Clinical Pharmacy for Technicians Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course introduces pharmacy technician students to essential concepts and practices within clinical pharmacy, focusing on the important supporting role technicians play in healthcare teams. Students will learn about medication therapy management, interpretation of medication orders, patient safety, adverse drug event reporting, and the implementation of clinical guidelines in various healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on communication skills, interdisciplinary teamwork, and the ethical responsibilities of technicians in clinical environments, with hands-on case studies and real-world scenarios to bridge theoretical knowledge with practical application.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 2nd Edition by Kathy Moscou RPh MPH PhD candidate
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43 Chapters
1202 Verified Questions
1202 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1592
Page 2
Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which of the following routes are drugs administered directly into the bloodstream?
A)Enteral
B)Transdermal
C)Transmucosal
D)Intravenous
Answer: D
Q2) Binders and fillers are inactive ingredients but have no influence on the rate of drug absorption.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is not classified as a behind-the-counter (BTC)drug?
A)Motrin
B)Plan B
C)Sudafed
D)Insulin
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies indicate no risk to animal fetus;information in humans is not available.
A)Category A
B)Category B
C)Category C
D)Category D
E)Category X Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would be classified as pharmaceutical alternatives for Procardia (nifedipine)?
A)Procardia 10-mg capsules vs.nifedipine 10-mg capsules
B)Nifedipine 20-mg gel capsules vs.Procardia 20-mg gel capsules
C)Procardia 10-mg capsules vs.Procardia XL 30-mg tablets
D)Nifedipine XL 30-mg capsules vs.Procardia XL 30-mg capsules Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is not a major site of drug elimination?
A)Lungs
B)Kidney
C)Liver
D)Bowel Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measurements for a child would be the most accurate to use to calculate a drug dose?
A)Weight
B)Body surface area
C)Height
D)Weight and age
Answer: B
Q2) Can be caused by isoniazid
A)Adverse reaction
B)Hepatotoxicity
C)Nephrotoxicity
D)Teratogen
E)Carcinogen
Answer: B
Q3) Why would a hypersensitivity to a drug develop?
A)Enzymes in the body overreact to the drug.
B)Tolerance builds as the drug is taken.
C)Antibodies develop after the drug is taken.
D)Drug cannot be eliminated.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administering a drug to the wrong patient
A)Error of omission
B)Error of commission
C)Miscommunication error
D)Dispensing error
E)Administration error
Q2) Having knowledge about intravenous (IV)drug incompatibilities is not necessary for pharmacy technicians.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be an example of a patient-induced medication error?
A)Asking the pharmacist to describe side effects that may be caused by their prescription
B)Picking up a prescription earlier than their requested pick-up time
C)Requesting a refill when no refills are left on their prescription
D)Taking the prescription at various times of day,inconsistent with the directions
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Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is potentially fatal and produces symptoms of confusion,agitation,diarrhea,tremors,increased blood pressure,and seizures.
A)Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B)Serotonin syndrome
C)GABA inhibition syndrome
D)NE overload
Q2) Which drug is a benzodiazepine?
A)Alprazolam
B)Sertraline
C)Buspirone
D)Hydroxyzine
Q3) Drug used to treat anxiety
A)Phobia
B)Anxiolytic
C)Clomipramine
D)Buspirone
E)Hydroxyzine
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Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes why the inhibition of the reuptake of neurotransmitters to treat depression is therapeutic?
A)By blocking the reuptake,it allows the body to take a break from releasing metabolizing amino acids preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitters.
B)Inhibiting the reuptake prevents the neurotransmitters from binding,allowing them to stay in the synaptic cleft longer.
C)When reuptake is blocked,the neurotransmitters have a better chance of binding to postsynaptic receptor sites.
D)Blocking the reuptake allows for binding inhibition,leaving more "happy" neurotransmitters floating around.
Q2) Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine [5-HT])is an inhibitory transmitter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does not precipitate depressive disorders?
A)Hormonal changes
B)Substance abuse
C)Illnesses
D)Gluttony
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Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Psychoses
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risperidone
A)Risperdal
B)Seroquel
C)Geodon
D)Loxitane
E)Clozaril
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a "traditional" neuroleptic?
