Clinical Pharmacology for Rehabilitation Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Pharmacology for Rehabilitation explores the principles of pharmacology with a focus on medications commonly used in rehabilitation settings. The course examines drug actions, side effects, interactions, and the impact of medications on physical and cognitive function. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pharmacological agents influence patient response to rehabilitation interventions, altering pain perception, muscle tone, cardiovascular response, and central nervous system activity. By integrating clinical case studies, students develop skills to recognize adverse drug reactions, optimize therapeutic outcomes, and collaborate effectively with healthcare teams in managing medication regimens for individuals undergoing rehabilitation.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) The point at which there is no further increase in the response to a drug even if the dosage continues to be increased is known as the
A) ceiling effect
B) maximal efficacy
C) potency
D) all of the above
E) A and B only
Answer: E
Q2) Drugs that can be purchased directly by the consumer without a prescription are also known as
A) nonproprietary medications
B) Schedule I controlled substances
C) Schedule II controlled substances
D) Schedule III controlled substances
E) over-the-counter drugs
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and
Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration EXCEPT the ____ route.
A) oral
B) inhalation
C) injection
D) topical
E) transdermal
Answer: A
Q2) The primary site for drug storage in the body is
A) muscle
B) bone
C) skin
D) adipose tissue
E) the brain
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by A) the liver
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: B
Q2) Variations in drug response may occur because of individual differences in the patient's
A) age
B) genetic background
C) gender
D) diet
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) Signals from the surface receptor are transduced into the appropriate response within the cell via intermediate regulatory proteins that are activated by binding guanine nucleotides,hence they are often termed ______ proteins.
A) activating
B) binding
C) controlling
D) nucleotide
E) G
Q2) Some drugs affect the function of the adenylate cyclase,an enzyme located on the inner surface of the cell membrane.This enzyme is responsible for hydrolyzing adenosine triphosphate (ATP)into _____,which acts as a second messenger that activates other enzymes (i.e.,protein kinases)throughout the cell.
A) adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
B) cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
C) acetylcholine
D) norepinephrine
E) adrenaline
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6
Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
Q2) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
C) antipsychotics
D) neuroleptics
E) antidyskinetics
Q2) Antidepressants such as paroxetine or venlafaxine can also be used to treat anxiety because
A) they may be an effective substitute for people who cannot tolerate the side effects of traditional antianxiety drugs
B) they may resolve certain cases of anxiety with less chance of addiction
C) many patients with anxiety also have symptoms of depression
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain newer or second-generation antidepressants such as fluoxetine (Prozac),paroxetine (Paxil),and sertraline (Zoloft)have received attention because of their ability to selectively affect ______ reuptake at certain CNS synapses.
A) norepinephrine
B) dopamine
C) acetylcholine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) According to the neurogenesis basis for depression,antidepressant drugs may increase the CNS production of ____,thereby leading to increased synaptic connections in the _____.
A) dopamine; basal ganglia
B) dopamine; hippocampus
C) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; basal ganglia
D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; hippocampus
E) acetylcholine; cerebellum
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as
A) intra-articular symptoms
B) extrapyramidal symptoms
C) spinocerebellar symptoms
D) dorsal column symptoms
E) malignant hyperthermia
Q2) Tardive dyskinesia is often the most feared motor side effect of antipsychotic drugs because
A) it is associated with muscle atrophy
B) it is associated with osteoporosis
C) it can cause cardiac dysrhythmias
D) it can cause peripheral neuropathies
E) it may be irreversible
Q3) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) Benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (Klonopin)are effective in controlling certain seizures because they increase the inhibitory effects of ______ in the CNS.
A) norepinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
E) gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) It appears that antiseizure medications can be successfully discontinued in a large percentage of people with seizure disorders,especially if these patients
A) have been free of seizures for at least 2 years while on medications
B) have a normal neurologic examination prior to withdrawal
C) were relatively young when the seizures started
D) all the above are true
E) antiseizure drugs can never be discontinued under any circumstances
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following characteristics of dopamine agonists are true EXCEPT
A) dopamine agonists cross the blood brain barrier
B) all clinically useful dopamine agonists must be given by parenteral (nonoral) routes
C) the half-life of a dopamine agonist is typically longer than the half-life of levodopa
D) dopamine agonists tend to have a lower risk of dyskinesias and other motor side effects compared to levodopa
E) some dopamine agonists can be administered transdermally by a patch
Q2) Neuronal death that occurs in Parkinson disease may ultimately be caused by the formation of harmful byproducts of oxygen metabolism,better know as
A) free radicals
B) dopamine antagonists
C) cholinesterase inhibitors
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
E) decarboxylase inhibitors
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about general anesthesia is (are)true?
