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Clinical Practice in Respiratory Therapy Exam Review - 484 Verified Questions

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Clinical Practice in Respiratory Therapy Exam Review

Course Introduction

Clinical Practice in Respiratory Therapy provides students with hands-on experience in the assessment, treatment, and management of patients with respiratory disorders. Through supervised clinical rotations in hospital and community settings, students apply theoretical knowledge to real-life scenarios, mastering skills such as airway management, ventilator care, and patient monitoring. Emphasis is placed on professional communication, patient safety, and interprofessional collaboration as students develop competencies required for practice as respiratory therapists.

Recommended Textbook

Respiratory Disease A Case Study Approach to Patient Care 3rd Edition by James R. Dexter

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20 Chapters

484 Verified Questions

484 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3793 Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Patient Assessment

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75737

Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient has been found to have many eosinophils in his sputum smear.What is indicated by this finding?

A)Bacterial infection

B)Tuberculosis

C)An allergic reaction

D)This is normal

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following conditions is associated with copious amounts of sputum production?

A)Asthma

B)Emphysema

C)Bronchiectasis

D)Congestive heart failure

Answer: C

Q3) What is indicated by abdominal paradox?

A)Liver failure

B)Heart failure

C)Diaphragm fatigue

D)CNS disorder

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Introduction to Respiratory Failure

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient has a long history of COPD with CO<sub>2</sub> retention.He now is admitted for acute respiratory failure due to a lung infection.His PaCO<sub>2</sub> has acutely elevated to over 70 mmHg.The physician decides to intubate and use mechanical ventilation.What should be your goal with the mechanical ventilation?

A)Return the PaCO<sub>2</sub> to about 40 mmHg

B)Return the PaCO<sub>2</sub> to about 50 mmHg

C)Lower the PaCO<sub>2</sub> enough to return the pH to 7.35

D)Lower the PaCO<sub>2</sub> enough to return the pH to 7.50

Answer: C

Q2) What range is normally used for determining the appropriate tidal volume during initial mechanical ventilation?

A)4-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight

B)5-10 mL/kg of ideal body weight

C)10-15 mL/lb of ideal body weight

D)10-15 mL/kg of actual body weight

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Asthma

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75735

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following indicate(s)that your patient who is having a severe asthma attack is at a greater risk for respiratory failure and needs mechanical ventilation?

A)History of prior intubation

B)Steroid dependence

C)History of allergic reactions

D)A and B only

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following conditions is least likely to mimic the symptoms of an asthma attack?

A)Congestive heart failure

B)Bronchitis

C)Acute respiratory distress syndrome

D)Acute upper airway obstruction

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are caring for a COPD patient who is experiencing an acute exacerbation due to bilateral pneumonia which is not expected to resolve quickly.It has been determined that the patient needs ventilatory assistance.Which of the following approaches to positive pressure ventilation is NOT likely to be the best option?

A)Intubation with IMV

B)Intubation with pressure support

C)Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

D)Intubation with CPAP

Q2) Which of the following findings on the chest film suggests a more severe case of emphysema?

A)An enlarged right ventricle

B)Vertical positioning of the heart

C)Excessive vascular tapering

D)Horizontal positioning of the clavicles

Q3) What abnormality on the ECG suggests right axis deviation due to cor pulmonale?

A)Positive QRS in lead II

B)Negative QRS in lead I

C)Tall QRS waves in the limb leads

D)Small QRS waves in the chest leads

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Cystic Fibrosis

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the chances that a couple will have a child with cystic fibrosis if both parents are carriers of the gene?

A)1:2

B)1:4

C)1:8

D)1:16

Q2) What is the most significant health threat to patients with cystic fibrosis?

A)Pancreatic fibrosis

B)Recurrent pulmonary infections

C)Bowel obstructions

D)Sepsis

Q3) Your patient with cystic fibrosis appears to have a pulmonary infection.What organism is most likely involved?

A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B)Klebsiella

C)Staphyolococcus aureus

D)E.coli

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Chapter 6: Hemodynamic Monitoring and Shock

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What parameter is used to assess preload for the left ventricle?

A)CVP

B)PCWP

C)Systemic blood pressure

D)Pulmonary vascular resistance

Q2) What is the primary problem in patients with septic shock with regard to hemodynamics?

A)Elevated filling pressures

B)Reduced contractility

C)High fever

D)Low systemic vascular resistance

Q3) What percent of patients who have a myocardial infarction develop cardiogenic shock?

A)Less than 10%

B)About 25%

C)About 50%

D)About 75%

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8

Chapter 7: Pulmonary Thromboembolic Disease

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75731

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true about the use of "D-dimer" in evaluating the patient for PTE?

