Clinical Practicum in Respiratory Care Question Bank
Course Introduction
The Clinical Practicum in Respiratory Care provides students with hands-on experience in a variety of healthcare settings, allowing them to apply the theoretical knowledge and technical skills acquired in the classroom to real-world patient care. Under the supervision of licensed respiratory therapists and clinical educators, students participate in the assessment, treatment, and management of patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. The practicum emphasizes professional conduct, critical thinking, patient interaction, and proficiency with respiratory care equipment and procedures, preparing students to become competent and confident practitioners in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/248 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview and recording responses in the patient's electronic health record. The respiratory therapist should take which of the following into account regarding the use of the computer to record responses?
A) The therapist's attention may be shifted from the patient to the computer.
B) The patient will feel more important than if the information is recorded on paper.
C) The therapist will be less likely to make spelling errors if using a spell-check program.
D) The environment will be more professional and the patient will be more likely to open up if the interview is conducted with paper.
Answer: A
Q2) The respiratory therapist may choose to use the patient interview technique of silence in which of the following situations?
A) To prompt the patient to ask a question
B) After a direct question
C) After an open-ended question
D) To allow the patient to review his or her history
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is performing palpation on a patient recently admitted to the medical ward. The therapist notes decreased tactile fremitus over the right lung. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause for this physical exam finding?
A) Right-sided atelectasis
B) Right-sided pneumothorax
C) Right-sided pleural effusion
D) Right-sided pleural tumor
Answer: A
Q2) A 50-year-old patient would be said to have hypotension when her:
A) blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg.
B) blood pressure is 85/55 mm Hg.
C) heart rate is 55 bpm.
D) pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is performing a pulmonary function study on a patient who has periodic symptoms of asthma. The pulmonary function results are within normal limits. What further testing can the therapist recommend to aid in either confirming or negating the possible diagnosis?
A) Inhaled methacholine challenge testing
B) Body plethysmography
C) Inhaled digitalis
D) Warm, humid air challenge
Answer: A
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to the neurologic care unit to assess the muscle strength of a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following tests should the therapist recommend to assess respiratory muscle strength?
A) Maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP)
B) Maximum inspiratory flow rate (MIFR)
C) Maximum expiratory flow rate (MEFR)
D) Vital capacity (VC)
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B) shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) renal (kidney) failure.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with end-stage COPD who was admitted to the medical ward for an exacerbation of COPD due to increasing sputum purulence. The therapist notes the following ABG results in the patient's electronic medical record: pH 7.52, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 51; HCO<sub>2</sub> 40; PaO<sub>2</sub>
46. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these ABG results?
A) Chronic ventilatory failure with hypoxemia
B) Acute ventilatory failure with hypoxemia
C) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis with hypoxemia
D) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia
E) Acute alveolar hyperventilation superimposed on chronic ventilatory failure
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been exposed to carbon monoxide during a house fire. An ABG result shows a normal PaO<sub>2</sub>. How should the patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> value be interpreted?
A) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely elevated by the carbon monoxide.
B) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely decreased by the carbon monoxide.
C) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is accurate.
D) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is a false measurement because the presence of carbon monoxide makes the analyzer unable to determine the PaO<sub>2</sub>.
Q2) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2 </sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2 </sub> to increase.
3) total O<sub>2 </sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2 </sub> ER to increase.
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hemodynamic changes are commonly seen in a patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
1) Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
2) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
3) Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure (PA)
4) Decreased cardiac output (CO)
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with sinus tachycardia. Which of the following would LEAST likely be a cause of the sinus tachycardia?
A) hypoxemia
B) severe anemia
C) hyperthermia
D) massive hemorrhage
E) beta blocker medications
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?
A) There is a full exhalation.
B) There is a full inspiration.
C) Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.
D) The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolus. The respiratory therapist would MOST likely recommend which of the following diagnostic procedures to help determine if the patient has a pulmonary embolus?
A) CTPA
B) Fluoroscopy
C) PET scan
D) MRI scan
E) CT scan
Q3) A patient has had a ventilation-perfusion scan. What would be identified from the ventilation scan?
A) Location of a lung abscess
B) Alveolar consolidation
C) Location of a pulmonary embolism
D) Location of an airway obstruction
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram staining is done to:
1) classify organisms as gram positive or gram negative.