A)Chlorpromazine
B)Haloperidol
C)Thiothixene
D)Risperidone
Q3) Onset of schizophrenia typically occurs _____.
A)after age 45
B)before age 10
C)in the late teens
D)in the late 30s
Q4) Persons diagnosed with schizophrenia often see visions or hear voices that cannot be seen or heard by others.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain and Migraine Headache
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will indomethacin not treat?
A)Fever
B)Neuropathic pain
C)Inflammation
D)Back pain
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure drugs would be used to treat diabetic neuropathic pain?
A)Lamotrigine
B)Ethosuximide
C)Oxcarbazepine
D)Pregabalin
Q3) Mixed agonists/antagonists
A)Buprenorphine
B)Naltrexone
C)Meperidine
D)Aspirin
E)Naproxen
Q4) Prostaglandins are hormones that trigger pain response from central nociceptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Alzheimers Disease
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Namenda
A)Memantine
B)Donepezil
C)Rivastigmine
D)Galantamine
Q2) Reduced function of the _____ receptors is responsible for impaired memory.
A)dopamine
B)adrenergic
C)muscarinic
D)nicotinic
Q3) How do acetylcholinesterase (AChE)inhibitors help treat Alzheimer's disease?
A)They help form a protective lining around muscarinic receptors to only allow binding of ACh.
B)They increase levels of ACh by inhibiting AChE.
C)They help protect any remaining cognition and memory by antagonizing the receptors involved in memory.
D)They decrease levels of ACh by allowing AChE to metabolize ACh,thereby reducing the levels in the brain.
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13
Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vyvanse
A)Temazepam
B)Eszopiclone
C)Modafinil
D)Methylphenidate
E)Lisdexamfetamine
Q2) The Daytrana patch used for ADHD should be worn only for ____ and then removed.
A)9 hours
B)24 hours
C)3 days
D)1 week
Q3) Our immune system is affected by a lack of sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which drug can promote relaxation and sleep by binding to g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)receptors?
A)Diphenhydramine
B)Ramelteon
C)Atomoxetine
D)Secobarbital
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Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do neuromuscular blocking drugs work to cause muscle relaxation?
A)They block calcium channels,increasing the amount of ACh produced,which causes relaxation.
B)They increase the amount of inhibitory neurotransmitters.
C)They block all transmissions of excitement.
D)They increase the amount of inactivated ACh receptor sites.
Q2) Drug used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
Q3) Drugs that decrease ACh release or deplete the neuron of ACh will also cause _____ of muscles.
A)contraction
B)stiffening
C)relaxation
D)tremor
Q4) Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
15
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive symptoms associated with spasticity include reduction in the capacity to make voluntary muscle movements.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diazepam
A)Benzodiazepine
B)Antihistamine
C)Peripheral acting drug for the treatment of spasticity
D)GABAergic drug
E)a-Adrenergic agonist
Q3) Lioresal
A)Baclofen
B)Cyclobenzaprine
C)Metaxalone
D)Methocarbamol
E)Carisoprodol
Q4) Any condition that can damage the brain or spinal cord can cause decreased muscle contractility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do glucocorticoids help suppress the immune system?
A)They interfere with the formation of immune cells by damaging RNA and DNA needed for cell replication.
B)They inhibit the synthesis of antibodies that are responsible for attacking the body's healthy cells.
C)They increase levels of antigens in the body.
D)They increase leukocytes and T cells.
Q2) Which of the following is not considered an autoimmune disease?
A)Myasthenia gravis
B)Multiple sclerosis (MS)
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Q3) Why would methylprednisolone be prescribed as an alternate day therapy?
A)To minimize adverse effects
B)Because of its long half-life
C)Because elimination is slow
D)Because it is stored in fat so the body can use it when it needs it
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Page 17
Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Krystexxa
A)Prednisone
B)Indomethacin
C)Febuxostat
D)Pegloticase
E)Allopurinol
Q2) A uricosuric is a drug that decreases the renal clearance of urates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is used in the treatment of gout to increase the clearance of uric acid.
A)Urecholine
B)Probenecid
C)Prednisone
D)Allopurinol
Q4) Which of the following may cause the serious adverse effect of the breakdown of muscle fibers?
