with exhaust filtered to the outside of the building.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for wounded service animals in a mobile hospital setting,wounded soldiers and animals are all treated and operated on in the same setting to save on space and cost.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ASCs may take emergency patients and usually employ more than 50 employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medicare does not approve the use of ambulatory surgery centers and refers all its patients to inpatient hospital ORs for procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a consideration that determines whether a procedure is performed at an ASC?
A)Duration of procedure
B)Cost of procedure
C)Availability of anesthesia staff
D)Patient infection rate
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knife blades should be removed using a heavy hemostat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Every patient is considered a potential contaminant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a patient is rolled into the OR and the case is canceled for some reason before the procedure has begun,the tables and supplies can be reused for another case or patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As long as the instrument and prep tables are within the confines of the OR,it does not particularly matter where they are placed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Standardization is in the best interest of the patient and the personnel performing cleanup.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a biologic hazard in the OR?
A)Back injury
B)Cytotoxic drug
C)Electricity
D)Infectious waste
Q2) Prep solutions containing alcohol and fat solvents do not have to be dry before draping because they will continue to dry on their own after draping.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When working with disinfectants such as phenol or povidone-iodine,what steps should be taken to protect you?
A)Wear goggles.
B)Use a fan in the OR to dissipate the fumes.
C)Wear corneal protectors.
D)Wear a mask with proper nasal and mouth openings to allow air to escape.
Q4) OSHA is authorized to enforce its standards and inspect health care facilities for compliance with standards.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which conditions may be indicative of a systemic infection?
A)Temp = 37.5° C, heart rate = 76
B)Temp = 38.5° C, respiratory rate = 26 to 30
C)White blood cell count = 5000, heart rate = 90
D)Temp = 36.5° C, respiratory rate = 18,
Q2) Why would a broad-spectrum antibiotic drug be given before a surgical procedure?
A)To allow development of a super-resistant bacteria
B)To cover any potential surgical contamination
C)For procedures associated with high risk of infection
D)To assess for any sensitivity or allergic reaction
Q3) Which is one of the four phases of bacteria's reproduction stage?
A)Birth phase
B)Development phase
C)Log phase
D)Working phase
Q4) Which describe signs and symptoms of a localized infection?
A)Inflammation, red, painful, swelling
B)Generalized edema, lymphedema
C)Hematoma with clear exudate
D)Scaly rash with skin nodules
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every patient in the OR is considered infected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sterile person and an unsterile person face each other when passing each other so as to recognize whether the sterile person gets contaminated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When scrubbed in,it is never acceptable to fold one's hands under one's arms and tuck them in the axillary region.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the OR?
A)Instruments
B)Faulty ventilation system
C)Infection
D)Surgical team
Q5) The management of puncture wounds needs to be taken care of immediately. A)True
B)False
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct method of open gloving?
A)Open the gloves and just put them on.
B)Grasp the inside cuffs of both gloves when putting them on.
C)Use the skin-to-skin, glove-to-glove technique.
D)Ensure no bare skin is exposed.
Q2) The purpose of a mask is to filter droplets containing microorganisms expelled from the mouth.What is another purpose for the mask?
A)It's a good idea to wear two masks for better protection.
B)Many masks filter about 99% of particulate matter larger than 5 mm.
C)Masks are still effective if they become moist.
D)Reusable cotton masks are still appropriate.
Q3) The appropriate OR attire for a visitor whose presence in the OR will be brief is a one-piece coverall,head cover,mask,and shoe covers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is acceptable to take home one's scrubs to launder them after working in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments may be immersed in which of the following solutions?
A)Ethyl alcohol
B)Distilled water
C)Saline solution
D)Chlorhexidine
Q2) When instruments need repairing,OR personnel may sharpen or repair surgical instruments as needed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At what temperature does the washer-sterilizer reach to ensure safe handling for employees?
A)110° F (43.3° C)
B)250° F to 280° F (121° C to 138° C)
C)140° F (60° C)
D)180° F (82° C)
Q4) Which are the three levels of Spaulding's classification of patient care items?
A)Low items, intermediate level items, high-level items
B)Intact items, noncritical items, critical items
C)Critical items, semi-critical items, noncritical items
D)Dirty, sterile, contaminated
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Like EO sterilization,hydrogen peroxide sterilization requires a lengthy aeration period.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is one of the six process-associated parameters associated with sterilization?
A)Steam quality
B)Wrapper capacity
C)Cost to operate radiation sterilization
D)Saturation and penetration
Q3) What method assures that sterilization conditions have been achieved during the steam sterilization process?
