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Course Introduction
This course offers hands-on clinical experience for students pursuing limited radiography certification, focusing on the development of essential skills required for entry-level radiographic procedures. Under the direct supervision of licensed radiologic technologists and clinical instructors, students practice patient positioning, equipment operation, radiation safety, image evaluation, and effective communication within a healthcare setting. Emphasis is placed on professionalism, patient care, adherence to safety protocols, and application of theoretical knowledge to real-world scenarios. Successful completion prepares students to competently perform basic diagnostic imaging procedures within the scope permitted for limited radiographers.
Recommended Textbook
Radiography Essentials for Limited Practice 4th Edition by Bruce W. Long
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26 Chapters
1134 Verified Questions
1134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are possible consequences for practicing beyond the scope of practice of a limited operator?
1) Monetary fines
2) Revocation of license/permit
3) Imprisonment
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D
Q2) What do the initials RT(R)stand for?
A) Registered technologist (radiography)
B) Radiography technology (registered)
C) Respiratory therapy (registered)
D) Registered technician (radiology)
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequent adverse incident that can happen to a patient in the radiology department is:
A) nausea.
B) falling.
C) back pain.
D) pinching fingers in the Bucky.
Answer: B
Q2) The boxlike device attached under the tube housing that allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field is called a:
A) collimator.
B) transformer.
C) detent.
D) tube port.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding scatter radiation is true?
A) Scatter radiation is another term for remnant radiation.
B) Scatter radiation is created within the tube with the primary beam.
C) Scatter radiation has less energy than the primary beam.
D) Scatter radiation travels in one direction and is easy to control.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fraction in which the top number is larger than the bottom number is called a(n)_____ fraction.
A) proper
B) unnatural
C) improper
D) unconverted
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is equivalent to 0.25 seconds?
A) 250 milliseconds
B) 25 milliseconds
C) 2.5 milliseconds
D) 0.025 milliseconds
Answer: A
Q3) Which metric prefix is used to indicate 10?
A) Deci
B) Deka
C) Kilo
D) Centi
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atomic number of an atom is represented by the number of:
A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) neutrons.
D) protons and neutrons.
Q2) When an electron is removed from an atom,the atom is said to be:
A) radioactive.
B) a nuclide.
C) unstable.
D) ionized.
Q3) The process of converting alternating current into direct current for x-ray production is called:
A) rectification.
B) induction.
C) Ohm's law.
D) resistance.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When tungsten atoms are heated,their outermost electrons are moved out of the atom in space. This principle is called:
A) electromagnetic induction.
B) variable resistance.
C) quantum theory.
D) thermionic emission.
Q2) What are the four essential elements required for x-ray production?
A) A target, a vacuum, an electron source, and a high potential difference
B) A target, a source of electrons, an inert gas environment, and a high potential difference
C) A source of electrons, a magnetic field, a resistance-free path, and a target
D) A source of electrons, an electric field, a circuit, and a target
Q3) When exposure time is very short,the time is usually measured in:
A) milliseconds.
B) deciseconds.
C) kiloelectron volts.
D) angstroms.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nearly all new x-ray machines manufactured today use ______ generators.
A) 1-phase
B) 3-phase, 6-pulse
C) 3-phase, 12-pulse
D) high-frequency
Q2) What type of circuit in a high-frequency generator brings the x-ray frequency up to the very high level needed to produce x-rays?
A) Inverter circuit
B) AEC circuit
C) APR circuit
D) High-voltage circuit
Q3) The x-ray tube capacity for a single exposure can be determined by consulting the:
A) tube rating chart.
B) generator manual.
C) kVp maximum setting.
D) mA maximum setting.
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an image demonstrates little or low difference between the densities,the image is described as:
A) poor quality.
B) high quality.
C) poor contrast.
D) low contrast.
Q2) Higher kVp settings produce images with:
A) long-scale contrast.
B) short-scale contrast.
C) high contrast.
D) little or no recorded detail.
Q3) The principle means of controlling involuntary motion is to:
A) decrease in SID.
B) decrease in exposure time (seconds).
C) increase in exposure time (seconds).
D) increase in OID.
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When there is foreign matter inside the CR imaging plate,an artifact may be shown called:
A) quantum mottle.
B) Moire pattern.
C) light spots.
D) extraneous line patterns.
Q2) Which of the following should be checked regularly on the viewing monitor?
1) Viewing surface and air flow
2) Image quality using a test pattern
3) Resolution
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Barium fluorohalide with europium is used:
A) in the CR reader to erase the image.
B) in the CR reader to remove the image and process it.
C) as the phosphor that absorbs the x-ray energy in the imaging plate.
D) as the phosphor that absorbs the x-ray energy in the flat-panel detector.
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compton scatter that is directed from the patient back toward the x-ray tube is called:
A) backscatter.
