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Clinical Pharmacology Exam Review - 833 Verified Questions

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Clinical Pharmacology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Clinical Pharmacology is the study of drugs in humans, encompassing the principles of pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, drug metabolism, and therapeutic uses. This course provides a comprehensive understanding of how medications are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body, as well as their mechanisms of action and adverse effects. Emphasis is placed on rational drug prescribing, individualized therapy, drug interactions, the management of special populations, and understanding the regulatory and ethical aspects of clinical drug development. Through case discussions and real-world examples, students learn to integrate pharmacological principles with clinical decision-making to optimize patient outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert

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15 Chapters

833 Verified Questions

833 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3788 Page 2

Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75636

Sample Questions

Q1) Drugs that are released slowly once administered are referred to as formulations.

Answer: depot

Q2) The mechanisms responsible for metabolism of rifampin in the liver include: I.Drug oxidation.

II)Enzyme inhibition.

III)The cytochrome P-450 system.

A)I and II

B)I and III

C)II and III

D)I,II,and III

Answer: B

Q3) What basic safeguards should be followed in order to reduce medication administration errors?

Answer: Basic safeguards to prevent errors in medication administration include the six "rights." They are described as: making sure you identify the right drug,administer the right dose to the right patient at the right time via the right route,and complete the right documentation.

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Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage

Calculations

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75637

Sample Questions

Q1) The method used to convert between the English and metric systems is referred to as the factor-label method.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) A newborn's length at birth is measured as 45.7 centimeters.What is the newborn's length in inches?

A)17 in

B)18 in C)19 in

D)20 in Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following terms is a synonym for "active ingredient"?

A)Solution

B)Solute

C)Solvent

D)Saline

Answer: B

Q4) Weight is measured as ____________ or ________________ in the metric system.

4

Answer: grams or kilograms

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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System

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59 Verified Questions

59 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Elimination of norepinephrine at the synaptic cleft is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?

I)Reuptake

II)Metabolization by AChE

III)Metabolization by MAO

IV)Metabolization by COMT

A)I and II

B)I and III

C)I,II,and III

D)I,III,and IV

Answer: D

Q2) Drugs that antagonize the sympathetic response are known as ________________ or ________________.

Answer: antiadrenergics/sympatholytics

Q3) The neurotransmitter in the postsynaptic junction of the parasympathetic nervous system is norepinephrine.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments

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59 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A slow inspiration produces more ____________ flow and improves penetration of aerosol particles.

Q2) List the guidelines for patient selection for DPI use.

Q3) Aerosol deposition is defined as:

A)Particles falling out of suspension.

B)The depth to which the aerosol particles reach within the lungs.

C)The velocity at which the aerosol particles travel.

D)The ability of an aerosol particle to stay in suspension.

Q4) Advantages of delivering aerosolized drugs via inhalation include all of the following except:

A)Smaller drug dosage.

B)Quick drug response.

C)Variable dosage.

D)fewer side effects.

Q5) State a clinical condition that would require delivery of medicated aerosols to the upper airway.

Q6) SVNs are the most efficient type of nebulizer for delivering aerosolized medication to the lungs.

A)True

B)False

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators

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59 Verified Questions

59 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Side effects of beta agonists include all except which of the following?

A)Increased respiratory rate

B)Increased heart rate

C)Nervousness

D)Palpitations

Q2) The conducting airways are made up of three layers,the ________________,the ________________,and the ________________.

Q3) By what route are methylxanthines usually administered to patients with COPD?

A)Aerosol inhalation

B)Direct endotracheal instillation

C)Orally

D)Transcutaneously

Q4) An increase of cyclic GMP at cellular level causes smooth muscle relaxation,resulting in bronchodilation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The three classes of beta-agonists are____________,____________,and ____________.

Q6) The therapeutic range for theophylline is ____________.

Q7) How do resorcinols differ from catecholamines?

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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pulmozyme would be the treatment of choice for which of the following conditions?

A)COPD

B)Asthma

C)Heart failure

D)Cystic fibrosis

Q2) Pulmozyme should be administered using which of the following nebulizers?

A)Marquest Acorn II

B)Aeroneb

C)HOPE nebulizer

D)AeroEclipse

Q3) You receive a call from the attending physician of a 68-year-old patient with chronic bronchitis.He reports that the patient has very thick secretions that she is unable to remove from her airway and asks for your recommendations.The drug most indicated for this patient is:

A)Dornase alfa.

B)N-acetylcysteine.

C)Sodium bicarbonate.

D)Survanta.

Q4) The saline solution that is considered to be an expectorant is ________________.

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Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Leukotriene modifiers can be used as an alternative to low-dose inhaled steroids for long-term control of asthma.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents are available in MDI form?

I)Hydrocortisone

II)Flunisolide

III)Triamcinolone

IV)Solu-Medrol

A)I and II

B)II,III,and IV

C)II and III

D)I,II,and IV

Q3) Inflammation that occurs in the airways is usually in response to the release of IgG.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Cromolyn sodium can be used to relieve acute bronchospasm.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gram-negative infections are generally harder to treat than gram-positive infections.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Aerobic infections tend to be more serious than anaerobic infections.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Anti-infective agents that require frequent monitoring after being administered are:

A)Aminoglycosides.

B)Beta-lactams.

C)Tetracyclines.

D)Quinolones.

Q4) Agents that are used to treat infectious microorganisms are referred to as ________________ agents.