A)Bowie-Dick test
B)Negative biologic control
C)Negative biologic indicator
D)Class 2 auto test
Q4) A closed-container system with moisture in the closed tray is considered unsterile and contaminated.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using an electrical instrument on the field,the scrub person needs to have available what item to cool the bone being worked on?
A)Ice packs
B)Saline solution in a syringe
C)Antibiotic soaked sponges
D)Frozen 4 ´ 4 sponges
Q2) Which statement regarding handing instruments at the sterile field is correct?
A)Pass instruments around the incision.
B)Lightly place the instrument into the surgeon's hand.
C)Pass instruments directly over the incisional area.
D)Anticipate the surgeon's needs before being asked for an instrument.
Q3) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
Q4) Microinstruments are made of a shiny finish in order to visualize them better under the microscope.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an advantage of using the argon beam coagulator?
A)Increased air embolism
B)Beam weight lighter than air
C)Patent return electrode not required
D)The argon beam spares surrounding tissue
Q2) Only the operator of the laser must wear safety eyewear during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which part of the body must be protected when using lasers?
A)The patient's eyes
B)The laser has minimal effect on tissue.
C)The caregiver's eyes
D)The caregiver's eyes and the patient's eyes, skin, and respiratory tract
Q4) When adjusting the microscope,at what degree should the circulator set the focus of the ocular lens?
A)0 degrees
B)30 degrees
C)45 degrees
D)90 degrees
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contact lenses are not to be removed during a surgical procedure because they protect the corneas from being scratched during induction of general anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why should jewelry be removed before a surgical procedure?
A)It might get stolen
B)Doesn't need to be removed
C)Metal jewelry can cause a burn
D)It might hang in the way of the procedure
Q3) What style of interview questions allows the patient to respond freely and share feelings and concerns?
A)Close-ended questions
B)Direct questioning
C)Open-ended questions
D)Direct questions that require only one-word answers
Q4) To prevent an incorrect surgical procedure on a patient or an error in medication.A "time out" takes place before incision.
A)True
B)False
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Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cancer treatment involves the partial removal of the tumor?
A)Endocrine therapy
B)Surgical palliation
C)Surgical debulking
D)Ablation of tumor
Q2) Which is a potential complication of a long-term catheter?
A)Spread of cancer cells
B)Loss of bladder control
C)Thrombosis
D)Loss of vascular elasticity
Q3) Because MRI uses a large electromagnet,metallic devices are allowed into the MRI machine as long as they are stainless steel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A malignant tumor
A)migrates from tissue to tissue.
B)grows in an organized manner.
C)increases in size slowly.
D)must always be debulked.
24
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's weight should be accurate and documented in which manner?
A)Kilograms
B)Pounds
C)Grams
D)Milligrams
Q2) What are the seven rights of medication administration?
A)Right dose, Right timing and Right route
B)Right patient and Right drug
C)Right documentation and Right Reason
D)All of the above
Q3) When dispensing ointment from a multidose pack,the tube should be squeezed to dispense 1/2 inch of ointment in the trash before applying a portion to the sterile field.
A)True B)False
Q4) As long as the circulating nurse verifies the drug with the scrub person as it is being dispensed,it is not necessary for the scrub person to verify the name of the drug with the surgeon as it is handed up for use.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a method of administering inhalation gases and vapors?
A)Nasal cannula
B)Intravenously
C)Intramuscular injection
D)Laryngeal mask
Q2) Where is the placement of the endotracheal during intubation?
A)Into the lungs
B)Between the vocal cords
C)Down the esophagus
D)Into the back of the throat
Q3) Any patient who has a full stomach is a hazard to a safe induction of anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What position should a patient be in when receiving spinal anesthesia?
A)Supine
B)Prone
C)Lithotomy
D)Lateral
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What level of movement of the upper extremity involves the opening of a peel-pack package?
A)Class 1
B)Class 2
C)Class 3
D)Class 4
Q2) Which is a type of syringe used for injection?
A)Asepto
B)Luer-Lok
C)Tapered bulb syringe
D)Toomey
Q3) The circulating nurse must remain at the patient's side during the induction of general anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sponges and tapes that have been counted and bagged can be tied and thrown into the trash and removed from the room after being bagged.
A)True
B)False
27
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many OR personnel must be present at the bed to assist in moving an anesthetized patient?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q2) The patient return electrode should always be placed after the patient is in position for the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What equipment separates the sterile from the nonsterile areas at the head of the bed?