B) front scatter.
C) side scatter.
D) coherent scatter.
Q2) If the body part is thicker or larger,the amount of scatter radiation fog will:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) remain the same.
D) increase, depending on the kVp level.
Q3) Grids with lead strips that are aligned to coincide with the primary beam angle are called _____ grids.
A) crosshatch
B) focused
C) parallel
D) Bucky
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technical factor should be used to correct problems with radiographic density?
A) SID
B) Grid ratio
C) mAs
D) kVp
Q2) Which of the following,if changed permanently,would require a change in the technique chart?
1) kVp
2) mA
3) SID
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which of the following are types of technique charts?
A) Variable mAs and fixed mAs
B) Variable mAs and variable kVp
C) Variable kVp and fixed kVp
D) Variable kVp and fixed mAs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following radiation values will always be an equal dose in diagnostic radiology?
A) Absorbed dose and exposure
B) Absorbed dose and equivalent dose
C) Absorbed dose and effective dose
D) Absorbed dose and cumulative effective dose
Q2) A personnel monitor cannot measure exposures less than _____ mSv.
A) 0.025
B) 0.05
C) 0.50
D) 1.0
Q3) The NCRP recommended monthly equivalent dose limit for a pregnant worker is _____ mSv.
A) 0.25
B) 0.5
C) 0.7
D) 0.9
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Sample Questions
Q1) Observed,objective manifestations of disease are called:
A) symptoms.
B) signs.
C) syndrome.
D) lesions.
Q2) When the cause of a disease is unknown,then the disease is classified as:
A) iatrogenic.
B) idiopathic.
C) endogenous.
D) nosocomial.
Q3) What term is used to denote the spread of malignant neoplasm?
A) Metastasis
B) Neoplasm
C) Edema
D) Atrophy
Q4) The study of diseases or abnormal conditions of the body is termed:
A) anatomy.
B) pathology.
C) physiology.
D) psychology.
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75 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does a Colles fracture occur?
A) In the scaphoid carpal bone
B) In the fifth metacarpal
C) In the AC joints
D) In the distal radius
Q2) Which surface of the hand should be in contact with the IR for the PA projection?
A) Lateral
B) Medial
C) Posterior (dorsal)
D) Anterior (palmar)
Q3) What is the proper CR angle and direction on the PA axial projection of the clavicle?
A) 35 to 45 degrees cephalic
B) 35 to 45 degrees caudal
C) 13 to 30 degrees cephalic
D) 13 to 30 degrees caudal
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the leg is extended,the ankle is dorsiflexed to form an angle of 90 degrees between foot and leg,the leg is rotated medially approximately 15 degrees,and the CR is perpendicular to the IR through the midpoint between the malleoli,the resulting image demonstrates:
A) an axial projection of the calcaneus.
B) an AP projection of the tarsals and metatarsals.
C) the ankle mortise, especially the talofibular articulation.
D) the cuboid and the third cuneiform.
Q2) Which of the following radiographic methods is used to demonstrate the patella and the femoropatellar joint space?
A) Holmblad method
B) Camp-Coventry method
C) Settegast method
D) Grashey method
Q3) How are the toes identified?
A) The toes are numbered 1 to 5 beginning on the medial side.
B) The toes are numbered 1 to 5 beginning on the lateral side.
C) The toes are referred to as digits without identifying numbers.
D) The toes have individual names.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of the spine that contains seven vertebrae and has a lordotic curve is the:
A) cervical spine.
B) thoracic spine.
C) lumbar spine.
D) sacrum.
Q2) Why should a cross-table (dorsal decubitus)lateral projection of the cervical spine be performed and evaluated by a physician before flexion and extension lateral projections are attempted?
A) To evaluate trauma to the cervical spine
B) To check for foreign bodies in the esophagus and/or trachea
C) To check for the proper exposure factors
D) To evaluate ligamentous injury
Q3) Which vertebrae have special facets for articulation with the ribs?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body habitus is characterized as massive and stocky in build?
A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Hyposthenic
Q2) The rounded,upper portion of the stomach is the:
A) pylorus.
B) fundus.
C) body.
D) ilium.
Q3) How many pairs of ribs are classified as "false ribs"?
A) The upper five pairs
B) The lower five pairs
C) The upper seven pairs
D) The lower seven pairs
Q4) The number of floating ribs is _____ pairs.
A) twelve
B) seven
C) five
D) two
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blow-out fracture involves the:
A) occipital bone.
B) mandible.
C) nasal bones.
D) floor of the orbit.
Q2) What is the term for the articulations between the cranial bones?
A) Glabellae
B) Sutures
C) Acanthions
D) Foramina
Q3) Which projection of the cranium best demonstrates the frontal bone?
A) AP axial (Towne method)
B) Lateral
C) SMV
D) PA
Q4) What positioning landmark is located at the inner corner of the eye?