2) identify tuberculosis organisms.
3) speed up the organism culturing process.
4) help guide antibiotic therapy.
A) 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient for arterial line placement needed for accessibility and repeated ABG sampling. In evaluating the risk of bleeding, the therapist should establish that the patient has a platelet count of at least ____/mm³ before recommending placement of the arterial line.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,000
E) 100,000
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms would be expected in the excessive bronchial secretions clinical scenario?
1) Decreased ventilation/perfusion ratio
2) Increased airway resistance
3) Stimulation of the deflation reflex
4) Stimulation of the irritant reflex
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) Which of the following would be associated with the distal airway and alveolar weakening clinical scenario?
1) Depressed diaphragm on chest radiograph
2) Use of accessory muscles of inspiration
3) Rhonchi and wheezing
4) Increased PEFR
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
11
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are clinical indicators of Type I respiratory failure?
1) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Increased P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
3) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased ÓS/ÓT
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is a critical value for the key clinical indicators in hypercapnic respiratory failure in an adult?
1) pH 7.25
2) Ventilatory rate 35 breaths/min
3) MIP -25 cm HVentilatory rate O
4) VD/VT 40%
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 2
D) 3, 4
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:
A) hemodynamic data.
B) patient's admission complaint.
C) blood pressure.
D) sputum production.
Q2) A problem-oriented medical record is used by health-care practitioners to:
1) systemically gather the patient's data.
2) communicate with the patient's family.
3) develop an assessment.
4) formulate a treatment plan.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD), Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic reference to a person with a normal level of a?-antitrypsin is _____ phenotype.
A) Z
B) MZ
C) MM
D) ZZ
Q2) Which of the following are clinical findings associated with chronic bronchitis?
1) Cyanosis
2) Purulent sputum
3) Right heart failure
4) Elevated CO<sub>2</sub> level
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Emphysema may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) inhaling asbestos fibers.
B) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C) secondhand cigarette smoke.
D) air pollution.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What findings on a chest radiograph would be expected during a prolonged asthma episode?
1) Depressed diaphragm
2) Increased anterior-posterior diameter
3) Asymmetrical lung inflation
4) Translucent lung fields
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following symptoms are commonly associated with asthma EXCEPT recurrent:
A) cough.
B) chest tightness.
C) fever.
D) wheeze.
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Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In developed countries, the most common cause of acquired bronchiectasis is:
A) emphysema.
B) lung abscess.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
Q2) Which of the following is the hallmark of bronchiectasis?
A) Chronic cough with production of large quantities of foul-smelling sputum
B) Bronchospasm
C) Decreased DLCO with normal to decreased expiratory flow rates on pulmonary function
D) Dyspnea on exertion
Q3) Congenital causes of bronchiectasis include:
A) influenza.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) COPD.
D) rheumatic disease.
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can be used in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) an elevated potassium level in the sweat.
B) an elevated chloride level in the sweat.
C) genetic testing of the patient and/or parents.
D) chronic lung infections from an early age.
Q2) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with cystic fibrosis include:
1) tracheal deviation.
2) breath sounds reveal crackles and rhonchi.
3) dull percussion note.
4) hyperresonant percussion note.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3, 4
Q3) During the advanced stages of cystic fibrosis, the anatomic alterations cause the patient to have:
A) a primarily restrictive lung disease.
B) a primarily obstructive lung disease.
C) equal parts restrictive and obstructive lung disease.
D) normal airways with emphysema.
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered to be normal causative agents for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) EXCEPT:
A) staphylococcal pneumonia.
B) Haemophilus influenza.
C) Legionella pneumophila.
D) Candida albicans.
Q2) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B) more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C) less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D) more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
Q3) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:
A) viruses.
B) gram-negative bacteria.
C) protozoa.
D) fungi.
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18
Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the early stages of a lung abscess, the pathologic process is identical to that of:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C) acute pneumonia.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
Q2) An unconscious patient aspirated gastric contents. Which of the following anaerobic microorganisms would likely now be found in her lower respiratory tract?
1) Legionella pneumophila
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Peptococci
4) Bacteroides fragilis
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most readily transmitted through:
A) drinking milk from or the milking of infected cows.