A) Certain general anesthetics such as propofol can be used to sedate patients in the intensive care unit who are mechanically ventilated
B) most modern anesthetics seems to act on CNS neurons by binding to a specific receptor on that neuron
C) IV and inhaled agents can be used in various combinations to provide "balanced anesthesia" throughout surgery.
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Ideally,a general anesthetic should produce all of the following properties EXCEPT
A) loss of consciousness and sensation
B) amnesia (i.e., no recollection of what occurred during the surgery)
C) slow onset of anesthesia
D) inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
E) a minimum of toxic side effects (i.e., be relatively safe)
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthetics are sometimes used to treat complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS),known also as reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome (RSDS),by administering the drug
A) intra-arterially into the affected limb
B) near the sympathetic chain ganglia that innervate the affected limb
C) into the third ventricle of the brain
D) into the fourth ventricle of the brain
E) none of the above; local anesthetics are not used to treat this problem
Q2) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) Tizanidine (Zanaflex)may help reduce spasticity in some patients by ______ receptors in the spinal cord.
A) stimulating alpha-1
B) inhibiting alpha-1
C) stimulating alpha-2
D) inhibiting alpha-2
E) stimulating GABA
Q2) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Intrathecal administration of baclofen typically refers to drug delivery into
A) the epidural space
B) the subarachnoid space
C) a sympathetic chain ganglion
D) the third ventricle of the brain
E) the gray matter of the spinal cord
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?
A) sedation
B) increased respiration
C) constipation
D) orthostatic hypotension
E) mood changes (euphoria)
Q2) The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches,shivering,sweating,and so forth)after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is an example of
A) drug tolerance
B) physical dependence
C) psychological dependence
D) anaphylaxis
E) drug intolerance
Q3) When used to treat pain,opioids can be administered by all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) inhalation
B) intravenously
C) intrathecally
D) transdermally
E) orally
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandins are
A) small proteins that inhibit cellular inflammation
B) a specific type of lymphocyte involved in the inflammatory process
C) carbohydrates that regulate cell division
D) steroids that increase cellular metabolism
E) none of the above are true
Q2) High doses of acetaminophen (e.g.,15 g)can be especially toxic to the:
A) heart
B) liver
C) kidneys
D) stomach
E) brain
Q3) The _____ form of the cyclooxygenase enzyme seems to be responsible for producing beneficial prostaglandins that help maintain or protect function in specific tissues such as the stomach and kidneys.
A) COX-1
B) COX-2
C) COX-3
D) COX-4
E) no prostaglandins are beneficial in any tissues
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) In certain patients with osteoarthritis,viscosupplementation is preformed to restore the lubricating properties of synovial fluid by
A) administering oral anti-inflammatory steroids
B) administering oral NSAIDs
C) injecting anti-inflammatory steroids directly into the affected joint
D) injecting hyaluronan directly into the affected joint
E) injecting NSAIDs directly into the affected joint
Q2) When treating an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis in a specific joint,anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)can be injected directly into the joint,but the number of injections should be limited to _____ per year.
A) 2-3
B) 5-6
C) 8-10
D) 12-15
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient controlled epidural analgesia (PCEI)is achieved by administering drugs directly into the
A) superior vena cava
B) right atrium of the heart
C) third ventricle of the brain
D) subarachnoid space
E) none of the above are true
Q2) The technique where the patient self-administers small doses of a pain medication (usually an opioid)at relatively frequent intervals to provide optimal pain relief is known commonly as
A) traditional oral pain medication
B) intracranial drug delivery
C) patient-controlled analgesia
D) continuous transdermal drug administration
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
Q2) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
Q3) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
Q2) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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21
Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q2) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormally high activity in the renin-angiotensin system should be controlled pharmacologically because increased production of ____ causes ____.