A) Inner canthus
B) EAM
C) Nasion
D) Acanthion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an 8-year-old child cries and behaves more like a toddler,what is an appropriate response on your part?
A) Offer valid choices.
B) Shame the child into acting more grown up.
C) Tell the child you will spank him if he does not behave.
D) Restrain the child.
Q2) As the skeleton ages,the bones tend to lose their calcium content,becoming porous and more radiolucent. What is this condition called?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Osteomyelitis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteopetrosis
Q3) A valid choice is one in which both alternatives are:
A) acceptable to the patient.
B) acceptable to you.
C) inconsequential.
D) very similar.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following errors are evident in Figure 19-3?
1) The anatomy of interest is not centered to the IR.
2) There is too much density.
3) The blocker is in the anatomy of interest.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following will improve the quality of Figure 19-3?
A) Center the IR and CR more distal and right on the patient.
B) Center the IR and CR more distal and left on the patient.
C) Center the IR and CR more proximal and right on the patient.
D) Center the IR and CR more proximal and left on the patient.
Q3) Radiographs made with the patient in the ______ position are usually hung horizontally.
A) supine
B) prone
C) decubitus
D) upright
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Q1) The term "ethics" is defined as:
A) rules that apply values and moral standards to our actions.
B) right actions based upon religious teachings.
C) priorities placed upon concepts of morality.
D) legal requirements for behavior.
Q2) When communication has been "validated," this means that the speaker has done what?
A) Spoken clearly
B) Received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension
C) Presented the information accurately
D) Reviewed the material
Q3) Mrs. Elizabeth Dunbar is 86 years old and a bit confused. She is most likely to respond appropriately if you address her as:
A) Betty.
B) Honey.
C) Mrs. Dunbar.
D) Elizabeth.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done for a patient in the supine position who complains of being short of breath while lying down?
A) Place the patient in the Fowler position.
B) Assist the patient into a wheelchair.
C) Place a bolster support under the knees.
D) Call 911.
Q2) Standard precautions involve the use of barriers whenever contact is anticipated with which of the following?
1)Blood
2)Body fluids
3)Mucous membranes
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) If there is a fire in your immediate area,the first thing you should do is:
A) shout "Fire!"
B) call a fire code.
C) evacuate the area.
D) close the fire doors.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temperature readings are highest when taken with which of the following methods?
A) Rectal method
B) Oral method
C) Tympanic method
D) Axillary method
Q2) Which of the following measurements requires the use of a stethoscope?
1) Apical pulse
2) Blood pressure
3) Respirations
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Hot,dry skin is often an indication of:
A) pain.
B) fever.
C) lack of oxygen.
D) loss of blood.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unusual or peculiar reaction to a drug is termed:
A) idiosyncratic.
B) synergistic.
C) anaphylaxis.
D) toxic.
Q2) The principal role of the limited operator in medication administration involves:
A) determining what drug is needed.
B) determining the dose to be administered.
C) determining the route of administration.
D) preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.
Q3) Which antihistamine is most often encountered in the imaging department?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Adrenalin
D) Epinephrine
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for urinalysis reagent strips?
A) Color strips
B) Dip strips
C) Reagent dips
D) Dipsticks
Q2) The physician should be notified before urine is discarded if it is more than slightly hazy or tests positive for:
A) glucose.
B) fat.
C) alcohol.
D) chlorine.
Q3) Poisonous refuse or waste that is dangerous to living creatures is termed which of the following?
A) Biohazardous waste
B) Sharps waste
C) Isolation waste
D) Contaminated waste
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Q1) Which of the following is the proper sequence of the electrical impulse through the heart?
A) SA node AV node Purkinje fibers right and left bundle branches Bundle of His
B) Bundle of His AV node SA node right and left bundle branches Purkinje fibers
C) SA node AV node Bundle of His right and left bundle branches Purkinje fibers
D) AV node SA node right and left bundle branches Bundle of His Purkinje fibers
Q2) Which of the following is the correct weight of a patient if the scale is in balance with the lower bar set at 100 lb and the upper bar set at 38 lb?
A) 38 lb
B) 62 lb
C) 72 lb
D) 138 lb
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Q1) When positioning a proximal femur,the patient's feet should always be:
A) straight.
B) pointed inward.
C) pointed outward.
D) oblique.
Q2) What is the preferred region of interest when analyzing a forearm DXA scan?
A) Ultra-distal ulna
B) Ultra-distal radius
C) One-third (33%) ulna
D) One-third (33%) radius
Q3) When scanning a lumbar spine,what is one of the external landmarks used for placement of the central ray?
A) 2 cm below the greater trochanter
B) 2 cm below the iliac crest
C) 2 cm above the xiphoid process
D) 2 cm below the xiphoid process
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