B) shaking hands and then rubbing your eye.
C) coughing.
D) accidental direct inoculation.
Q2) A patient with an advanced case of TB may have which of the following radiologic findings?
1) Bronchial tumors
2) Hyperlucent lung fields
3) Retraction of lung segments
4) Right-sided heart enlargement
A) 2
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B) fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C) Ziehl-Neelsen.
D) gentian violet.
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of fungal lung infection frequently results in productive cough with purulent sputum?
A) Staphylococcal infection
B) Blastomycosis
C) Klebsiella infection
D) Histoplasmosis
Q2) A skin test is available to confirm which of the following fungal infections?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pseudomonal infection
Q3) Fungal lung infections are usually spread by:
A) inhaling spores.
B) blood.
C) contact with infected sputum.
D) inhaling infected droplets.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are considered noncardiogenic cause(s) of increased capillary permeability?
1) Therapeutic lung radiation
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
4) Inhaled phosgene
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Mask CPAP is used with pulmonary edema patients because it does all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decrease vascular congestion.
B) reduce work of breathing.
C) it is less expensive than mechanical ventilation.
D) improve lung compliance.
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Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are preventive measures taken with patients at high risk for thromboembolic disease EXCEPT:
A) Drink lots of water.
B) Dangle your legs over the edge of the bed before getting up.
C) Walk frequently.
D) Wear compression stockings.
Q2) A patient is on warfarin therapy for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The respiratory therapist should advise the patient to avoid eating all of the following EXCEPT:
A) broccoli.
B) spinach.
C) liver.
D) grapefruit.
E) orange juice.
Q3) A pulmonary embolus produces which of the following /Ó abnormalities?
A) True shunting
B) Shunt effect
C) Dead space effect
D) True dead space
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paradoxical chest movement?
A) With inspiration, the flail section moves outward.
B) The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C) During inspiration, the flail section moves inward.
D) During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
Q2) What is the primary cause of hypoxemia in a patient with a severe flail chest?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Alveolar atelectasis
Q3) Which of the following would be recommended for the management of an adult with a severe flail chest?
1) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
2) Pain management
3) Mechanical ventilation
4) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient has a tension pneumothorax, all of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected EXCEPT:
A) elevated diaphragm.
B) mediastinal shift to the unaffected side.
C) increased translucency on the side of the pneumothorax.
D) atelectasis.
Q2) Which of the following are anatomic alterations that occur when a person has a pneumothorax?
1) The lung on the affected side collapses.
2) The visceral and parietal pleura separate.
3) The visceral pleura adheres to the parietal pleura.
4) The chest wall moves outward.
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) While reviewing an upright chest radiograph of a patient with a pleural effusion, the respiratory therapist observes a fluid density in the right lung area that extends upward around the anterior, lateral, and posterior thoracic walls. What is this characteristic sign called?
A) Meniscus sign
B) Scarf sign
C) Transudate sign
D) Kerley B lines
Q2) Which of the following are chest radiograph findings associated with a large pleural effusion?
1) Blunting of the costophrenic angle
2) Fluid level on the affected side
3) Mediastinal shift toward the unaffected side
4) Elevated hemidiaphragm on the affected side
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For best results, how many hours per day should a SpineCor brace be worn?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
Q2) Positive risk factor(s) for the development of kyphoscoliosis include:
1) male gender.
2) female gender.
3) taller person.
4) shorter person.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 4
Q3) In which of the following is bracing the primary form of treatment?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis (AIS)
B) Patients with congenital scoliosis
C) Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D) Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for rheumatoid pneumoconiosis?
A) Goodpasture's syndrome
B) Caplan's syndrome
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Sjögren's syndrome
Q2) All of the following are associated with lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) EXCEPT:
A) recurrent chylothoraces and recurrent pneumothoraces.
B) increased airway obstruction.
C) postmenopausal women are primarily affected.
D) airway smooth muscle is affected.
Q3) A patient has just been diagnosed with Wegener's granulomatosis. Her long-term prognosis is:
A) excellent, with full recovery expected.
B) fair, with recovery expected after proper treatment.
C) guarded; recovery is possible after proper treatment.
D) poor; it is considered a fatal disease.