A) angiotensin I; cardiac arrhythmias
B) angiotensin II; vascular smooth muscle hypertrophy
C) angiotensin I; angina pectoris
D) angiotensin II; cardiac arrhythmias
E) angiotensin I; vascular smooth muscle atrophy
Q2) Patients who overdose on diuretics
A) may become hyponatremic
B) may become hypokalemic
C) may lose too much fluid from the vascular system
D) all the above are true
Q3) Sympatholytic drugs such prazosin and doxazosin can directly decrease vascular resistance by
A) stimulating alpha-1 receptors on the arteriole
B) blocking alpha-1 receptors on the arteriole
C) stimulating alpha-2 receptors on the arteriole
D) blocking alpha-2 receptors on the arteriole
E) stimulating beta-1 receptors on the arteriole
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Variant angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm (known also Prinzmetal's ischemia)is best treated with A) nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) beta blockers
C) calcium channel blockers
D) alpha-1 agonists
E) alpha-2 antagonists
Q2) Angina pectoris can be permanently resolved (cured)in most patients after short term (2 week use)of
A) organic nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) organic nitrates such as isosorbide nitrate
C) beta blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) antianginal drugs do not sure this disease but only treat symptoms of myocardial ischemia
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24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While attempting to control one type of arrhythmia,antiarrhythmic drugs can exert "proarrhythmic" effects,which are indicated by
A) a delay of 4 to 6 weeks before these drugs become effective
B) common musculoskeletal abnormalities such as skeletal muscle fasciculations
C) their ability to aggravate or initiate other cardiac rhythm abnormalities
D) their ability to aggravate the proton pump in the stomach, resulting in gastric ulcers
E) their ability to increase body temperature and cause fever
Q2) An antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the effective refractory period of the cardiac action potential
A) will speed up repolarization of cardiac muscle cells
B) will generally increase heart rate
C) will decrease the time interval between cardiac action potentials
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digitalis exerts its primary mechanical effect by _____ the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane,which leads directly to an _____ intracellular sodium concentration.
A) stimulating; increase
B) inhibiting; increase
C) stimulating; decrease
D) inhibiting; decrease
Q2) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing excessive sympathetic stimulation of the failing heart are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q3) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19973
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who develop muscle pain and weakness when taking lipid lowering drugs such as atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)
A) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs because these muscle symptoms are usually not severe
B) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but resolve the muscle pain through strenuous resistance exercises
C) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but take an analgesic such as aspirin to control the pain
D) should be removed immediately from the drug because these symptoms may represent potentially serious myopathies
E) these drugs are not associated with muscle pain or weakness
Q2) Because of its ability to inhibit platelet activity,aspirin is used to prevent
A) myocardial infarction
B) ischemic stroke
C) hemorrhagic stroke
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary associated problem with most traditional sedative and antihistamine medications is
A) increased coughing
B) watery eyes
C) runny nose
D) gastric ulcers
E) sedation
Q2) Newer "second-generation" antihistamines such as cetirizine (Zyrtec)and desloratidine (Clarinex)may be preferred to traditional antihistamines because these newer drugs
A) cross the blood brain barrier more easily than traditional drugs
B) produce less gastric irritation than traditional drugs
C) bind to more subtypes of histamine receptors (i.e., newer drugs are less selective for the H1 receptor subtype)
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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28
Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To improve the health and well-being of people with cystic fibrosis (CF),____ can be given to ____.
A) digestant preparations that contain pancreatic enzymes and bile salts; improve digestion and absorption of nutrients
B) products that contain deoxyribonuclease enzymes; decrease the viscosity of mucous in the respiratory tract
C) glucocorticoids; decrease inflammation in the airway
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; decrease inflammation in the airway E) all the above
Q2) Drugs such as cimetidine and ranitidine that selectively block histamine type 2 (H2)receptors on stomach parietal cells
A) prevent the histamine-activated release of gastric acid
B) are available only by prescription
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)produced by the adrenal cortex are under the control of ____ from the hypothalamus which stimulates ______release from the anterior pituitary.