A)A value of >200 ng/mL is suggestive of PTE

B)Negative results are good evidence that PTE is not present

C)High values are proof of PTE

D)None of the above

Q2) How long is the patient with recurrent clots treated with anticoagulant therapy?

A)Three months

B)Six months

C)One year

D)Lifetime

Q3) When a larger pulmonary thromboembolism occurs in the lung,why does cardiac output drop?

A)Decreased filling of the left ventricle

B)Increased systemic vascular resistance

C)Increased filling of the right ventricle

D)Reduced contractility

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Chapter 8: Heart Failure

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true related to pulmonary dysfunction in patients with left ventricular failure?

A)With severe alveolar flooding,PaO<sub>2 </sub>is markedly decreased

B)With moderate left heart failure,FVC may be increased

C)With mild pulmonary vascular congestion,PaO<sub>2</sub> may be improved

D)PaCO<sub>2 </sub>may increase with severe pulmonary congestion

Q2) What is the 1-year survival rate for patients diagnosed with congestive heart failure?

A)25%

B)50%

C)75%

D)90%

Q3) Which of the following mechanisms is NOT helpful to the heart in compensating for a failing left ventricle and a falling cardiac output?

A)Increased contractility due to increased stretch

B)Increased heart rate due to release of epinephrine by the nervous system

C)Increased system vascular resistance due to release of catecholemines

D)Increased myocardial muscle thickness due to chronic high work load

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Chapter 9: Smoke Inhalation Injury and Burns

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75729

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is advised for the prevention of infection in the burn patient?

A)Wound covering

B)Room pressurization

C)Air filtration

D)All the above

Q2) Which of the following is/are a potential mechanism for the ARDS that accompanies some burns?

A)Surfactant dysfunction

B)Increased capillary permeability

C)Bacterial sepsis

D)All the above

Q3) What is the expected level of carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO)in the blood of nonsmokers?

A)<3%

B)3-5%

C)7-10%

D)15%

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11

Chapter 10: Near Drowning

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following physical examination findings is/are suggestive of neurologic injury?

A)Dilated pupils that respond poorly or not at all to light

B)Pulse rate below 60/min

C)Hypothermia

D)All the above

Q2) Which of the following facts is/are important to determine when a near drowning victim arrives at the emergency room?

A)The approximate temperature of the water

B)The length of time the victim was submerged

C)The victim's age

D)All the above

Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of chest compressions on a near drowning victim while still in the water?

A)They can only be done with two-person CPR

B)Use a rate that is twice that of normal

C)Compress more slowly and deeply

D)Do not attempt compressions in the water

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Chapter 11: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What plateau pressure should you accept while mechanically ventilating an ARDS patient to avoid barotrauma?

A)Below 20 cwp

B)Below 30 cwp

C)Below 40 cwp

D)Below 50 cwp

Q2) What is the normal static compliance?

A)60-100 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/mL

B)20-40 mL/cm H<sub>2</sub>O

C)20-40 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/mL

D)60-100 mL/cm H<sub>2</sub>O

Q3) Your ARDS patient is being mechanically ventilated with PEEP.The PEEP is increased from 10 cwp to 15 cwp.Subsequently,the mixed venous PO<sub>2</sub> drops from 40 mmHg to 32 mm Hg.What does this indicate?

A)PaO<sub>2</sub> dropped

B)Cardiac output dropped

C)PEEP should be increased more

D)The FIO<sub>2 </sub>should be increased

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13

Chapter 12: Chest Trauma

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your chest trauma patient has a PaO<sub>2 </sub>of 55 mmHg,a PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 58 mmHg,and a pH of 7.19. Her respirations are 36/min and shallow.Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A)Mechanical ventilation using assist-control with sedation

B)NPPV using BiPAP with settings initially at 12/4,and 3 L/min O<sub>2</sub> bleed in C)CPAP with an FIO<sub>2 </sub>of 0.40

D)High-flow non-rebreathing mask

Q2) Acute lung injury or acute respiratory distress syndrome is likely to develop following blunt chest trauma if

A)The injury severity score is <25

B)There is hypotension on admission

C)Patient is 15 to 25 years of age

D)Crackles are heard on inspiration

Q3) All of the following can result from blunt force injury to the larynx except:

A)Sudden airway occlusion from crushed larynx

B)Cricotracheal dislocation

C)Retropharyngeal perforation

D)Airway edema

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Chapter 13: Postoperative Atelectasis

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which two physical examination findings are commonly seen in patients with postoperative atelectasis?

A)Fever and cough

B)Tachypnea and cough

C)Tachypnea and late-inspiratory crackles

D)Bronchial breath sounds and bradypnea

Q2) Which of the following findings in the medical history of the patient about to undergo major surgery suggests that he/she may benefit from bronchial hygiene prior to surgery?

