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Clinical Practicum in Psychiatric Nursing Final Exam Questions - 819 Verified Questions

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Clinical Practicum in Psychiatric Nursing

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Clinical Practicum in Psychiatric Nursing provides students with hands-on experience in mental health settings, enabling them to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world clinical practice. Under the supervision of experienced psychiatric nurses and healthcare professionals, students engage in comprehensive patient assessments, develop therapeutic communication skills, and implement individualized care plans for individuals with a variety of mental health disorders. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, interdisciplinary teamwork, crisis intervention, and the promotion of mental wellness. This practicum helps students build confidence and competence in managing complex psychological conditions, preparing them for professional roles in psychiatric nursing.

Recommended Textbook

Psychiatric Nursing 7th Edition by Keltner

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36 Chapters

819 Verified Questions

819 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Me, Meds, Milieu

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the treatment team in an inpatient psychiatric unit institutes a new unit schedule that provides for all patients to be involved in activities continuously throughout both the day and early evening, which element of milieu management needs reflection and reconsideration?

A) Norms

B) Balance

C) Limit setting

D) Environmental modification

Answer: B

Q2) Which guideline should a nurse use when applying the components of psychotherapeutic management to the care of a patient with mental illness?

A) The nurse's role in milieu management is secondary to that of social work.

B) Omitting any one component usually will result in less effective treatment.

C) The most important element of psychotherapeutic management is drug therapy.

D) A therapeutic nurse-patient relationship is the most important aspect of treatment.

Answer: B

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3

Chapter 2: Historical Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) A key factor motivating passage of the Community Mental Health Centers Act in 1963 was that mentally ill individuals had been:

A) hospitalized only if they demonstrated violent behavior.

B) geographically isolated from family and community.

C) discharged before receiving adequate treatment.

D) used as subjects in pharmacologic research.

Answer: B

Q2) Which individual should the nurse assess as having the highest risk for homelessness?

A) An older adult woman with mild dementia who resides in an assisted-living facility

B) An adult with serious mental illness and no family

C) An adolescent with an eating disorder

D) A married person with alcoholism

Answer: B

Q3) Put these services in order from least to most intensive.

A) Day treatment

B) Hospitalization

C) Scheduled visits at a community mental health center

Answer: A, B, C

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Chapter 3: Legal Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which situation is an example of a tort?

A) The primary nurse does not complete the plan of care for a patient within 24 hours of the patient's admission.

B) An advanced-practice nurse recommends that a patient who is dangerous to self and others be voluntarily hospitalized.

C) A patient's admission status is changed from involuntary to voluntary after the patient's hallucinations subside.

D) A nurse gives a PRN dose of an antipsychotic drug to a patient to prevent violent acting out because the unit is short staffed.

Answer: D

Q2) Which patient should be considered for involuntary commitment for psychiatric treatment?

A) A patient who is noncompliant with the treatment regimen

B) A patient who sold and distributed illegal drugs

C) A patient who threatens to harm self and others

D) A patient who fraudulently filed for bankruptcy

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Psychobiologic Bases of Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of GABA. Which finding would be expected?

A) Reduced anxiety

B) Improved memory

C) More organized thinking

D) Fewer sensory perceptual alterations

Q2) A patient denies hunger despite ingesting fewer than 400 calories daily. The patient's problem might be associated with dysfunction of which structure?

A) Parietal lobe

B) Hypothalamus

C) Medulla oblongata

D) Reticular activating system

Q3) A patient demonstrates visual aphasia. The nurse can project that there is dysfunction in which cerebral lobe?

A) Temporal

B) Parietal

C) Occipital

D) Frontal

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Chapter 5: Cultural Issues

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Questions

Q1) A Hispanic parent says, "An old woman gave my baby the evil eye." The health care provider determines that the infant is physically healthy. The most culturally competent intervention would be to:

A) tell the parent that the baby is healthy and needs no treatment.

B) explain that the evil eye is a superstition and not a cause of illness.

C) encourage the parent to immerse the baby in cool water baths daily.

D) bring a root doctor into the consultation to restore the baby's lost soul.

Q2) At the time of discharge, a patient with a European-American worldview demands copies of all medical records. Which analysis most accurately explains the patient's behavior? The patient:

A) continues to experience mistrust of the team's truthfulness.

B) is probably planning to see an attorney about poor care.

C) values the written evidence of illness and treatment.