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
E) thyrotropin releasing hormone; growth hormone
Q2) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
Q3) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT
A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with mineralocorticoid-like activity (aldosterone agonists)are typically administered
A) to treat hypertension
B) to treat inflammation
C) as replacement therapy in people with low renin-angiotensin system activity
D) as replacement therapy whenever the natural production of mineralocorticoids is impaired
E) all the above are true
Q2) In general,steroids alter protein synthesis in responsive cells through a direct effect on the cell's
A) ribosomes
B) nucleus
C) golgi apparatus
D) mitochondria
E) lysosomes
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditional hormonal contraceptives such as birth control pills exert their effects by A) inhibiting ovulation
B) impairing the normal development of the uterine endometrium
C) increasing the thickness and viscosity of the mucous secretions in the uterine cervix, thus impeding the passage of sperm through the cervical region
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) In adult men,testosterone synthesis is stimulated by ______ hormone via a direct effect on _____ cells in the testes.
A) follicle stimulating; Leydig
B) follicle stimulating; Sertoli
C) luteinizing; Leydig
D) luteinizing; Sertoli
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of hypothyroidism typically consists of A) beta blockers
B) radioactive iodine
C) large doses of iodide
D) antithyroid agents such as propylthiouracil (Propyl-Thyracil) and methimazole (Tapazole)
E) none of the above are true
Q2) All of the following drug strategies can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women EXCEPT
A) estrogen replacement
B) bisphosphonates
C) Vitamin C
D) calcium supplements
E) calcitonin
Q3) All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
A) weight loss
B) bradycardia
C) insomnia
D) heat intolerance
E) muscle wasting
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Certain forms of biosynthetic insulin are absorbed more rapidly than regular human insulin because
A) other substances such as acetate or protamine have been added to the insulin molecule in increase absorption
B) zinc has been added to the insulin molecule to increase absorption
C) newer forms of biosynthetic insulin can be administered orally via slow-release or sustained-release preparations
D) the amino acid sequence of the insulin molecule has been altered to allow more rapid absorption
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Q1) Tendon pain and inflammation (tendinopathy)that can be severe and ultimately lead to tendon rupture may be caused by
A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) vancomycin
D) aminoglycosides such as gentamicin and streptomycin
E) fluoroquinolones such as ofloxacin
Q2) Aminoglycosides,erythromycin,the tetracyclines,and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______,thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.
A) nucleus; messenger RNA transcription
B) ribosome; messenger RNA translation
C) membrane; active transport
D) ribosome; passive diffusion
E) nucleus; messenger RNA translation
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) All of the following drugs strategies are currently approved by the FDA to treat HIV infection EXCEPT
A) drugs that inhibit the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme
B) drugs that inhibit the HIV protease enzyme
C) drugs that inhibit the HIV integrase enzyme
D) drugs that inhibit HIV entry into susceptible lymphocytes (i.e, HIV entry inhibitors)
E) drugs that stimulate the immune system to recognize and destroy the virus if a person is exposed to HIV (i.e, an HIV vaccine)
Q2) Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because
A) viruses contain organelles (ribosomes, mitochondria, etc.) that are naturally resistant to antiviral drugs
B) virus particles are much larger in size than other infectious microorganisms such as bacteria
C) viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q2) Severe,systemic fungal infections are more likely if
A) patients are taking systemic doses of glucocorticoids
B) patients are taking systemic doses of other antibiotics
C) patients have AIDS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Tapeworms (cestodes),roundworms (nematodes),and flukes (trematodes)are treated with
A) antifungal drugs
B) antiprotozoal drugs
C) anthelmintic drugs
D) antibacterial drugs
E) none of the above are true
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following drug categories is not used to treat cancer?
A) alkylating agents
B) antimetabolites
C) interferons
D) drugs that increase mitosis
E) endocrines
Q2) Most anticancer drugs exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because
A) these drugs have a high therapeutic index (TI)
B) most of these drugs are not approved by the FDA
C) most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells
D) these drugs all have extremely long half-lives, and tend to accumulate in the body for an extended period of time
E) the threshold dose of these drugs is typically much higher than other drugs
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
Q2) Drugs that block the interleukin-2 receptor (e.g.,basiliximab [Simulect],daclizumab [Zenapax])and prevent interleukin-2 from activating T lymphocytes can be especially helpful in
A) reducing the progression of HIV infection to AIDS
B) reducing the incidence of acute organ transplant rejection
C) treating antibacterial drug resistance
D) treating antiviral drug resistance
E) reversing resistance to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs
Q3) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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