Clinical Practice in Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Clinical Practice in Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary to assess, diagnose, and implement evidence-based interventions for individuals with acute and chronic cardiopulmonary conditions. The course emphasizes clinical reasoning, patient-centered care, and the integration of therapeutic techniques such as airway clearance, pulmonary rehabilitation, exercise prescription, and patient education. Through simulated and real clinical experiences, students will develop proficiency in performing cardiopulmonary assessments, monitoring vital signs, and collaborating with interdisciplinary healthcare teams, preparing them to deliver holistic care across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy 4th Edition by Ellen Hillegass
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22 Chapters
681 Verified Questions
681 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Systems
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physical therapist performs auscultation of the lateral portion of right middle lobe.Which of the following stethoscope locations BEST identifies this lung segment?
A)Adjacent to the fifth rib lateral right chest wall
B)Adjacent to third to fifth rib posterior right chest wall
C)Adjacent to the fourth rib lateral right chest wall
D)Adjacent to the eighth thoracic vertebra lateral chest wall
Answer: A
Q2) Pectus excavatum is BEST described as:
A)deformity of the sternum caused by trauma.
B)caved-in appearance of the chest.
C)diminished rib angle anteriorly.
D)conical shape of the thoracic cage.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following upper respiratory structures provide humidification?
A)Nasopharynx
B)Pharynx
C)Larynx
D)Nasal cavity
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Physiology of the Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events occur as a result of the diaphragm and external intercostals contracting to facilitate inspiration?
A)An increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity and lung reducing the intrapulmonary pressure
B)An increase in the pressure within the lung occurring due to Boyle's law
C)A decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity and lung increasing the intrapulmonary pressure
D)A change in the thoracic cavity and lung volume leading to an intrapulmonary pressure that exceeds the atmospheric pressure
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is the BEST way to measure oxyhemoglobin saturation?
A)Pulse oximeter
B)Hemoglobin blood test
C)Arterial blood gas
D)Pulmonary function test
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ischemic Cardiovascular Conditions and Other Vascular Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following determinants of myocardial blood flow will cause restriction to flow into restriction to flow into the capillary beds of the endocardium if elevated?
A)Diastolic blood pressure
B)Vasomotor tone
C)Resistance to flow
D)Left-ventricular end-diastolic pressure
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following risk factors has been shown to be associated with leukocytosis,lower serum high-density lipoprotein,elevated fibrinogen and plasma catecholamine levels,and increased blood pressure?
A)Elevated cholesterol
B)Physical inactivity
C)Diabetes
D)Cigarette smoking
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cardiac Muscle Dysfunction and Failure
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary hypertension is defined by mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP)and is considered abnormal in individuals with primary pulmonary hypertension recorded as:
A)>20 mm Hg.
B)>25 mm Hg.
C)>40 mm Hg.
D)>45 mm Hg.
Q2) In normal cardiac neurohumoral function,beta -adrenergic receptors facilitate which of the following physiological changes?
A)Increases heart rate and myocardial force of contraction.
B)Promotes vasodilation of capillary beds.
C)Activates the inhibitory G protein and inhibits adenylate cyclase.
D)Transmits stimulatory (Gs)or inhibitory (G1)signals to the catalytic unit.
Q3) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)is defined as which of the following statements?
A)Breathlessness or air hunger
B)Sudden shortness of breath in sitting
C)Sudden shortness of breath in supine
D)Dyspnea due to fluid in the lower portions of the lungs
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Chapter 5: Restrictive Lung Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a patient with restrictive lung disease energy expenditure is increased due to the increase in work of breathing and accessory muscle use.Which of the following exercise prescriptions would be MOST appropriate?
A)Upper extremity ergometer at low intensity for 5 continuous minutes
B)Upper extremity resistance training at moderate intensity,three sets of 8
C)Low-intensity walking in intervals with walking time equal to rest time
D)Moderate-intensity walking in intervals with rest time greater than walk time
Q2) Which of the following pathological occurrences associated with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)in premature infants causes the overall retractive forces of the lung to be greater than normal?
A)Inadequate surfactant production
B)Alveolar septal thickening
C)Abnormal alveolar epithelial permeability
D)Pulmonary hypertension
Q3) The primary causative factor of lung cancer is which of the following?