D) probably wants to edit the records for accuracy.

Q3) Culture is defined as a group's shared:

A) race and ethnicity.

B) values, beliefs, and norms.

C) biologic variations and psychological characteristics.

D) patterned behavioral responses that developed over time.

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Chapter 6: Spiritual Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) What information about a patient's perceptions and values would the nurse obtain by using questions from the HOPE tool? Select all that apply.

A) Healthy spirituality versus sick religiosity

B) That which gives the patient hope and meaning in life

C) Important personal spiritual practices

D) Role of religion in the patient's life

E) Sources of strength and comfort

Q2) A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia complains of demon voices coming through the television. Which statement by the nurse providing spiritual care would be most comforting to the patient?

A) "Rest assured that God will fill your heart with peace."

B) "I am concerned about your spiritual distress."

C) "God will hold you in the palm of His hand."

D) "God knows your every thought."

Q3) Which statement by a mentally ill patient best exemplifies sick religiosity?

A) "Suicide will result in eternal damnation for your soul."

B) "Your illness has nothing to do with insufficient faith."

C) "Questioning God is a common reaction to illness."

D) "Your illness is not related to sin."

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Chapter 7: Models for Working with Psychiatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient says, "It's my fault because I always make bad decisions. I should never have taken that job." Using a rational-emotive approach, how would the nurse respond?

A) "What can you do to solve your problems at work?"

B) "You're experiencing a great deal of stress right now. How can you manage it more effectively?"

C) "Can you describe a time in your childhood when your parents blamed you for things you didn't do?"

D) "Consider the words you are using to talk about yourself. Let's try to change those words to more positive ones."

Q2) Which statement by an adult would lead a nurse to suspect deficits in mastery of the developmental task of infancy?

A) "I have many warm and close friendships."

B) "I am afraid to let anyone really get to know me."

C) "I am always right. Keep your opinion to yourself."

D) "I am ashamed I did that wrong. Please forgive me."

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Chapter 8: Learning to Communicate Professionally

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Sample Questions

Q1) When observing and interpreting a patient's nonverbal communication, which nursing consideration is important?

A) Patients are usually aware of their nonverbal cues.

B) Verbal responses are more important than nonverbal cues.

C) Nonverbal cues have obvious meaning and are easily interpreted.

D) Nonverbal cues provide significant information but must be validated.

Q2) A patient is withdrawn, suspicious, and maintains physical distance from staff and other patients. Which intervention demonstrates appropriate use of touch with this patient?

A) Refraining from touch

B) Patting the patient's arm when fear is expressed

C) Reaching out to shake the patient's hand as an initial greeting

D) Placing an arm around the patient's shoulders while walking down the hall

Q3) A patient has difficulty expressing anger appropriately. The nurse encourages the patient to set realistic goals by stating:

A) "You seem to have problems expressing anger in a nonaggressive way."

B) "I thought you sounded angry when I told you it was time for group."

C) "What do you think needs to change about how you express anger?"

D) "What bothers you about your actions when you get angry?"

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Chapter 9: Working with an Individual Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient hospitalized for 6 days has made little progress toward outcomes written at the time of admission. The nurse decides that the lack of progress toward goals indicates that:

A) needs for reassessment exist.

B) discharge should be delayed.

C) nursing diagnoses were incorrect.

D) nursing interventions were inadequate.

Q2) A nurse plans to teach a group of patients the basics of the change process. How should the elements be sequenced for the presentation?

A) Assess the success of new behaviors.

B) Observe to gain awareness.

C) Draw conclusions about the problem.

D) Test new behaviors.

E) Determine that change is necessary.

F) None of the above.

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11

Chapter 10: Working with Groups of Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A positive outcome from attending a special-problems group is evidenced by which statement by a patient?

A) "You're a great group leader and kept things moving smoothly."

B) "This experience wasn't as bad as I thought it would be."

C) "I rely on the group to help me make decisions."

D) "I learned how my anger affects other people."

Q2) While a member of a group shares painful feelings of guilt, another member begins humming and tapping the side of the chair. Select the leader's best initial action with the disruptive patient.

A) Recognize that the behavior is an expression of anxiety, and do not interrupt it.

B) Say, "Please stop humming and tapping. It is disruptive to our group."

C) Say, "Please leave the group now. Your behavior is inappropriate."

D) Say, "You seem uncomfortable with our discussion."

