Clinical Pharmacy Technician
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
The Clinical Pharmacy Technician course provides students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to support pharmacists in clinical settings, such as hospitals and healthcare clinics. The course emphasizes the technicians role in medication management, patient safety, pharmacology, and the interpretation of prescriptions. Students learn about drug classifications, dosing calculations, sterile and non-sterile compounding, and clinical documentation. The curriculum also covers regulatory standards, pharmacy law, and professional communication, preparing graduates to assist in the delivery of patient-centered pharmaceutical care as valued members of the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 1st Edition by Kathy Moscou
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43 Chapters
867 Verified Questions
867 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binders and fillers are inactive ingredients but have no influence rate of drug absorption.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) proton pump inhibitor
Answer: B
Q3) The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA)was signed into law on March 6,2006,to regulate,among other things,retail over-the-counter sales of _____.
A)ephedrine
B)pseudoephedrine
C)phenylpropanolamine products
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) b-adrenergic blocking drug
Answer: A
Q5) calcium channel blocker
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption of orally administered drugs is greatest in the _____.
A)small intestine
B)large intestine
C)liver
D)pancreas
Answer: A
Q2) The body has to metabolize a drug before it is eliminated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The pharmacokinetic phases control the _____ of the drug's effect and the _____ of the drug action.
A)intensity,duration
B)duration,effect
C)mechanism,safety
D)length,efficacy
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repeated exposures to a drug,particularly narcotics,may result in a(n)_____ response to the drug.
A)increased
B)normal
C)decreased
D)adverse
Answer: C
Q2) undesired effects
Answer: A
Q3) _____,a drug used to treat heart disease,has a narrow therapeutic index.
A)Aspirin
B)Warfarin
C)Heparin
D)Digoxin
Answer: D
Q4) can be caused by ibuprofen
Answer: C
Q5) brings harm to developing fetus
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Having knowledge about IV drug incompatibilities is not necessary for pharmacy technicians.
A)True
B)False
Q2) milliequivalent
Q3) Drug interactions may increase or decrease drug side effects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Zyprexa/Celexa
Q5) Additive effects may occur when two drugs are administered concurrently.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When warfarin and _____ are administered together,excessive bleeding occurs.
A)acetaminophen
B)codeine
C)penicillin
D)aspirin
Q7) microgram
Q8) poor handwriting
Q9) no known drug allergies Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is labeled for use in the treatment of panic disorder,social phobia,and post-traumatic stress disorder.
A)Clomipramine
B)Fluoxetine
C)Clonazepam
D)Sertraline
Q2) alprazolam
Q3) an irrational fear of things that bring on anxiety
Q4) Some people have developed _____ after natural disasters like earthquakes and floods or human disasters like airplane crashes.
A)post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
B)generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
C)obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
D)panic disorder
Q5) The causes of anxiety may be _____.
A)environmental
B)biological
C)developmental
D)all of the above
Q6) only drug in the drug class azapirone
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Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serotonin is an inhibitory transmitter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dysthymia symptoms are more severe than those of bipolar disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tricyclic antidepressants have a _____ therapeutic index and can produce cardiotoxicity at doses that are _____ times higher than the therapeutic dose.
A)narrow,2 to 4
B)wide,2 to 4
C)narrow,4 to 6
D)narrow,6 to 8
Q4) Heredity plays no part in bipolar disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following does not precipitate depressive disorders?
A)hormonal changes
B)substance abuse
C)illnesses
D)gluttony
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Other Psychoses
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Not all neuroleptic agents bind to dopamine receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) quetiapine
Q3) Traditional neuroleptics are well absorbed in the following routes of administration except _____.
A)orally
B)rectally
C)parenterally
D)topically
Q4) Persons diagnosed with schizophrenia often see visions or hear voices that cannot be seen or heard by others.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)is a life-threatening side effect of neuroleptic administration.
A)True
B)False
Q6) risperidone
Q7) ziprasidone Page 10
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Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington's disease is a progressive and degenerative disease of neurons that affects _____.
A)muscle movement
B)cognitive function
C)emotions
D)all of the above
Q2) Characteristic signs of Parkinson's disease are _____,slowness in initiating and carrying out voluntary movements,accompanied by _____ and _____.