A)Colchicine
B)Febuxostat
C)Pegloticase
D)Probenecid
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) IOP is caused by buildup of _____.
A)plaques on optic nerve
B)pressure against the retina
C)aqueous humor
D)scar tissue on the lens of the eye
Q2) Which class of drugs is commonly used for the treatment of open angle glaucoma?
A)a-Adrenergic antagonists
B)b-Adrenergic antagonists
C)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D)Prostaglandins
Q3) Why would betaxolol be preferential for glaucoma treatment in patients who also have asthma?
A)It preferentially binds b -receptor sites and is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
B)It blocks only b -receptors and leaves asthma receptors unchanged.
C)It attaches to receptors that cause bronchodilation,increasing the effects asthma therapy.
D)It can be used as dual therapy because it will bind to the same receptors that asthma medication binds to.
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Disorders of the Ear
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an over-the-counter (OTC)drug used to remove earwax?
A)Carbamide peroxide
B)Acetic acid solution
C)Betahistine
D)Isopropyl alcohol
Q2) One of the most common causes of drug-induced tinnitus is _____.
A)opioid analgesics
B)aspirin
C)nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D)antidepressants
Q3) Water-clogged ears is another name for swimmer's ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which drug can be used but is controversial for the treatment of Ménière's disease because of possible ototoxicity?
A)Acetic acid solution
B)Diphenhydramine
C)Scopolamine
D)Gentamicin
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zymaxid
A)Ganciclovir
B)Albendazole
C)Gatifloxacin
D)Ofloxacin otic
E)Azithromycin ophthalmic
Q2) Which of the following drugs is not used to treat toxoplasmosis?
A)Pyrimethamine
B)Ganciclovir
C)Sulfonamides
D)Sulfadiazine
Q3) The most common cause of otitis externa is _____.
A)fungal infection
B)common cold
C)bacterial infection
D)placing foreign objects in the ear
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22
Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can antianginal drugs help decrease the workload of the heart and reduce angina?
A)By decreasing blood to the heart
B)By increasing vasoconstriction,thereby increasing oxygen supply to the heart
C)By increasing the heart rate
D)By reducing the heart rate,thereby reducing the demand for oxygen
Q2) Which of the following warning labels should be placed on a prescription for diltiazem?
A)Keep in original container.
B)Protect from light.
C)Avoid grapefruit juice.
D)Refrigeration required.
Q3) How do beta blockers help treat angina?
A)They reduce vasospasms that restrict the flow of blood and oxygen.
B)They block muscle channels in the heart that suppress depolarization and reduce contraction of the heart.
C)They reduce the workload of the heart,which reduces the heart's demand for oxygen.
D)They reduce heart oxygen consumption during exercise by decreasing heart rate and heart contractions.
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) If hydrochlorothiazide is prescribed with digoxin for heart failure,which of the following may occur?
A)Hyperkalemia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypokalemia
D)Hypocalcemia
Q2) Digoxin works by doing all of the following except _____.
A)increasing cardiac output
B)decreasing compensatory sympathetic activity
C)increasing potassium
D)slowing the heart rate
Q3) Which of the following would be prescribed to treat volume overload in heart failure?
A)Cardiac glycosides
B)Diuretics
C)b-agonists
D)a-agonists
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibric acid derivatives
A)Most effective at increasing HDL
B)Promote intestinal clearance of cholesterol
C)Most effective at lowering LDL
D)Increase clearance of very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
Q2) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors work by blocking the final pathway of platelet aggregation and are the only _____ antiplatelet drugs.
A)transdermal
B)parenteral
C)enteral
D)intrathecal
Q3) Zetia
A)Fenofibrate
B)Enoxaparin
C)Simvastatin
D)Clopidogrel
E)Ezetimibe
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26
Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease, Laryngopharyngeal Reflux, and Peptic Ulcer
Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following H receptor antagonists can cause the development of gynecomastia in men and inhibit several cytochrome P450 metabolic enzymes?
A)Cimetidine
B)Famotidine
C)Nizatidine
D)Ranitidine
Q2) For which of the following GI disease states are antimicrobials prescribed?