Q3) What is the primary purpose of referring a patient to an activity group?

A) Assess the patient's social skills.

B) Provide cognitive and sensory stimulation.

C) Encourage socialization and communication.

D) Educate the patient about use of leisure time.

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Chapter 11: Working with the Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 15-year-old patient is hospitalized after a suicide attempt. The adolescent lives with his mother, stepfather, and several siblings. When performing a family assessment, the nurse must first determine:

A) how the family expresses and manages emotion.

B) the names and relationships of the patient's family members.

C) the communication patterns between the patient and parents.

D) the meaning the patient's suicide attempt has for family members.

Q2) When a nurse assesses a family, which family task has the highest priority to healthy family functioning?

A) Allocation of family resources

B) Physical maintenance and safety

C) Maintenance of order and authority

D) Reproduction of new family members

Q3) A nurse interviews a homeless parent with two teenage children. To best assess the family's use of resources, the nurse should ask:

A) "Can you describe a problem your family has successfully resolved?"

B) "What community agencies have you found helpful in the past?"

C) "Do you feel you have adequate resources to survive?"

D) "What is one thing you dislike about this family?"

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Chapter 12: Introduction to Psychotropic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse administering a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant should carefully observe the patient for symptoms related to:

A) dopamine excess.

B) decreased GABA level.

C) increased serotonin level.

D) decreased acetylcholine level.

Q2) An outpatient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been omitting doses of medication. Which questions should the clinic nurse ask to determine the reasons for the problem? Select all that apply.

A) "Are you experiencing any troublesome side effects?"

B) "Is the medicine affecting your sexual performance?"

C) "Does the medicine make you think slower?"

D) "Do you believe your dose is too high?"

E) "Do you believe you have an illness?"

F) "None of above"

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Chapter 13: Antiparkinsonian Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient teaching for a patient beginning an anticholinergic drug should include:

A) limiting fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

B) limiting strenuous activity on hot days.

C) eating small, frequent meals to decrease nausea.

D) wearing adequate clothing to prevent hypothermia.

Q2) A patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease begins levodopa therapy. The nurse understands that administration of levodopa will:

A) improve symptoms of Parkinson's disease by increasing dopamine in the CNS.

B) improve symptoms of Parkinson's disease by decreasing levels of GABA.

C) cause the patient to develop symptoms of depression and an unsteady gait.

D) lead to an increased risk of dysphagia.

Q3) When patients are treated with antipsychotic medications, a variety of side effects and adverse reactions may occur. Sequence the following list in order of intervention priority, beginning with the most urgent:

A) Akathisia

B) Dystonic reaction

C) NMS

D) Tardive dyskinesia

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15

Chapter 14: Antipsychotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) After an unsuccessful trial with fluphenazine (Prolixin), a patient's medication was changed to trifluoperazine (Stelazine). Three months later the patient is still hallucinating and delusional. What is the most likely explanation for the persistent symptoms?

A) Trifluoperazine (Stelazine) is a low-potency antipsychotic, and the patient might need higher doses.

B) The patient has not taken trifluoperazine (Stelazine) long enough to decrease symptoms significantly.

C) Delusions and hallucinations are negative symptoms of schizophrenia that do not respond to traditional antipsychotic medications.

D) Both fluphenazine (Prolixin) and trifluoperazine (Stelazine) are traditional antipsychotics, and the patient does not respond well to this class of drug.

Q2) A patient receiving a traditional high-potency antipsychotic medication should be closely monitored for:

A) adrenergic effects.

B) extrapyramidal side effects.

C) anticholinergic side effects.

D) changes in pain perception.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Antidepressant Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient took SSRI antidepressants during the third trimester of pregnancy. The newborn will be carefully assessed for neonatal:

A) temperature dysregulation.

B) serotonin syndrome.

C) seizure disorder.

D) diabetes.

Q2) A patient diagnosed with depression who has reported vague suicidal ideation will stay at home, have close family supervision, and make weekly visits to the health care provider. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) is prescribed. What is the benefit of bupropion in this scenario?

A) It has antianxiety properties as well as antidepressant effects.

B) It lowers the seizure threshold to a lesser extent than TCAs.

C) There is reduced potential for lethal overdose.

D) It stimulates appetite and weight gain.

Q3) Priority assessments for a patient beginning amitriptyline (Elavil) include:

A) nausea, diarrhea, and irritability.