A)bradykinesia,muscle rigidity,tremors
B)muscle rigidity,muscle spasms,hyperkinesia
C)tremors,muscle spasms,hyperkinesia
D)none of the above
Q3) Mirapex
Q4) _____ are administered as adjunctive treatment of Parkinson's disease and to lessen drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms.
A)Anticholinergics
B)Antipsychotics
C)Analgesics
D)Anticonvulsants
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Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stroke and heart attack can cause seizures because the brain becomes deprived of
A)blood
B)oxygen
C)both a and b
D)nutrients
Q2) succinimide
Q3) Ethosuximide inhibits T-type voltage-dependent _____ channels.
A)calcium
B)potassium
C)sodium
D)a and b
Q4) Valproates should be used cautiously in people with a history of _____.
A)liver disease
B)kidney disease
C)depression
D)bipolar disorder
Q5) valproate
Q6) iminostilbene
Q7) barbiturate
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) salicylates
Q2) Nondrug treatments for pain include _____.
A)capsaicin
B)TENS
C)acupuncture
D)b and c
Q3) A patient using a patient-controlled analgesic device can get any amount of medication they need to control their pain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) mixed agonists/antagonists
Q5) The opioid antagonist naltrexone is also indicated for the treatment of _____.
A)opioid overdose
B)management of drug and alcohol dependence
C)help with withdrawal symptoms
D)all of the above
Q6) Prostaglandins are hormones that trigger pain response from central nociceptors. A)True
B)False
Q7) opioid agonists
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Migraine Headache and Alzheimers
Disease
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are used for treatment of migraines except _____.
A)serotonin antagonists
B)ergot alkaloids
C)antiseizure medications
D)MAOI antidepressants
Q2) sumatriptan
Q3) When using a triptan to treat a migraine,which route of administration produces the best results?
A)subcutaneous injection
B)intranasal administration
C)oral formulation
D)any of the above
Q4) rivastigmine
Q5) ergotamine tartrate
Q6) The most significant neurotransmitter that plays a significant role in Alzheimer's disease is _____.
A)dopamine
B)norepinephrine
C)acetylcholine
D)serotonin Page 15
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Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and Attention
Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the least common sleep disorder?
A)restless legs syndrome
B)sleep apnea
C)narcolepsy
D)insomnia
Q2) Sleep deprivation can cause motor vehicle accidents and trigger seizures,paranoia,and hallucinations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pharmacological treatments for insomnia are only recommended _____.
A)for patients with underlying diseases
B)for short-term use
C)for patients experiencing sleep apnea
D)if nothing else works
Q4) Our immune system is affected by a lack of sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patterns of sleep stay the same for all ages. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) drugs used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
Q2) An examples of a drug or substance that decreases acetylcholine (Ach)release is(are)_____.
A)botulinum toxin
B)magnesium
C)calcium
D)a and b
Q3) _____ neuromuscular blockers are drugs that act as agonists at acetylcholine receptor sites and produce sustained depolarization;causing the receptors to convert to an inactive state.
A)Polarizing
B)Eepolarizing
C)Neutralizing
D)None of the above
Q4) _____ is the only drug in the depolarizing blocker class
A)Ethosuximide
B)Succinylcholine
C)Acetylcholine
D)Mysoline
Q5) depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs used in the treatment of spasticity are grouped according to _____.
A)their site of action
B)centrally acting
C)peripheral acting
D)all of the above
Q2) Positive symptoms associated with spasticity include muscle weakness,decreased endurance,and reduction in the capacity to make voluntary muscle movements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cyproheptadine
Q4) Valium
Q5) Clonus is voluntary rhythmic contractions of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The goal of most drug treatments is to reduce the positive symptoms of spasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Baclofen
Q8) Dantrolene
Page 19
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following autoimmune diseases affect the muscles except _____.
A)systemic lupus erythematosus
B)dermatomyositis
C)myasthenia gravis
D)polymyositis
Q2) _____ in used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis and interferes with DNA repair and RNA synthesis,which effectively reduces the growth and spread of immune cells and therefore decreases the progression of the disease.It is also prescribed for the treatment of leukemia,breast and prostate cancer,and pediatric sarcoma.