Q5) RNA viruses cause which of the following diseases?

A)Herpes simplex

B)Mononucleosis

C)Papilloma warts

D)Polio

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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In heart failure,all of the following conditions can occur except:

A)Enlarged heart.

B)Ankle edema.

C)Increased fluid removal by the kidneys.

D)Pulmonary edema.

Q2) The ________________ valve separates the right atrium and ventricle,and the ________________ valve separates the left atrium and ventricle.

Q3) The _______________ arteries are responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.

Q4) The time in which cardiac cells cannot be excited after electrical stimulation is called the _________________________.

Q5) Which of the following lipid-lowering agents blocks cholesterol biosynthesis?

A)Colestipol

B)Ezetimibe

C)Gemfibrozil

D)Simvastatin

Q6) Intravenous nitroprusside increases afterload and preload.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients receiving warfarin should be monitored for which of the following possible side effects?

I.Blood in the urine or stool

II.Nosebleeds

III.Petechiae

A)I and II

B)I and III

C)II and III

D)I,II,and III

Q2) When is hypertension considered an emergency,and how should it be treated?

Q3) Beta blockers should be used cautiously in patients with which of the following conditions?

A)Left-ventricular hypertrophy

B)Coronary artery disease

C)Heart failure

D)Insulin-dependent diabetes

Q4) Vasopressor and cardiotonic agents are used to treat _______________.

Q5) ________________ agents used to treat hypertension are also effective for benign prostatic hypertrophy.

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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Respiratory complications of inhaled anesthetics include all of the following except:

A)A decreased depth of respiration.

B)An increased rate of respiration.

C)An increased ventilatory response to falling O<sub>2</sub> levels.

D)An alteration of the ventilatory response to rising CO<sub>2</sub> levels.

Q2) In which of the following stages of anesthesia would the patient progress to a state of complete respiratory depression?

A)Stage 1

B)Stage 2

C)Stage 3

D)Stage 4

Q3) Administration of a/an ________________ inhibitor will reverse neuromuscular blockade.

Q4) Drugs used in combination to decrease the level of consciousness and produce a retrograde amnesia are referred to as ________________.

Q5) A side effect of skeletal muscle relaxants is drowsiness.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases

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56 Verified Questions

56 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of gas exchange that occurs at the alveolar capillary membrane is referred to as ________________.

Q2) Nitrous oxide (N<sub>2</sub>O)is a potent selective pulmonary vasodilator.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Give two examples of situations in which simple masks may be used.

Q4) Is cyanosis a good indicator of hypoxemia?

Q5) Oxygen-induced hypercapnia can be avoided in COPD patients by maintaining their PaO<sub>2</sub> in which of the following ranges?

A)40 to 50 mmHg

B)50 to 60 mmHg

C)60 to 70 mmHg

D)70 to 80 mmHg

Q6) Which oxygen device is most used in the home to deliver oxygen and why?

Q7) ________________ oxygen systems provide enough flow to meet all of the patient's ventilatory demands.

Q8) Breathing high concentrations of oxygen that causes nitrogen to wash out of the lungs can cause a condition called ________________.

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Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive

Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most effective agents for long-term control of asthma are ______________.

Q2) Of the following,which products combine LABAs and corticosteroids? I.Combivent

II.Advair

III.Symbicort

A)I and II

B)I and III

C)II and III

D)I,II,and III

Q3) According to the NAEPP guidelines,what must a respiratory therapist remember when using the treatment algorithm in the management of asthma?

Q4) ________________ is a reversible obstructive disease,and ________________ is progressive and not fully reversible.

Q5) Which of the following drugs used for nicotine addiction does not provide nicotine replacement?

A)Commit lozenge

B)Nicotrol

C)Nicorette

D)Zyban

Q6) Leukotriene inhibitors have no established use in patients with Page 15

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Page 16

Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory

Infectious Disease

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75649

Sample Questions

Q1) Respiratory therapists who are caring for mechanically ventilated patients can reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia by practicing all except which of the following measures?

A)Preventing cross-contamination through hand washing

B)Appropriately cleaning and processing respiratory devices

C)Performing 24-hour ventilator circuit changes

D)Taking precautions to prevent the patient from aspirating

Q2) Sinusitis caused by S.pneumoniae that does not respond to amoxicillin after 72 hours should be treated with which of the following?

A)Ciprofloxacin

B)Cefaclor

C)Ofloxacin

D)Clarithromycin

Q3) The drug of choice for treatment of pharyngitis caused by group A streptococcus is which of following?

A)Vancomycin

B)Erythromycin

C)Penicillin

D)Levofloxacin

Page 17

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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75650

Sample Questions

Q1) Pulseless cardiac arrest is produced by all except which of the following arrhythmias?

A)Asystole

B)PEA

C)Atrial fibrillation

D)Ventricular fibrillation

Q2) Which of the following drugs would not be considered for an asthmatic patient who requires treatment for atrial fibrillation?

A)Atenolol

B)Esmolol

C)Metoprolol

D)Propranolol

Q3) Why is ventricular fibrillation life threatening,and how is it treated?

Q4) When a patient experiences a myocardial infarction,irreversible death of myocardial cells has occurred.

A)True

B)False

Q5) ________________ is the first drug administered for all causes of cardiac arrest.

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Q6) ________________ is administered for refractory VF after lidocaine is given.

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