B) seizures, agranulocytosis, and insomnia.

C) headache, sexual dysfunction, and weight loss.

D) history of falls, arrhythmias, and blurred vision.

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Chapter 16: Antimanic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patient would require careful assessment for toxic effects of lithium? The individual taking lithium and:

A) hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).

B) lorazepam (Ativan).

C) clozapine (Clozaril).

D) oxazepam (Serax).

Q2) A patient who has taken lithium for 6 months reports, "I go to the bathroom many times a day and pass large amounts of very pale urine." The nurse's action should be based on the understanding that these symptoms may indicate which problem?

A) Atactic toxicity

B) Uremic syndrome

C) Diabetes insipidus

D) Interstitial nephritis

Q3) Teaching for a patient who is to be discharged on a maintenance dose of lithium should emphasize the importance of:

A) keeping appointments for serum lithium level testing.

B) engaging in daily cardiotonic exercise.

C) reporting anticholinergic side effects.

D) maintaining a tyramine-free diet.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Antianxiety Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient took a benzodiazepine for 4 weeks but will now change to buspirone (BuSpar) for long-term treatment of anxiety. The benzodiazepine is tapered off as the buspirone is begun. Important information the patient should receive about buspirone is that it:

A) produces profound sedation.

B) will be effective in 7 to 10 days.

C) has a high risk for development of dependence.

D) is often associated with cross-tolerance with other CNS depressants.

Q2) The nurse would expect to administer flumazenil (Romazicon) for a patient:

A) in acute alcohol withdrawal.

B) with a benzodiazepine overdose.

C) with benzodiazepine-resistant anxiety.

D) with anxiety associated with a psychotic disorder.

Q3) A patient has taken diazepam (Valium) for 1 week for back spasms. The patient complains of "feeling sleepy all the time." The nurse should tell the patient:

A) "The dosage probably needs to be decreased."

B) "Drowsiness indicates a paradoxical reaction to the drug."

C) "Tolerance to the sedative effect of the drug will develop quickly."

D) "Sleepiness is an unavoidable side effect of non-benzodiazepine drugs."

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Chapter 18: Antidementia Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which receptors carry out primary functions of the parasympathetic nervous system? Select all that apply.

A) NMDA

B) COX-1

C) COX-2

D) Nicotinic

E) Muscarinic

Q2) A nursing assistant reports to the nurse that a patient diagnosed with AD is experiencing severe diarrhea. Administration of which classification of medication is most associated with this problem?

A) ChE inhibitor

B) Secretase inhibitor

C) NDMA antagonist

D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug

Q3) Of the drugs given to treat AD, which one has a potential to slow neurodegeneration?

A) Galantamine ( Razadyne )

B) Memantine ( Namenda )

C) Rivastigmine ( Exelon )

D) Donepezil ( Aricept )

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Chapter 19: Over-the-Counter Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Alternative therapy refers to:

A) any natural therapy without a research basis.

B) evidence-based pharmacologic use of plant products.

C) therapies used in conjunction with Western medicine.

D) therapies not generally accepted by Western medicine.

Q2) Select the desired outcome for a patient who uses valerian. The patient will report:

A) a lower stress level.

B) undisturbed sleep throughout the night.

C) an increased interest in recreational activities.

D) awakening without an alarm clock in the morning.

Q3) An anxious patient diagnosed with diabetes says, "I'm considering taking angelica to help me relax." Select the best outcome for the plan of care. The patient will:

A) report subjective feelings of improved sleep.

B) identify other options to manage anxiety.

C) monitor fingerstick blood glucose daily.

D) rate anxiety as 5 or less on a scale of 10.

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Milieu Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse leading a social skills group is engaged in managing which environmental element?

A) Balance

B) Structure

C) Accountability

D) Risk management

Q2) A patient has been bumping and pushing other patients. The nurse carefully explains to the patient that such behavior is unacceptable. The nurse has provided:

A) balance.

B) limit-setting.

C) personal control.

D) environmental modification.

Q3) Which nursing action best supports maintenance of a therapeutic environment?

A) Creating therapeutic relationships with patients

B) Providing purposeful structured activities

C) Maintaining patient records and care plans

D) Administering medication

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Chapter 21: Variables Affecting the Therapeutic

Environment: Violence and Suicide

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Q1) A staff nurse tells a peer, "I find it difficult to deal with patients who have personality disorders. They can control their behavior, whereas patients with depression truly need my services." Select the peer's most helpful response.