A)IV poles or metal bars
B)Electrosurgical unit
C)Lithotomy posts
D)Surgical headlight
Q4) While draping,it is acceptable to reach over the OR bed to drape the opposite side.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Establishing a patient's preoperative baseline is very important because it can alert the caregiver to any physiologic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Core body temperature refers to the entire body temperature including the interior and body surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a condition that may occur during a surgical procedure,resulting in an altered physiology?
A)Tissue dystrophy
B)Bleeding
C)Surgical augmentation
D)Depression
Q4) Which statement about CVP is true?
A)A manometer is used and positioned level to the patient's right atrium.
B)Normal readings are 8 to 12 mm Hg.
C)CVP readings can be taken using a radial artery catheter.
D)Taking a breath can create positive pressure and alter the CVP.
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for a suture ligature?
A)Tie on a passer
B)Stick tie
C)Free tie
D)Kittner
Q2) Which is a component used to classify surgical needles?
A)Color
B)Length
C)Point
D)Neck
Q3) What type of material can be used to retract skin or a vessel?
A)Cotton towel
B)Thyroid shield
C)Balfour retractor
D)Umbilical tape
Q4) Which loose,fatty tissue layer is below the dermis?
A)Peritoneal tissue
B)Fascia
C)Subcutaneous
D)Muscle
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wound disruption is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
A)Bradycardia
B)Abnormal opening and exposure of the wound
C)Increased bowel gas pressure
D)Increased blood pressure
Q2) In what type of wound healing is the wound left open and allowed to heal from the inner toward the outer surface?
A)Third intention
B)First intention
C)Second intention
D)Non-intention
Q3) One main cause of wound dehiscence is
A)obesity.
B)wound infection.
C)overextended bladder.
D)perforated bowel.
Q4) All tissues should be handled gently for complete hemostasis during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Q1) Report to the PACU nurse is given by
A)the circulating nurse.
B)the OR charge nurse.
C)the scrub person.
D)the OR scheduling office.
Q2) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q3) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A)Palpating the surgical incision
B)Wait until they are crying
C)Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D)Using the FACES scale
Q4) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) What is the term for partial or complete closure of the vocal cords as a reflex action?
A)Bronchospasm
B)Laryngospasm
C)Aspiration
D)Pneumonia
Q2) Allogeneic blood is a patient's own blood and requires no typing or crossmatching.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What may develop postoperatively if a patient cannot mobilize their secretions?
A)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B)Tuberculosis
C)COPD
D)Extreme pain
Q4) What is the cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A)Volume overload
B)Blood volume depletion
C)Hypercapnia
D)Derangement of clotting factors
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES)is a newer form of endoscopic surgery in which only two incisions are made on the patient's abdomen to remove an appendix or a gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fluid can be used as an expansion media for creating working space while using a scope.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After an endoscopic procedure,it is acceptable to evacuate the CO into the room air because the OR staff are wearing masks.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) Mammography is the only diagnostic technique to diagnose breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a possible complication after having a mastectomy?
A)Depression
B)Need for reconstruction
C)Disfigurement
D)Lymphedema
Q3) Which procedure is performed to treat gastroesophageal reflux?
A)Whipple procedure
B)Roux-en-Y
C)Fundoplication
D)Choledochoscopy
Q4) What instrumentation is frequently used to dilate strictures in the esophagus?
A)Bougies
B)Cannula
C)Goodell dilator
D)Endoscope
Q5) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Carbon dioxide gas is used as the expansion medium for uterine insufflation during a hysteroscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following may be used to obtain a cone biopsy?
A)Hot knife
B)ESU
C)Laser
D)Curette
Q3) Pelvic endoscopy cases are not considered sterile procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A cyst located on an ovary is usually removed to prevent further damage or transformation into a symptomatic condition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The perineum forms the base of the pelvic floor and helps support the posterior vaginal wall.
A)True
B)False
36
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) Which is one of the components of the resectoscope?
A)Inner cannula
B)Outer cannula
C)Holder
D)Sheath
Q2) Anastomosis of vas deferens
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q3) What size is the usual adult cystoscope?
A)25 Fr
B)29 Fr
C)21 Fr
D)70 Fr
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Q1) Laminar airflow is used to create an ultraclean environment for orthopedic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of laser may be used via an arthroscope?
A)Diode
B)Argon
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Ruby
Q3) Which type of fracture is referred to as a simple fracture?
A)Pathologic fracture
B)Bony fracture
C)Metastatic fracture
D)Closed fracture
Q4) Which is a possible postoperative complication after orthopedic surgery?