A)Mitoxantrone
B)Hydroxychloroquine
C)Cyclosporine
D)Betamethasone
Q3) Immunosuppressive drugs work by _____.
A)interfering with the formation of immune cells
B)damaging RNA and DNA needed for replication
C)a and b
D)none of the above
Q4) Celoxib
Page 20
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Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease of the Bone
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bisphosphonates work by _____.
A)inhibiting osteoblast activity
B)interfering with recruitment,differentiation,and action of osteoclasts
C)inhibiting osteoclast activity
D)b and c
Q2) Which of the following is not a pharmacological treatment goal for osteoporosis?
A)increase bone density
B)prevent all fractures from happening
C)reduce risks for future fractures.
D)decrease the formation of bone
Q3) Zometa
Q4) Calcium _____ is most absorbable and easiest to tolerate.
A)carbonate
B)citrate
C)gluconate
D)chloride
Q5) Evista
Q6) Aredia
Q7) Fosamax
Q8) Didronel Page 21
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Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A uricosuric is drug that decreases the renal clearance of urates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gout is the primary disease associated with increased urate levels in the bloodstream (hyperuricemia).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Xanthine oxidase inhibitors block the final enzymatic step in the synthesis of uric acid.An example of a xanthine oxidase inhibitor is _____.
A)colchicine
B)prelone
C)allopurinol
D)a and c
Q4) Hyperuricemia can increase risk of coronary artery disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Joints are the main areas that are affected by gout.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) latanoprost
Q2) The classification of drug most commonly used for the treatment of glaucoma is
A)a-adrenergic antagonists
B)ß-adrenergic antagonists
C)carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D)prostaglandins
Q3) Patients suffering from glaucoma will lose their central vision first.
A)True
B)False
Q4) dipivefrin
Q5) Which type of surgery may be performed to reduce intraocular pressure?
A)lens removal
B)laser
C)choroidoplasty
D)none of the above
Q6) Tonometry is a diagnostic test that is performed to measure intraocular pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Vertigo and Other Disorders of the Ear
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Otic drops should be warmed to room temperature before administering into the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drug treatments for sudden sensorineural hearing loss include all of the following except _____.
A)glucocorticoids
B)vasoconstricting agents
C)plasma expanders
D)vasodilating agents
Q3) A home remedy for ear pain is _____.
A)salt water
B)sweet olive oil
C)lemon juice
D)baking soda
Q4) Carbamide peroxide 6.5% is the only approved agent for _____ removal.
A)earwax
B)fluid
C)bacteria
D)foreign material
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following viruses causes blepharitis,conjunctivitis,dendritic epithelial keratitis,corneal ulceration,stromal keratitis,endothelialitis,trabeculitis,scleritis,iridocyclitis,acute retinal necrosis syndrome,and more?
A)cytomegalovirus
B)herpes simplex virus
C)herpes zoster ophthalmaticus
D)b and c
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used to treat fusarium keratitis?
A)penicillin
B)natamycin
C)foscarnet
D)trifluridine
Q3) _____ is the second leading cause of infectious blindness in the world,according to the World Health Organization.
A)Toxoplasmosis
B)Macular degeneration
C)Onchocerciasis
D)Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Q4) otitis externa
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Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should nitroglycerin not be dispensed to the patient?
A)loose tablets in a prescription vial
B)in its original container
C)with a nonsafety cap
D)in an amber glass bottle
Q2) An adverse reaction such as a fatal drop in blood pressure can occur when _____ (treatment for erectile dysfunction)are administered to patients who are taking nitroglycerin.
A)NSAIDs
B)ß-blockers
C)phosphodiesterase inhibitors
D)a and c
Q3) Lifestyle plays a minor risk in angina.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pharmacological therapy for angina is administered to increase _____.
A)blood to the heart
B)oxygen supply to the heart
C)decrease the workload of the heart
D)all of the above
27
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg is an emergency and should be treated immediately.
A)170/100
B)175/105
C)180/110
D)all of the above
Q2) Which drug is recommended for hypertensive emergencies (parenteral use)and is safe for the treatment of preeclampsia in pregnant women?