A) "Even though it's bothering you, the patients seem to like you."

B) "Our clinical nurse specialist is a good resource to help you explore those feelings."

C) "Fortunately, managed care has reduced inpatient services for people with personality disorders."

D) "Your comment tells me you have personal problems. Maybe psychiatric nursing is not the best practice arena for you."

Q2) A patient has entered the escalation phase of the assault cycle. Select the most appropriate nursing intervention.

A) Direct the patient to the quiet room.

B) Process the incident with the patient.

C) Encourage ventilation of feelings.

D) Place the patient in seclusion.

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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Environment in Various Treatment Settings

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse working in an intensive inpatient psychiatric unit should place emphasis on which area of care?

A) Behavior modification principles

B) Personality restructuring and insight

C) Improving interpersonal relationships

D) Symptom stabilization and daily living skills

Q2) Which outcome of hospital-based psychiatric care should the nurse consider a priority for a patient to achieve before discharge?

A) Referral for vocational rehabilitation

B) Safe level of functioning

C) Medication stabilization

D) Problem resolution

Q3) A patient diagnosed with depression has a need for divisional activities. Which team member is best qualified to assess the patient's leisure needs and plan the interventions?

A) Occupational therapist

B) Recreational therapist

C) Exercise physiologist

D) Chaplain

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Chapter 23: Introduction to Psychopathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which assessment finding should be documented as subjective information?

A) Flushed face

B) White blood cell ( WBC ) count 12,000 cells/mL

C) Lithium level 1.2 mEq/L

D) Reports of abdominal pain

Q2) Long- and short-term goals are documented in which part of the plan of care?

A) Assessment

B) Diagnosis

C) Outcomes

D) Interventions

E) Evaluation

Q3) Prevalence rates for substance abuse disorders in the United States are:

A) higher for men.

B) higher for women.

C) equal for both genders.

D) higher than anxiety disorders.

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Chapter 24: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders

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Q1) A newly admitted patient is mute, immobile, and holds a fixed body position for long periods. The nurse caring for this patient should:

A) assign unlicensed assistance personnel to feed the patient.

B) provide a stimulating, active environment.

C) encourage independent social behaviors.

D) forewarn the patient before touching.

Q2) The family of a patient with type I schizophrenia asks, "Did this illness occur because of all the chaos in our family?" Select the nurse's best response.

A) "It is likely that the chaos in your family caused the disorder. It is very important for every family member to keep calm."

B) "Stress in your family may make the disorder more difficult to manage, but it is not the cause."

C) "Too little is known about the cause of this illness for anyone to speculate."

D) "That question would be best solveed by the psychiatrist."

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Chapter 25: Depressive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient diagnosed with depression paces and pulls at clothing constantly. The patient cannot sit for longer than 5 minutes, even at meals. How should the nurse document this behavior?

A) Perseveration

B) Hypomanic activity

C) Catatonic excitement

D) Psychomotor agitation

Q2) A patient with depression paces, pulls at clothing constantly, and cannot sit for longer than 5 minutes. The patient ruminates about being a "bad" person. Select the most effective nursing intervention.

A) Reassure the patient.

B) Direct the patient to lie down every 2 hours.

C) Ask the patient to assist in a simple, repetitive activity.

D) Seek a prescription for a PRN antipsychotic medication.

Q3) Which nursing diagnosis is almost universally applicable to persons with depression?

A) Ineffective denial

B) Disturbed body image

C) Chronic low self-esteem

D) Risk for other-directed violence

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Chapter 26: Bipolar Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse teaching about bipolar disorder should inform patients and their families of possible depressive symptoms. Which symptoms should the nurse include? Select all that apply.

A) Passivity

B) Aggression

C) Hyperactivity

D) Psychomotor retardation

E) Preoccupation with death

Q2) A nurse presents a psychoeducational program to patients with bipolar disorder and their families. Information about signs of impending relapse of mania should include:

A) diarrhea, thirst, and gross tremor.

B) sleep disturbances and racing thoughts.

C) decreased libido, anhedonia, and hypersomnia.

D) delusional thinking, excessive guilt, and passivity.

Q3) A medication teaching plan for a patient receiving lithium should include:

A) directions to eat one or two bananas daily.

B) dietary teaching to limit daily sodium intake.