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Undifferentiated carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Benign tumors:
1) are metastatic.
2) grow slowly.
3) are usually encapsulated.
4) grow in a disordered manner.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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29
Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are current ventilatory strategies in the treatment of ARDS?
1) Large tidal volume
2) Small tidal volume
3) Rapid respiratory rates
4) Slow respiratory rates
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 3
Q2) All of the following would be low-tidal volume ventilation goals in a patient with ARDS, EXCEPT:
A) decrease barotrauma.
B) maintain plateau pressure >30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
C) decrease high transpulmonary pressures.
D) reduce overdistention of the lungs.
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following persons would Guillain-Barré syndrome most likely occur?
A) African-American female-22 years of age
B) Hispanic male-31 years of age
C) Asian female-17 years of age
D) Caucasian male-53 years of age
Q2) A 75-kg, 50-year-old male patient has Guillain-Barré syndrome. His most recent assessment indicates his VC is 900 mL and NIF is -16 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. What plan should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Initiate EMG monitoring.
B) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
C) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
D) Reassess the patient each hour.
Q3) In the United States and Europe, what is the most common subtype of GBS?
A) Miller Fisher syndrome (MFS)
B) Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN)
C) Acute pandysautonomic neuropathy (APN)
D) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP)
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complications commonly associated with long-term use of steroids in the management of myasthenia gravis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) infections.
B) cataracts.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) osteoporosis.
Q2) Which of the following disrupt(s) the nerve impulse transmission in myasthenia gravis?
A) MuSK
B) Edrophonium
C) IgG antibodies
D) RNS
Q3) What clinical change would be expected following a rest period for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
A) There is no clinical change.
B) Strength decreases.
C) Muscle strength improves.
D) Ascending paralysis descends.
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32
Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is useful in the management of the patient with obstructive sleep apnea because it:
A) pushes air into and out of the lungs like a mechanical ventilator.
B) prevents airway collapse.
C) stretches the J receptors in the chest wall to stimulate breathing.
D) delivers a tidal volume breath to the patient.
Q2) Sleep apnea would be diagnosed in a patient who has which of these findings?
1) More than 15 apnea episodes per hour of sleep
2) More than 5 apnea episodes per hour over an 8-hour period
3) More than 75% of the apneas are obstructive.
4) More than 75% of the apneas and hypopneas are obstructive.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following are found during rapid eye movement sleep EXCEPT:
A) the diaphragm functions normally.
B) the person is easy to awaken.
C) dreaming occurs.
D) skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonatal patient is found to have grunting on expiration. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity
B) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Closes the ductus arteriosus
Q2) When a neonate has PPHN, what structure(s) does the blood flow through to bypass the lungs?
1) Ductus venosus
2) Foramen ovale
3) Hypogastric arteries
4) Ductus arteriosus
A) 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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34
Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the consequence of meconium aspiration if there is a "ball-valve" effect in the small airways?
A) Air trapping on exhalation
B) Apnea of prematurity
C) Air trapping on inhalation
D) Bronchiectasis
Q2) How may a fetus respond when he or she becomes hypoxemic?
A) The fetus stops making breathing efforts.
B) The fetus makes rapid, shallow chest movements.
C) The fetus makes very deep, gasping inspiratory movements.
D) The fetus shows Kussmaul respirations.
Q3) Indications that a newborn has aspirated meconium include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) high Apgar score.
B) meconium in amniotic fluid.
C) newborn is not actively breathing.
D) meconium staining on skin.
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35
Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following oxygenation indices would be elevated in TTN?
A) Arterial-venous oxygen content difference
B) Oxygen consumption
C) Mixed venous oxygen saturation
D) Pulmonary shunt fraction
Q2) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:
A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B) the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
C) bronchial pneumonia.
D) meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
Q3) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with TTN include:
1) decreased removal of fluid by pulmonary lymphatics.
2) air trapping.
3) pleural effusion.
4) atelectasis.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Which of the following are associated with an increased risk of developing RDS?
1) Low-birth weight infant
2) Prenatal asphyxia
3) Maternal bleeding
4) Second-born twin
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A mother is about to deliver a 25-weeks' gestation infant. What therapeutic intervention should the respiratory therapist be prepared to give to minimize the risk of RDS?