A)fosinopril
B)hydralazine
C)nifedipine
D)labetalol
Q3) Which of the following drugs blocks the effect of aldosterone on sodium channels,decreases sodium reabsorption,and inhibits potassium elimination?
A)triamterene
B)spironolactone
C)amiloride
D)furosemide
Q4) spironolactone
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium channel blockers may be used in the treatment of ______ heart failure because they control heart rate,lower blood pressure,and treat ischemia.
A)systolic
B)left-sided
C)diastolic
D)any of the above
Q2) _____ are one of the few classes of drugs used in the treatment of heart failure that have been shown to reduce mortality (prolong life).
A)Diuretics
B)ACE inhibitors
C)Cardiac glycosides
D) -Blockers
Q3) Which is not one of the focuses of treatments used in heart failure?
A)treating symptoms
B)underlying causes
C)finding the right medication
D)identifying factors that worsen heart failure.
Q4) furosemide
Q5) metoprolol
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) Warfarin works by interfering with the formation of vitamin ___-dependent clotting factors.
A)B3
B)K
C)A
D)E
Q2) An example of an anticoagulant that is manufactured from pig intestines and cow lungs is _____.
A)heparin
B)warfarin
C)Coumadin
D)thrombin
Q3) HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
Q4) Hemolysis is the medical term for stopping or flowing of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Aspirin can be used for both myocardial infarctions and strokes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) fibric acid derivatives
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Class III agents
Q2) Class II agents
Q3) The current focus of arrhythmia management is _____.
A)cure
B)prevention
C)eradication
D)cardioversion
Q4) Which of the following is not a Class III antiarrhythmic agent?
A)amiodarone
B)bretylium
C)sotalol
D)lidocaine
Q5) The process of returning the cells to their resting state is called:
A)depolarization
B)repolarization
C)refractory period
D)polarization
Q6) Class I agents
Q7) digoxin and phenytoin
Q8) Class IV agents
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Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease,laryngopharyngeal
Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is currently the only prokinetic drug approved by the FDA.
A)Pantoprazole
B)Misoprostol
C)Metoclopramide
D)Sucralfate
Q2) There are some prescription and OTC medicines that can worsen GERD.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following pairs of drugs are H receptor antagonists?
A)Prilosec and cimetidine
B)Prevacid and ranitidine
C)famotidine and diphenhydramine
D)ranitidine and famotidine
Q4) An example of a mucosal protectant that decreases the susceptibility of epithelial cells that line the stomach and small intestine to damage by gastric acids,pepsin,and H.pylori is _____.
A)Protonix
B)misoprostol
C)metoclopramide
D)Aciphex
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Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel
Syndrome,ulcerative Colitis and Crohns Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) mesalamine
Q2) What are three common symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome,ulcerative colitis,and Crohn's disease?
A)bloating,constipation,cramping
B)abdominal pain,diarrhea,cramping
C)rectal bleeding,bloating,diarrhea
D)cramping,abdominal pain,bloating
Q3) Patients who have Crohn's disease may develop _____,which form when an ulcer tunnels from the site of origin to surrounding tissues.
A)ulcers
B)fistulas
C)diverticuli
D)none of the above
Q4) tegaserod
Q5) polycarbophil
Q6) loperamide
Q7) infliximab
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Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Budesonide
Q2) Exposure to occupational irritants does not contribute to developing COPD.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fluticasone
Q4) Omalizumab is administered by which route of administration?
A)sublingual
B)intravenous injection
C)subcutaneous injection
D)intranasal
Q5) Omalizumab
Q6) Which of the following are factors that contribute to the development of asthma?
A)positive family history
B)exposure to tobacco smoke
C)second hand smoke
D)all of the above
Q7) Albuterol
Q8) Oxygen therapy is a pharmacological treatment for COPD.
A)True
B)False Page 34
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antihistamines that cross the blood-brain barrier cause what type of side effects?
A)decreased alertness
B)have no effect on the brain
C)sedation
D)a and c
Q2) The only mast cell stabilizer used intranasally is _____.
A)cromolyn sodium
B)fluticasone
C)budesonide
D)clemastine
Q3) Which of the following antihistamines is also used for insomnia?