C) the need to restrict daily fluid intake to 1000 ml.

D) the importance of laboratory testing to monitor the lithium level.

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Chapter 27: Anxiety-Related, Obsessive-Compulsive,

Trauma- and Stressor-Related, Somatic, and Dissociative

Disorders

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Q1) A patient with panic attacks awakens from sleep complaining of chest pain. The patient is diaphoretic and breathlessly says, "I feel like I'm going to die." Select the nurse's priority action.

A) Have the patient lie flat and relax.

B) Bring the crash cart to the patient's room.

C) Shake the patient and shout, "Are you okay?"

D) Instruct the patient to breathe into a paper bag.

Q2) If a patient's threshold set point for anxiety is lowered, the nurse can expect subsequent stressors to:

A) have a lesser effect.

B) easily reactivate the anxiety response.

C) produce marked personality disorganization.

D) be easily managed using familiar coping strategies.

Q3) The nurse would expect which comment from a patient diagnosed with depersonalization disorder?

A) "I feel like I'm outside my body, watching what's happening."

B) "I feel as though someone is reading thoughts in my mind."

C) "I know I have cancer, but the doctors can't find it."

D) "When I woke up, my legs were paralyzed."

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Chapter 28: Cognitive Disorders

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Q1) An older adult with dementia describes a pencil as "that thing that writes" and a water faucet as "the thing you turn." The nurse documents which problem?

A) Echolalia

B) Apraxia

C) Agnosia

D) Amnesia

Q2) An older adult presents with symptoms of delirium. The family says, "Everything was fine until yesterday." The most important assessment information to gather is:

A) a list of medications the patient currently takes.

B) whether or not the patient has experienced any recent losses.

C) whether or not the patient has ingested aged or fermented foods.

D) the patient's recent personality characteristics and changes.

Q3) What is the nursing care priority for a patient diagnosed with Stage 7 Alzheimer's disease?

A) Nutrition and hydration

B) Promoting self-care activities

C) Supporting attempts to communicate

D) Preserving problem-solving abilities

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Chapter 29: Personality Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse working with a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder expects:

A) grief and social isolation.

B) withdrawal and social avoidance.

C) mood shifts, impulsivity, and manipulation.

D) seductiveness, grandiosity, and overreaction.

Q2) A psychiatric technician says, "I get annoyed with patients who self-mutilate over things other people would ignore. I think they just do it to get attention." Select the nurse's best response.

A) "Many people feel the way you do. If you are unable to come to terms with the issue, we can transfer you."

B) "Self-mutilation is a serious problem. Patients with this personality disorder may complete suicide."

C) "We have to consider each case individually. Some are manipulative, and others are serious."

D) "You seem to be having difficulty empathizing and remaining nonjudgmental."

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Chapter 30: Sexual Disorders

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Q1) A patient approaches the nurse in the clinic waiting room and says, "I want to talk to you about a sexual matter." The nurse can best facilitate the discussion by:

A) saying, "Let's go to my office."

B) responding, "I want to help. Go ahead. I'm listening."

C) telling the patient, "Let's schedule another appointment."

D) offering to sit in a corner of the waiting room with the patient.

Q2) A nurse cares for a patient demonstrating paraphilia. The nurse expects the health care provider may prescribe which type of medication to reduce paraphilic behaviors?

A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

B) Erectile dysfunction medication

C) Atypical antipsychotic

D) Mood stabilizer

Q3) A senator develops a sexual relationship with a 20-year-old receptionist. Which adjective most likely applies to this relationship?

A) Harmonious

B) Consensual

C) Coercive

D) Illegal

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Chapter 31: Substance Abuse Disorders

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Q1) A patient with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has the nursing diagnosis impaired memory, related to neurotoxicity of alcohol. Which defining characteristic applies to this diagnosis?

A) Confabulation

B) Hallucinosis

C) Flashbacks

D) Blackouts

Q2) A patient in the emergency department says, "I took a drug that makes me feel like I'm outside my body looking at the world. Colors move like music." The nurse should assess that the patient:

A) probably has schizophreniform disorder.

B) has probably ingested a hallucinogen.

C) is experiencing formication.

D) is using confabulation.

Q3) The most serious assessment findings associated with barbiturate withdrawal are:

A) delirium and seizures.

B) muscle twitching and anxiety.

C) nausea, vomiting, and tremors.