A)Significant smoking history

B)History of COPD

C)History of bronchiectasis

D)All the above

Q3) What surgical site represents the greatest risk for postoperative atelectasis?

A)Upper thoracic

B)Lower abdominal

C)Upper abdominal

D)Pelvic

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15

Chapter 14: Interstitial Lung Disease

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In ILD,damaged type I cells are replaced by

A)Fibrin deposits from inflammatory cells

B)Alveolar macrophages

C)Secretory type II cells

D)None of the above

Q2) Nitroturantoin,a well-known cause of ILD,belongs to which class of drugs?

A)Antibiotics

B)Chemotherapeutics

C)Anti-inflammatory

D)Cardiovascular

Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding coal worker's pneumoconiosis?

A)It develops in approximately 40-50% of exposed workers

B)It is usually associated with people known to have other allergies

C)It occurs in <0.5% of those regularly exposed to coal dust

D)When present,it rarely is a cause of significant functional impairment or disability

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16

Chapter 15: Neuromuscular Diseases

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75723

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement(s)is/are true regarding Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A)It often follows on the heels of an upper respiratory viral infection

B)It is typically,but not exclusively,an ascending paralysis

C)High protein levels in the CSF can be diagnostic

D)All the above

Q2) What breathing pattern is seen in patients with acute neuromuscular disease that weakens the muscles of breathing?

A)Deep and fast

B)Rapid and shallow

C)Slow and deep

D)Slow and shallow

Q3) What neurotransmitter is operable at the respiratory neuromuscular junctions?

A)Acetylcholine

B)Norepinephrine

C)Dopamine

D)Epinephrine

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Chapter 16: Bacterial Pneumonia

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these is not a pathway for organisms to enter the lungs in the adult?

A)Aspiration

B)From the blood

C)Inhalation

D)From the lymphatic system

Q2) All of the following are true concerning pneumonia except:

A)It is the sixth leading cause of death in the United States

B)It has reemerged in recent years with antibiotic-resistant organisms

C)Pneumonia is the most common fatal nosocomial infection

D)Community-acquired pneumonia often requires hospitalization

Q3) Factors that suppress the immune system include all of the following except:

A)Transplantation

B)AIDS

C)Leukemia

D)Poor hand washing

Q4) Specific immunological defense mechanisms include all of the following except:

A)Phagocytosis by leukocytes

B)Compliment

C)Antibodies

D)None of the above

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Chapter 17: Pneumonia in the Immunocompromised Patient

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75721

Sample Questions

Q1) Which antibody goes on to be the major one fighting an infection?

A)IgD

B)IgE

C)IgG

D)IgM

Q2) Which of these is not a principle characteristic governing immunity?

A)Recognition of non-self

B)Memory

C)Specificity

D)Simplicity

Q3) Which is/are true regarding antibodies?

A)They come in 5 classes: G,A,M,D,E

B)They are also called immunoglobulins

C)They originate from plasma cells

D)All the above

Q4) Which of these is the first antibody produced at the onset of infection?

A)IgM

B)IgD

C)IgE

D)IgA

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Chapter 18: Sleep Disordered Breathing

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75720

Sample Questions

Q1) After falling asleep,how much time usually passes before the healthy sleeper experiences a REM episode?

A)20 minutes

B)40 minutes

C)90 minutes

D)120 minutes

Q2) Your patient has obstructive sleep apnea due to obesity.What initial recommendations would you make to the patient?

A)Weight loss

B)Changing sleep position

C)Avoid sleeping pills

D)All the above

Q3) What is the treatment of choice for the patient with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea?

A)CPAP

B)Oral appliances

C)Surgery

D)Medications

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Chapter 19: Tuberculosis

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75719

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of the medications used to treat TB?

A)Chemical hepatitis

B)Skin eruptions

C)Bluish discoloration of the urine and saliva

D)Gastrointestinal upset

Q2) What percent of TB infections occur outside the lung?

A)0%

B)5%

C)15%

D)25%

Q3) What percent of new TB cases diagnosed each year around the world are from the United States?

A)4%

B)12%

C)18%

D)24%

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21

Chapter 20: Lung Cancer

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75718

Sample Questions

Q1) What has long been the gold standard among staging tests of mediastinal lymph nodes and offers possibility of biopsy?

A)Flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy

B)Direct laryngoscopy

C)Mediastinoscopy

D)Pleurocentesis

Q2) Which of the following imaging studies is/are useful in diagnosing lung cancer?

A)MRI

B)Chest radiograph

C)Chest CT scanning

D)All the above

Q3) What are the criteria for an exudative pleural effusion?

A)Elevated LDH

B)Elevated pleural protein level

C)Both A and B

D)Neither A nor B

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