A)Asbestos
B)Passive smoking
C)Cigarette smoking
D)Air pollution
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is associated with local bronchiectasis?
A)Chronic aspiration
B)Radiation fibrosis
C)Inhaled peanut
D)Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Increased work of breathing and fatigue in a patient with asthma is BEST explained by which of the following physiological changes?
A)Narrowing of peripheral airways at all levels of the tracheobronchial tree
B)Increase in residual volume
C)Suboptimal length-tension curve of diaphragm/intercostals muscles
D)Ventilation/perfusion mismatching
Q3) Which of the pulmonary function test findings BEST indicates COPD?
A)High FEV ,high FEV /FVC,low residual volume
B)High FEV ,no change in FEV /FVC,low residual volume
C)Low FEV ,low FEV /FVC,high residual volume
D)Low FEV ,no change in FEV /FVC,no change in residual volume
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Chapter 7: Cardiopulmonary Implications of Specific Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Major pulmonary complications occur in patients who have had a stroke primarily due to which of the following residual effects?
A)Poor trunk posture associated with the hemiparesis
B)Muscular hypo- or hypertonicity associated with a stroke
C)Facial and pharyngeal muscle weakness
D)Physical inactivity
Q2) Microangiopathies refer to the thickening or damage to which of the following components of the vascular system?
A)Artery
B)Vein
C)Arterioles
D)Capillary beds
Q3) A gastric hormone that signals hunger and is involved in long-term regulation of body weight BEST describes which of the following hormones?
A)Neuropeptide Y
B)Orexin
C)Ghrelin
D)Insulin
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Chapter 8: Cardiovascular Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is positioned in supine and her legs are elevated to 45 degrees.In this position the therapist assesses the color of the legs,then places the leg in a dependent position to again assess the color.This procedure describes which of the following tests?
A)Venous filling time test
B)Rubor dependency test
C)Trendelenburg test
D)Homan's sign
Q2) Which of the following laboratory values is indicative of the possible occurrence of life-threatening arrhythmias?
A)Low levels of CO
B)Low levels of potassium
C)High levels of sodium
D)High creatinine levels
Q3) Elevated CK-MB levels in a patient after a hip surgery confirms the patient experienced some level of myocardial injury.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components of the ECG impulse represents the atrial kick or the delayed conduction of the electrical impulse by the AV node one-tenth of a second?
A)P wave
B)P-R segment
C)QRS complex
D)ST segment
Q2) The rhythm strip reveals the following findings:all P waves are upright,normal in appearance,and exist before every QRS complex,the P-R interval is between 0.12 and 0.20 second,the QRS complexes are identical and are between 0.04 and 0.10 second,the R-R interval is regular,and the HR is >100 bpm.These findings BEST describe which of the following?
A)Sinus bradycardia
B)Sinus tachycardia
C)Normal sinus rhythm
D)Atrial arrhythmia
Q3) Both an ST-segment depression or elevation and significant Q wave are indicative of an acute infarction.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Pulmonary Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about a volatile type of acid?
A)An example is lactic acid.
B)A type of acid that cannot change to gaseous form.
C)Most of this type of acid is metabolized by the liver.
D)This type of acid is regulated by the lungs.
Q2) Which of the following pathological conditions MOST likely will result in an increased total lung capacity (TLC)determined by a pulmonary function test?
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Atelectasis
C)Obstructive lung disease
D)Consolidation
Q3) Which of the following chest imaging techniques is considered the BEST diagnostic tool for determining the presence of a pulmonary embolus (PE)?
A)Computed tomography
B)Chest radiograph
C)Magnetic resonance imaging
D)Ventilation and perfusion scans
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12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular and Thoracic Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To drain air from the chest cavity,chest tubes are commonly placed in which of the following anatomical sites?
A)Fourth or fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
B)Eighth or ninth intercostal space at the midaxillary line
C)Second or third intercostal space at the midclavicular line
D)Fourth or fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic interventions would be MOST appropriate for a patient who had a thoracoabdominal incision?