A)loratadine
B)fexofenadine
C)desloratadine
D)diphenhydramine
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile
Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ should not be used in conjunction with phosphodiesterase inhibitors.
A)Nitrates
B)Phosphates
C)Sulfides
D)All of the above
Q2) The risk for developing benign prostatic hyperplasia increases with _____.
A)obesity
B)hypertension
C)age
D)stress
Q3) Drugs currently marketed for the treatment of erectile dysfunction are _____.
A)phosphodiesterase inhibitors
B)PSA protein vasodilators
C)prostaglandin E analogs
D)a and c
Q4) Alprostadil is formulated for _____.
A)oral administration
B)intraurethral insertion
C)intracavernosal injection
D)b and c
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluids close to the same osmolarity as serum are called _____.
A)hypotonic
B)isotonic
C)hypertonic
D)serotonic
Q2) Management of dehydration requires all of the following except _____.
A)replacement therapy with oral electrolyte solutions
B)intravenous fluids
C)water alone
D)IV fluids with electrolytes
Q3) Intravenous fluids may be grouped into categories called _____.
A)colloids
B)crystalloids
C)osmoloids
D)a and b
Q4) Chloride is lost in all of the following ways except _____.
A)urine
B)saliva
C)sweat
D)stomach secretions
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Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the risk factors of thyroid disease?
A)gender,disease
B)aging,pregnancy
C)cancer,injury
D)a and b
Q2) The thyroid gland secretes hormones that have an affect on nearly all cells in the body._____ and _____ are thyroid hormones that function to regulate growth and metabolism.
A)tetraiodothyronine (T ),trioxythyronine
B)trioxythyroxine,triiodothyroxine
C)triiodothyronine (T ),tetraiodothyronine
D)monothyroxine and triiodothyrosine
Q3) It takes _____ months of therapy with propylthiouracil before maximum effects are achieved.
A)1 to 2
B)2 to 4
C)5 to 6
D)6 to 8
Q4) Tyrolar
Q5) Tapazole
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common symptom of diabetes?
A)polyphagia
B)polydipsia
C)polyglucosuria
D)polyuria
Q2) The focus for treatment of type 1 and type 2 diabetes is intensive control of _____.
A)blood glucose
B)blood pressure
C)diet
D)a and b
Q3) stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin when blood sugar levels are high,slows the emptying of the stomach,and causes decreased appetite
Q4) People with type II diabetes must always get what body part checked?
A)feet
B)hand
C)knees
D)all of the above
Q5) stimulates insulin secretion for pancreatic ß-cells,similar to sulfonylureas
Q6) increases tissue sensitivity to insulin but does not increases insulin secretion
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diaphragms are associated with a decreased risk of urinary tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Danazol
Q3) _____ is defined as irregular or excessive uterine bleeding resulting from a structural problem or hormonal imbalance that causes a disruption of blood supply.
A)Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B)Primary dysmenorrheal
C)Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
D)Amenorrhea
Q4) Most hormonal contraceptives were developed to prevent pregnancy by initiating negative feedback inhibition of _____ and _____ secretion.
A)estrogen,progesterone
B)FSH,LH
C)a,b
D)all of the above
Q5) bromocriptine
Q6) Ortho-Evra
Q7) GNRH analog
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluoroquinolones' mechanism of action is to _____.
A)inhibit the enzyme DNA gyrase
B)bind to the enzyme kinase
C)inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
D)a and c
Q2) Multidrug resistance is only a problem in the hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chloramphenicol should not be used in children because it _____.
A)is very toxic
B)may produce gray baby syndrome
C)causes cyanosis
D)all of the above
Q4) What is the most serious adverse reaction linked to aminoglycoside use?
A)hearing loss (ototoxicity)
B)kidney damage (nephrotoxicity)
C)liver toxicity (hepatotoxicity)
D)a and b
Q5) sulfisoxizole
Q6) telithromycin
42
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are classes of antiretrovirals except _____.
A)nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
B)non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
C)acyclic phosphonate nucleotide analog
D)fusion inhibitors
Q2) Which drug is not FDA approved,but is used for the treatment of herpes infections?