A) Mask CPAP
B) Airway suctioning
C) Exogenous surfactant
D) Mechanical ventilation
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with a pneumopericardium EXCEPT:
A) systemic hypotension.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) decreased stroke volume.
D) increased cardiac index.
Q2) During mechanical ventilation of a preterm neonate, which of the following are considered to be important etiologic factors for the development of pulmonary air leak syndromes?
1) High levels of PEEP
2) High oxygen concentration
3) Prolonged inspiratory time
4) High PIP
A) 2, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diagnosis of RSV is most often confirmed with a sample obtained by:
A) tracheal suctioning.
B) venipuncture.
C) arterial blood sampling.
D) urine specimen.
E) nasopharyngeal aspirate.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics would put an adult at increased risk for a severe case of RSV?
1) Compromised immune system
2) History of asthma
3) Under 30 years of age
4) More than 65 years of age
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common chronic lung disease of premature infants?
A) BPD
B) Asthma
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) TTN
Q2) An infant is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (LasixÒ)
B) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C) Inhaled albuterol
D) FIO<sub>2</sub> >50%
Q3) All of the following ventilator parameters have been linked to the development of BPD EXCEPT:
A) high peak inspiratory pressure.
B) ventilatory rate of 40 breaths/min.
C) tidal volumes <5 mL/kg.
D) high mean airway pressure.
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect would a substantial left-sided CDH have on pulmonary function test findings?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B) An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C) An equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D) A restrictive disorder with increased DLCO
Q2) What additional procedures or treatments might be required for a patient with a CDH and significant pulmonary hypoplasia?
A) Plasmapheresis
B) ECMO
C) Cardiac pacemaker
D) Bronchoscopy
Q3) Which of the following is described as abnormal elevation of an intact diaphragm into the chest cavity?
A) Diaphragmatic eventration
B) Morgagni's hernia
C) Bochdalek's hernia
D) Diaphragmatic altimetry
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cyanotic congenital cardiac defect in neonates?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q2) Which congenital cardiac abnormality results from "the arrested development of the secundum septum"?
A) Ostium secundum VSD
B) Ostium secundum ASD
C) Ostium secundum TGA
D) Ostium secundum TOF
Q3) All of the following are associated with tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT:
A) pulmonary artery stenosis.
B) dextroposition of the aorta.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) atrial septal defect.
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with bacterial epiglottitis. Which of the following antibiotics should the respiratory therapist most likely recommend?
A) Amikacin (Amikin)
B) Tobramycin (Nebcin)
C) Cefalexin (Keflex)
D) Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)
Q2) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following EXCEPT the child:
A) has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B) has a normal temperature or low fever.
C) has a significant fever.
D) can drink without difficulty.
Q3) A patient has epiglottitis. This condition will affect which of the following?
1) Pharynx
2) Aryepiglottic folds
3) False vocal cords
4) Trachea
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial chest radiograph appearance of a near-drowning victim may include:
1) normal lung fields.
2) atelectasis.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) pencil point sign.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) According to the World Health Organization, where does drowning rank worldwide as a cause of unintentional death?
A) It's the leading cause of unintentional death.
B) It's the second leading cause of unintentional death.
C) It's the third leading cause of unintentional death.
D) It ranks twenty-third among the causes of unintentional death.
Q3) In the United States, what percentage of pediatric drowning victims are male?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical signs associated with acute upper airway obstruction due to thermal injury include:
1) pleural friction rub.
2) inspiratory stridor.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) painful swallowing.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What COHb level is associated with a throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and impaired judgment?
A) 1% to 10%
B) 10% to 20%
C) 20% to 30%
D) 30% to 50%
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is performing chest assessment on a post-op cholecystectomy patient who has developed cough, fever, and tachypnea. Which of the following would the therapist expect to find confirming the suspicion of post-op atelectasis in this patient?
A) Decreased tactile and vocal fremitus
B) Hyperresonant percussion note
C) Bronchial breath sounds
D) Wheezes
Q2) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) open heart surgery.
B) craniotomy.
C) gallbladder removal.
D) splenectomy.
Q3) Which of the following is the least commonly found type of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Primary lobule
B) Lung segment
C) Lung lobe
D) Entire lung
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