A)GERD
B)LPR
C)PUD
D)PID
Q3) Caltrate
A)Omeprazole
B)Sucralfate
C)Nizatidine
D)Metoclopramide
E)Calcium carbonate
28
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Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel Syndrome,
ulcerative Colitis, and Crohns Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polycarbophil
A)Imodium
B)Remicade
C)Asacol
D)Bentyl
E)Fibercon
Q2) Which of the following diseases is treated by administering prostaglandin E derivatives?
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)IBS
C)Crohn's disease
D)All of the above
Q3) In which case would Motofen not be recommended for treatment?
A)IBS
B)Ulcerative colitis
C)Crohn's disease
D)IBD
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important not to switch manufacturers of theophylline once a patient has established a good drug response to it?
A)The additives from the various manufacturers have shown to increase hypersensitivity to the drug.
B)The bioavailability differs from manufacturer to manufacturer.
C)The coloring used by different manufacturers has shown to increase side effects in some patients.
D)The half-life for theophylline varies greatly from manufacturer to manufacturer,so dosing may need to be adjusted.
Q2) Which of the following storage labels should be placed on a prescription for an inhaler?
A)Store above 78° F.
B)Keep refrigerated.
C)Store between 20° C and 25° C.
D)May keep refrigerated.
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment with which drug should be initiated 1 week before coming into contact with allergens and continued throughout allergen exposure?
A)Cromolyn sodium
B)Fluticasone
C)Budesonide
D)Clemastine
Q2) How do mast cell stabilizers reduce the activity of allergens?
A)They stabilize mast cells and prevent them from forming allergy-causing antibodies,thus stopping an allergic reaction.
B)They reduce allergy-causing antibodies from forming,thus preventing an allergic reaction.
C)They prevent mast cells from releasing allergy-causing substances,thus inhibiting an allergic reaction.
D)They decrease mast cell degranulation and the release of inflammatory substances,thus reducing the reactivity to allergens.
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile
Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would have an increased effectiveness when treating ED?
A)Alprostadil urethral insert
B)Alprostadil tablet
C)Vardenafil IV injection
D)Alprostadil IM injection
Q2) Why are alpha blockers typically dosed daily?
A)Longer half-life allows for daily dosing.
B)It is easier to remember if taken once daily.
C)Bioavailability is decreased when taken more than once a day.
D)It is metabolized faster when taken once a day.
Q3) Flomax
A)Terazosin
B)Finasteride
C)Tamsulosin
D)Vardenafil
E)Alprostadil
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32
Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthroid
A)Methimazole
B)Levothyroxine
C)Liotrix
D)Liothyronine
E)Desiccated thyroid
Q2) Which of the following may need a dose adjustment when taken with thyroid replacement drugs?
A)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B)Beta blockers
C)Hypoglycemics
D)Antidepressants
Q3) Thyroid levels are tightly controlled by the _____ feedback loop.
A)negative
B)positive
C)neurotransmitter
D)quantitative
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the most common form of diabetes.
A)Gestational diabetes
B)Type 2 diabetes
C)Type 1 diabetes
D)Diabetes insipidus
Q2) Which of the following is not a common symptom of diabetes?
A)Polyphagia
B)Polydipsia
C)Polyglucosuria
D)Polyuria
Q3) After being opened,Levemir should be discarded in how many days?
A)7 days
B)14 days
C)28 days
D)42 days
Q4) Which of the following is not true of gestational diabetes?
A)Women with gestational diabetes may have no symptoms.
B)Glucose levels are normally lower during pregnancy.
C)Gestational diabetes occurs early in pregnancy.
D)It can be caused by the hormones of pregnancy.
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plan B
A)Treats infertility
B)Treats amenorrhea
C)EC
D)Treats prostate cancer,advanced breast cancer
E)Treats endometriosis and fibrocystic disease
F)Birth control patch
Q2) Danazol
A)Treats infertility
B)Treats amenorrhea
C)EC
D)Treats prostate cancer,advanced breast cancer
E)Treats endometriosis and fibrocystic disease
F)Birth control patch
Q3) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)can be used when pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is present.
A)True
B)False
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36
Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrolide anti-infectives are used primarily for the treatment of _____.
A)upper respiratory infections (URIs)
B)lower respiratory infections
C)skin infections
D)bronchial infections
Q2) Sulfonamides are used in conjunction with _____ to treat various upper respiratory,urinary tract,and skin infections and AIDS-related pneumonia.