A)valacyclovir
B)cidofovir
C)acyclovir
D)foscarnet
Q3) Antiviral medications are effective against all viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The only drug in the fusion inhibitor class is _____.
A)abacavir
B)enfuvirtide
C)fosamprenavir
D)efavirenz
Q5) zanamivir
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an antineoplastic agent that are approved for the treatment of various cancers.
A)Bleomycin
B)Dactinomycin
C)Mitomycin
D)All of the above
Q2) _____ is a method used to describe how far the cancer has progressed within in the body.
A)Staging
B)Priming
C)DNA testing
D)None of the above
Q3) The use of drugs to kill or slow the growth of cancerous cells is called _____.
A)biological therapy
B)pharmaceutical therapy
C)chemotherapy
D)modulator therapy
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Chapter 38: Vaccines,immunomodulators,and Immunosuppressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunopharmacologicals that inhibit cell proliferations are known as _____.
A)immunostimulants
B)immunosuppressants
C)immunologicals
D)immunostabilizers
Q2) An example of a genetically engineered inhibitor of tissue necrosis factor (TNF)- that blocks the inflammatory process triggered by high concentrations of TNF is _____.
A)anakinra
B)RhoGAM
C)etanercept
D)muromonab
Q3) cyclosporine
Q4) etanercept
Q5) The temperature that must be maintained for an uninterrupted cold chain from the manufacturer to its final destination is _____.
A)2° C to 6° C
B)2° C to 8° C
C)32° F to 59° F
D)59° F to 86° F
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which route of administration is griseofulvin administered to treat onychomycosis?
A)topical
B)oral
C)subcutaneous into the nail bed
D)a and b
Q2) Which of the following is true about dermatophytes?
A)They live on the top layer of the skin,hair,and nails.
B)They are usually found in the mouth.
C)They thrive in the vaginal mucosa.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) _____ is the only antifungal belonging to the thiocarbamate class.
A)Tolnaftate
B)Thionate
C)Thymolate
D)Tolecinate
Q4) Athlete's foot (tinea pedis)is a common fungal infection that affects only athletes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common sites that are more likely to develop decubitus ulcers are over
A)soft tissue areas
B)bony prominences
C)exposed areas of the body
D)a and b
Q2) In which age group does the "rule of nines" work best?
A)children
B)adolescents
C)adults
D)all of the above
Q3) What type of treatment is used to promote debridement of necrotic tissue in dermal ulcers and severe burns?
A)antibiotics injections
B)sitz baths
C)collagenase
D)all of the above
Q4) All burned patients must receive appropriate tetanus prophylaxis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tiny little bumps that occur when normally sloughed skin cells become trapped in small pockets on the surface of the skin and are common in newborns are called
A)milia
B)heat rash
C)papules
D)lunula
Q2) Physicians describe acne as a disease of overactive hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following oral antibiotics is not first-line treatment for acne?
A)erythromycin
B)tetracycline
C)clindamycin
D)minocycline
Q4) Isotretinoin is classified in FDA pregnancy category _____ drug.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
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Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are nonpharmacological treatments for eczema except _____.
A)allergy shots
B)skin care regimens
C)phototherapy
D)avoidance of irritants
Q2) calcipotriene
Q3) A patient placed on azathioprine has called the physician's office complaining of nausea and vomiting.The patient should be advised that this drug may also cause which of the following?
A)increase in WBCs
B)drop in RBCs and WBCs
C)headaches
D)diarrhea
Q4) desonide
Q5) What is not the mechanism of action for pimecrolimus and tacrolimus?
A)inhibits t-cell activation
B)increases production of cytokines and interleukins
C)inhibit skin cell turnover
D)increases production of interferons
Q6) halobetasol propionate
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Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eurax
Q2) Lindane _____.
A)is neurotoxic
B)should not be used by anyone weighing less than 100 lb/50 kg
C)is only dispensed in 1- to 2-oz applicator bottles
D)all of the above
Q3) Pyrethrins are naturally derived from the _____ flower.
A)passion
B)chrysanthemum
C)periwinkle
D)coneflower
Q4) Anyone in the world can get a lice or scabies infestation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ovide
Q6) Body lice infestations are of serious concern because body louse may cause epidemics of typhus and louse-borne relapsing fever.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Nix
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