A)Segmental breathing
B)Side bending stretching
C)Thoracic extension
D)Specific trunk mobility is contraindicated
Q3) You are evaluating a patient who is post a posterolateral thoracotomy procedure and is complaining of ipsilateral shoulder pain.Which of the following is LEAST likely a probable cause of the shoulder pain?
A)Diaphragmatic irritation referred by the phrenic nerve
B)Chest drain placed too far into the apex of the hemithorax
C)Operative positioning of the ipsilateral upper extremity
D)Developing atelectasis postoperatively
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Thoracic Organ Transplantation: Heart, Heart
Lung, and Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapy techniques is MOST important for a patient who is 1 day postoperative lung transplant candidate in which it is common the donor lung tissue is denervated?
A)Active cycle of breathing
B)Manual hyperinflation
C)Use of a flutter valve
D)Cough on a scheduled basis
Q2) Which of the following muscles is considered fatigue resistant and utilized in a cardiomyoplasty procedure?
A)Pectoralis minor
B)Lateral head of gastrocnemius
C)Latissimus dorsi
D)Rectus abdominus
Q3) Which of the following criteria is considered absolute for a heart donor?
A)No positive test for hepatitis B
B)History of chest trauma
C)Elevation of myocardial enzymes
D)Correctable valvular dysfunction
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Chapter 13: Monitoring and Life Support Equipment
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ventilation systems is MOST likely used when there is a need to disconnect the patient from mechanical ventilation for a prolonged period of time for ambulation training?
A)Continuous positive airway pressure
B)Bilevel positive airway pressure
C)Manual resuscitator
D)Venturi mask
Q2) During the process of taking a patient's blood pressure,the Korotkoff sound that increases in intensity with a distinct tapping is associated with which of the following clinical interpretations?
A)Systolic pressure
B)Blood flow increasing as artery compression is decreasing
C)Diastolic pressure in <13 years of age
D)Diastolic pressure in adults
Q3) Which of the following clinical signs is MOST indicative of respiratory distress?
A)Patient is wincing.
B)Color in patient's face is flushed red.
C)Paradoxical breathing.
D)Patient is shivering.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impairment of effective drug elimination in an elderly patient is MOST likely related to poor functioning in which of the following organs?
A)Cardiac conduction system
B)Liver
C)Kidney
D)Body composition
Q2) Which of the following organ is considered the principal organ of the first pass effect?
A)Stomach
B)Intestine
C)Liver
D)Kidney
Q3) Which of the following group of drugs mimics the activity of the endogenous chemicals of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)Sympatholytics
B)Adrenergic antagonist
C)Adrenergic agonist
D)Cholinergic agonist
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Chapter 15: Pulmonary Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronotropic is defined as which of the following?
A)Enhanced heart rate
B)Enhanced myocardial contractility
C)Lowered heart rate
D)Diminished systemic vascular resistance
Q2) The administration of adrenergic drugs is BEST provided by which of the following methods in order to target respiratory tissues more effectively and bypass systemic circulation?
A)Oral
B)Inhalation
C)Intramuscular
D)Intravenous
Q3) Which of the following medications is used clinically with a patient who may be struggling,fighting,or experiencing increased work of breathing while being mechanically ventilated?
A)Morphine
B)Valium
C)Neuromuscular blocking drugs
D)All of the above
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Examination and Assessment Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 68-year-old female patient reports shortness of breath during the activity evaluation at her first visit in the physical therapy clinic.She has a history of obesity,diabetes,and hypertension.Which of the following clinical signs or symptoms
MOST likely indicates an angina equivalent?
A)The patient's recovery from the shortness of breath takes a while,but eases with a cool down walk.
B)The patient's shortness of breath goes away with rest sitting in a chair.
C)The patient commented that she has not exercised in a long time.
D)The patient commented that she has esophageal reflux and has a history of asthma.
Q2) Which of the following symptoms should be considered a cardiac symptom until cardiac dysfunction is ruled out?
A)Chest tightness or pressure
B)Shortness of breath
C)Burning or indigestion
D)All of the above
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Chapter 17: Interventions for Acute Cardiopulmonary Conditions
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Q1) A patient experiencing dyspnea my lean forward on supported hands.Which of the following statements provides the BEST rationale for why this position relieves dyspnea?