A)vancomycin
B)Retrovir
C)trimethoprim
D)penicillin
Q3) Doxycycline
A)Sulfonamide
B)Miscellaneous
C)Ketolide
D)Tetracycline
E)Fluoroquinolone
F)Penicillin
G)Macrolide
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Didanosine
A)Interferon
B)NNRTI
C)PI
D)NRTI
E)Neuraminidase inhibitor
Q2) Antivirals are not virucidal;they are virustatic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Efavirenz is teratogenic and classified in Pregnancy Category _____.
A)B
B)C
C)D
D)X
Q4) Abacavir is an ingredient in the triple antiretroviral therapy that combines it with zidovudine and _____.
A)didanosine
B)lamivudine
C)emtricitabine
D)saquinavir
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is associated with causing cancer of the cervix.
A)EBV
B)HPV
C)HIV
D)HBV
Q2) _____ is a method used to describe how far the cancer has progressed within in the body.
A)Staging
B)Priming
C)Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)testing
D)Biopsy
Q3) The oldest class of antineoplastic agents is _____.
A)phosphamides
B)alkerans
C)alkylating agents
D)phosphorylating agents
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Chapter 38: Vaccines, Immunomodulators, and
Immunosuppressants
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature that must be maintained for an uninterrupted cold chain from the manufacturer to its final destination is _____.
A)2° to 6° F
B)2° to 8° C
C)32° to 59° C
D)59° to 86° F
Q2) Immunosuppressants are used for all of the following disease states except _____.
A)multiple sclerosis (MS)
B)muscular dystrophy (MD)
C)rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
D)systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Q3) Elidel
A)Mycophenolate mofetil
B)Pimecrolimus
C)Tacrolimus
D)Daclizumab
E)Cyclosporine
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fungal infections cannot be cured using over-the-counter (OTC)drugs?
A)Vulvovaginal candidiasis
B)Thrush
C)Jock itch
D)Athlete's foot
Q2) Which of the following is not true about ringworm?
A)It is contagious.
B)It can spread between humans and animals.
C)It is not spread from person to person.
D)It is caused by a fungus,not a worm.
Q3) Pneumocystis carinii is a fungus that can cause pneumonia in individuals who have a decreased immune system response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Candida is called yeast and is a fungus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Q1) The severity of a burn is determined by the _____ of the burn.
A)treatment
B)cause
C)site
D)extent and depth
Q2) The risk of complication for burns is greatest when more than _____% of the body surface is burned.
A)25
B)35
C)40
D)50
Q3) A second-degree burn is a full-thickness burn.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which drug treatment for burns acts by destroying microbial protein and DNA?
A)Povidone-iodine
B)Bacitracin
C)Silver nitrate
D)Sulfur sulfadiazine
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs would be prescribed for acne that is caused by an increased production of keratin?
A)Azelaic acid
B)Adapalene
C)Tretinoin
D)Isotretinoin
Q2) The goal of acne treatment includes all of the following except _____.
A)heal existing lesions
B)stop new lesions from forming
C)prevent scarring
D)enhance skin tone
Q3) Which of the following agents is not an example of a retinoid used to treat acne?
A)Vitamin A
B)Adapalene
C)Tretinoin
D)Isoniazid
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Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is classified as a Class VII corticosteroid and can be used on the face?
A)Desonide
B)Betamethasone
C)Diflorasone
D)Hydrocortisone
Q2) Mometasone furoate
A)Enbrel
B)Elocon
C)Elidel
D)Gengraf
E)Ultravate
Q3) Etanercept
A)Enbrel
B)Elocon
C)Elidel
D)Gengraf
E)Ultravate
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44
Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Q1) Head lice most commonly affects children aged _____ years and their families;however,anyone can become infested.
A)1 to 5
B)5 to 9
C)3 to 11
D)2 to 15
Q2) The best way to get rid of head lice is to shave the head.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following drugs is not used to treat head lice?
A)Malathion
B)Crotamiton
C)Permethrin
D)Spinosad
Q4) Which drug could be the first line of therapy for head lice?
A)Lindane
B)Pyrethrins
C)Permethrins
D)Malathion
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