D) orthostatic hypotension and weakness.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Eating Disorders

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Q1) To meet DSM-V criteria for bulimia nervosa, the patient's history must reveal episodes of binge eating and compensatory behaviors occurring at least:

A) once a week for 6 months.

B) once weekly for 3 months.

C) three times weekly for a year.

D) four times weekly for 6 months.

Q2) A patient diagnosed with an eating disorder refuses to be weighed and says, "I just drank a big glass of water." Select the nurse's best response.

A) "Call me after you have emptied your bladder."

B) "This is weight day. Please step on the scale."

C) "I will weigh you tomorrow."

D) "You know the rules."

Q3) Which information about a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa should the nurse document as subjective data?

A) Scarred fingers

B) Sores around mouth

C) Loss of tooth enamel

D) Feeling out of control

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Chapter 33: Survivors of Violence and Trauma

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Q1) Which intervention would be most therapeutic as a nurse cares for a victim of partner abuse?

A) Validate the truthfulness of the victim's comments.

B) Avoid pressuring the victim or disparaging the abuser.

C) Acknowledge the victim's inability to change the situation.

D) Encourage the partner to stay with the victim during an interview.

Q2) Which interventions should a nurse include in the plan of care for a woman who has been physically abused by a partner for 10 years? Select all that apply.

A) Be objective and nonthreatening.

B) Help the victim to assess strengths.

C) Make referrals contingent on leaving the abuser.

D) Inform the woman that marital counseling is rarely effective.

E) Help the victim recognize that the perpetrator's behavior is abusive.

Q3) What is the difference between incest and sexual abuse?

A) The two terms are interchangeable.

B) Incest is committed by relatives. Sexual abuse can apply to anyone.

C) Incest includes rape. Sexual abuse applies to voyeurism and molestation.

D) Incest occurs between a parent and child. Sexual abuse involves any other person.

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Chapter 34: Children and Adolescents

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Q1) In the waiting room a 5-year-old child diagnosed with ADHD bounces out of a chair, runs over to another child, and slaps the other child. What is the nurse's best action?

A) Direct the aggressive child to stop immediately.

B) Call for emergency assistance from other staff.

C) Instruct the parents to take the child home.

D) Take the child to another waiting area.

Q2) A desired outcome for a 12-year-old diagnosed with autism is to improve relationships with other children. Which treatment modality should the nurse suggest for the plan of care?

A) Reality therapy

B) Social skills group

C) Response prevention

D) Insight-oriented group therapy

Q3) Which behavior indicates that the treatment plan for a child diagnosed with autistic disorder has been effective? The child:

A) plays with one toy for 30 minutes.

B) repeats words spoken by a parent.

C) holds the parent's hand while walking.

D) spins around and claps hands while walking.

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Mental Disorders of Older Adults

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 65-year-old patient is diagnosed with late-onset schizophrenia. Both positive and negative symptoms of the disorder are present. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation. The nurse should prepare patient education materials related to:

A) chlorpromazine (Thorazine).

B) risperidone (Risperdal).

C) thioridazine (Mellaril).

D) haloperidol (Haldol).

Q2) The health care provider prescribes buspirone (BuSpar) for an older adult patient with generalized anxiety disorder and alcohol abuse. What is the nurse's expectation about the effects of this drug?

A) Buspirone is associated with psychologic dependence.

B) Buspirone manages anxiety without causing sedation.

C) Buspirone is associated with physical dependence.

D) Buspirone has a rapid onset of action.

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Chapter 36: Soldiers and Veterans

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Q1) When is it most important for the nurse to screen for signs and symptoms of post-combat PTSD?

A) Screening should be ongoing

B) Before departing to return to the United States

C) Immediately upon return from the combat zone

D) One year after returning from the combat experience

Q2) A combat veteran diagnosed with a mild TBI returned to college after discharge from the armed forces. The veteran began tutoring after scoring poorly in three courses. Which strategy can the tutor use to assist the veteran's academic achievement?

A) Decrease extraneous stimuli to improve attention span.

B) Practice deep breathing to increase the brain's oxygen supply.

C) Increase caffeine intake to counteract drowsiness and fatigue.

D) Play background music while studying to improve concentration.

Q3) A soldier experienced a TBI associated with acceleration-deceleration forces. Which part of the neuron was most likely damaged?

A) Axon

B) Dendrite

C) Telomere

D) Cell body

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