A)Respiratory muscle length is shortened.
B)Intra-abdominal pressure is reduced.
C)Improved respiratory accessory muscle action on the rib cage.
D)Provides a position of rest for the patient.
Q2) A patient who is removed from mechanical ventilation to breathe spontaneously on supplemental O for progressively longer periods of time is BEST described by which of the following mechanical ventilation weaning methods?
A)Intermittent mandatory ventilation
B)T-piece wean
C)Pressure support ventilation
D)Positive end-expiratory pressure
Q3) Which of the following conditions is an indication for airway clearance procedures?
A)Dry,nonproductive cough
B)Dyspnea with exertion
C)Excessive pulmonary secretions
D)Acute inflammation of the lungs
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Chapter 18: Interventions and Prevention Measures for
Individuals With Cardiovascular Disease, or Risk of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a sign of an abnormal response to exercise?
A)Undue dyspnea
B)Pallor
C)Excessive fatigue
D)Severe leg claudication
Q2) From a diet and nutritional viewpoint,which of the following changes in cholesterol levels will MOST likely result in a decreased risk of coronary artery disease and progression?
A)Decrease levels of HDL,LDL,total cholesterol,and triglycerides
B)Increase levels of HDL and decrease levels of LDL,total cholesterol,and triglycerides
C)Decrease levels of LDL and total cholesterol
D)None of the above
Q3) Patients with low functional capacity are generally not good candidates for cardiac rehabilitation due to failure to make reasonable progress.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements provides the BEST explanation about how performing general upper and lower extremity exercise can provide adequate stimulus for improving respiratory muscle endurance and strength?
A)Improves carbon dioxide removal.
B)Slows expiratory flow.
C)Increase both tidal volume and respiratory rate.
D)Increases alveolar ventilation.
Q2) Which of the following outcomes is NOT considered one of the major outcome areas that need to be measured in pulmonary rehabilitation?
A)Exercise capacity
B)Patient satisfaction
C)Symptoms
D)Health-related quality of life
Q3) Which of the following goals would be considered unrealistic for a pulmonary patient?
A)Learning and implementing strategies to relieve dyspnea
B)Increasing activity tolerance
C)Discontinuing supplemental oxygen use
D)Improving oxygen saturation levels during activity
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Chapter 20: Pediatric Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics is MOST associated with cyanotic lesions of the heart?
A)Flow is known as left to right.
B)Associated with polycythemia.
C)Pulmonary blood flow is increased.
D)Associated with low stroke volume.
Q2) When initiating an exercise program with a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF),the physical therapist should consider which of the following factors?
A)The patient is typically a child with different motivation.
B)Must be considered is an already demanding home treatment program.
C)The parents or caregiver are usually involved in care regularly.
D)Airway clearance is the primary focus for physical therapy.
Q3) Upon completing a thorough history of a child,the physical therapist should pause to observe which of the following conditions to provide a more complete picture?
A)Resting position
B)Mobility of ribcage
C)Functional mobility
D)Flexibility of extremities
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which of the following pathological conditions is associated with mechanical insufficiency or low-output (volume)insufficiency?
A)Congestive heart failure
B)Hypoproteinemia
C)Lymphedema
D)Chronic venous insufficiency
Q2) Which of the following tissues and organs are considered a part of the lymphatic system?
A)Thymus
B)Bone marrow
C)Spleen
D)All of the above
Q3) The lymphatic system is similar to the venous system in which of the following ways?
A)The presence of one-way valves
B)The ability of a vessel to contract via the autonomic nervous system
C)Immune defense
D)Key function is waste removal
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23
Chapter 22: Outcome Measures:a Guide for the Evidence
Based Practice of Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following psychometric properties reflects knowing if the test does in fact measure what it intends to by comparing it to a gold standard?
A)Intended population
B)Validity
C)Reliability
D)Minimal detectable change
Q2) The Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)prefers quality measures to focus on which of the following areas?
A)Psychological function
B)Patient satisfaction
C)Transition of the patient across settings
D)Length of stay
Q3) The categorical measure for assessing the impact of a disease on the life of a patient is considered which of the following data components?
A)Biological
B)Functional
C)Quality of life
D)Physiological
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