A)Pain
B)Hypertension
C)Fat embolism
D)Hypocapnia
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Q1) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which monitoring device can help control cerebral edema?
A)Blood pressure cuff
B)Mass spectrometry
C)Ultrasound
D)Intraarterial catheter
Q3) What temporary form of hemostasis is placed along the scalp edges?
A)Gel foam
B)Silk sutures
C)Raney clips
D)Patties with epinephrine
Q4) A galea is defined as
A)a tough, highly vascular tissue over the cranium.
B)the skin layer over vessels and muscles in the brain.
C)lining of the cranium and spinal cord.
D)the circulating fluid that helps bathe the brain.
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following body systems can be affected by scoliosis?
A)Reproductive system
B)Respiratory system
C)Genitourinary system
D)Neurological system
Q2) For a patient undergoing a lumbar laminectomy,anesthesia induction would be performed in which position?
A)Supine
B)Lateral
C)Prone on a Wilson frame
D)Prone on a Jackson table
Q3) A hemangioblastoma is a vascular tumor more commonly found in the cervical or thoracic area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of cautery is commonly used during spine surgery?
A)Handheld cautery
B)Tripolar cautery
C)Bipolar cautery
D)Monopolar cautery
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) What procedure removes scar tissue from the cornea with an excimer laser?
A)Refractive keratoplasty
B)Phototherapeutic keratoplasty
C)Radial keratotomy
D)Keratophakia
Q2) Miotic eye medications are used to constrict the pupil before ophthalmic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What cleansing product do ophthalmologists recommend to patients with inflamed eyelids?
A)Dish soap
B)Alcohol
C)Antibiotic ointment
D)Diluted baby shampoo
Q4) What type of retinal detachment occurs when a hole in the retina is present?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Quaternary
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) The goal of a plastic surgeon is to attempt to restore aesthetic appearance and function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a source for replacement tissue?
A)Polygraft
B)Allograft
C)Isograft
D)Xenograft
Q3) Which is an augmentation mammoplasty approach in which a breast implant is inserted?
A)Laparoscopic
B)Periareolar
C)Periosteal
D)Intrathoracic
Q4) The rule of sevens chart is used to estimate burn injury in the adult.
A)True
B)False
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) What kind of craniofacial defect is characterized by an abnormal distance in the bony orbits between the eyes?
A)Treacher Collins syndrome
B)Apert syndrome
C)Crouzon disease
D)Hypertelorism
Q2) Which instrument can be a fire hazard if oxygen builds up under the drapes?
A)Microscope
B)Scissors
C)Cautery
D)Forceps
Q3) Which endoscopic sinus procedure clears the ethmoidal compartments of disease?
A)Functional endoscopic sinus procedure (FESS)
B)Wigand procedure
C)Sphenoidotomy
D)Rhinoplasty
Q4) A nasal fracture needs to be repaired immediately after the trauma to avoid malunion or nonunion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Which is a reason for inserting an airway stent?
A)Alternative to endotracheal intubation
B)Palliative care for obstruction of neoplasm
C)To prevent postoperative bleeding
D)To assist with laser use in the thoracic cavity
Q2) Funnel chest
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q3) What process,caused by a puncture of the left pleural cavity,may result in a collapsed right lung?
A)Pectus excavatum
B)Median sternotomy
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Segmental resection
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) Revascularizes the myocardium
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) What cardiac dysrhythmia is associated with stroke causing a thromboembolism in a patient with cardiac valvular disease?
A)Atrial fibrillation
B)Enlarged aortic arch
C)Median sternotomy
D)Post-pump psychosis
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Q1) Removal of traveling blood clot
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q2) Which type of aneurysm is caused by a break in the integrity of the vessel wall,which requires an open repair?
A)Pseudoaneurysm
B)True aneurysm
C)Dissecting aneurysm
D)Saccular aneurysm
Q3) What is the most common arterial disease?
A)Embolus
B)Venous stasis disease
C)Atherosclerosis
D)Varicose veins
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Q1) People with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)cannot receive a transplanted organ or tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What act is recognized by all 50 states as a legal consent for organ donation?
A)Organ Transplant Registry Act
B)United Network for Organ Sharing Act
C)Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
D)Total Organ Perfusion System
Q3) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants?
A)Synologous
B)Allogeneic
C)Xenologous
D)Isogenic
Q4) What areas of the body is donor bone marrow taken from?
A)All bones
B)Ribs
C)Iliac crests and sternum
D)Sternum and femur
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