Clinical Pharmacology Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Pharmacology explores the scientific basis of drug action in humans, focusing on the principles of pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, drug metabolism, and therapeutic drug monitoring. The course examines how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted, as well as the factors that influence variability in drug response among individuals. It covers the clinical application of pharmacological knowledge in diagnosing, preventing, and treating diseases, emphasizing the integration of safe, effective, and rational drug therapy. Students also learn about adverse drug reactions, drug interactions, special populations, and the ethical considerations involved in drug prescribing and clinical trials.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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32 Chapters
1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is a major disadvantage of the transdermal drug delivery route?
A) Only a prescriber can administer drugs by the transdermal route.
B) Transdermal drugs must be sterile rather than clean.
C) First pass drug loss by this route is the most extensive.
D) Drug absorption is dependent on adequate circulation.
Answer: D
Q2) Why are antibiotics from the tetracycline drug group seldom prescribed during pregnancy?
A) Although the mother may have an infection,the fetus does not;giving these drugs to the mother would expose the fetus to unnecessary drugs.
B) The pregnant woman does not metabolize tetracycline to its active form and excessively high doses are needed for an intended action.
C) These drugs reduce the thickness of the enamel in developing teeth,so the infant would have darkly stained teeth.
D) The fetal liver is too immature to inactivate these drugs and eliminate them;they increase the risk for severe birth defects.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safe drug administration requires that the individual giving a drug be knowledgeable about which drug features? (select all that apply)
A) Purpose
B) Actions
C) Brand name
D) Side effects
E) Abnormal reactions
F) Follow-up care
Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Q2) Which abbreviation means that a drug is to be given orally?
A) PRN
B) NPO
C) PO
D) PPD
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What specific safety technique is always used when calculating an insulin dose?
A) Use a calculator and never calculate the dose by hand.
B) Calculate the dose by hand and never use a calculator.
C) Have another health care professional check the dose.
D) Wear sterile gloves to administer the calculated dose.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient is prescribed 25 mg of meperidine (Demerol)IV.The drug on hand is meperidine 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose? _____ mL
Answer: 0.23
Want 11ea681a_4366_5647_b611_41908696158c_TB1177_11 ,Have 11ea681a_4366_5648_b611_abb9a1173537_TB1177_11 ; 11ea681a_4366_5649_b611_5172dbbfbbc1_TB1177_11 = 0.25 * 1 mL = 0.25 mL.
Q3) What does the "N" indicate in the PINCH high alert drugs?
A) Narcotics
B) Niacin
C) Naphthalene
D) Neurotransmitter
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed potassium 15 mEq in an oral solution.How many ounces is the correct dose to be administered to the patient from a solution of potassium with a strength of 20 mEq in 8 ounces?
_____ ounces
Q2) A patient tells you he usually takes two aspirin tablets every morning and every evening.Each tablet contains 325 mg.How many total milligrams of aspirin does this patient take every day?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1300
D) 1625
Q3) An infant is to receive 6 mg of a liquid drug that is available in the strength of 10 mg/mL.How many drops (gtt)of this drug is the correct dose?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive 1000 mL of D<sub>5</sub>W intravenously over 6 hours.The tubing set has a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL.How many drops per minute are needed to infuse this fluid in the prescribed time?
_____ gtt per minute
Q2) Which problem is a major disadvantage of an intravenous (IV)pump?
A) The alarms are so sensitive that nurses tend to ignore them when they sound frequently.
B) Patients and families can override the automatic features and reset the infusion rate.
C) It can "run away" and cause a patient to experience fluid overload.
D) It can continue to push fluid into the tissue when infiltration occurs.
Q3) On an infusion pump,what does the abbreviation "VTBI" indicate?
A) Amount of fluid already infused
B) Amount of fluid remaining in the bag or bottle
C) Total amount of fluid prescribed for the day
D) How fast the infusion should be run
Q4) What is the hourly flow rate for 250 mL of normal saline to be administered over 2 hours?
_____ mL/h
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which problem is a common side effect of long-term corticosteroid use?
A) Acne
B) Weight loss
C) Redness and pain
D) Low blood pressure
Q2) A patient who has been prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl)reports a dry mouth and feeling sleepy.What is your best action?
A) Document the finding and notify the prescriber.
B) Remind the patient that naps provide needed rest.
C) Suggest sucking on hard candy to relieve dry mouth.
D) Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.
Q3) A nursing home resident has been prescribed to take 20 mg of prednisolone immediately.The facility does not have prednisolone,only prednisone.What is your best action?
A) Substitute prednisone for prednisolone because they are both corticosteroids.
B) Hold the dose until the pharmacy opens the next day.
C) Notify the prescriber immediately of this situation.
D) Administer the parenteral form of the drug.
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Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who received a first dose of an opioid drug is not arousable and has an oxygen saturation of 88% (five percentage points lower than his or her normal saturation)even when fully awake.What is your best next action?
A) Wait 2 minutes and recheck respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
B) Shake the patient firmly and keep trying to arouse him or her.
C) Notify respiratory therapy to draw an arterial blood gas.
D) Call for help and apply supplemental oxygen.
Q2) On a 0 to 10 pain rating scale,which of the following numbers reported by a patient represents the worst pain intensity?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q3) What is the most important question to ask before administering the first dose of celecoxib (Celebrex)to a patient?
A) "Do you floss your teeth daily?"
B) "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?"
C) "Do you have diabetes mellitus?"
D) "Have you ever had glaucoma?"
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is prescribed amikacin (Amikin).Which assessment technique is most important to perform daily?
A) Asking about numbness in fingers and toes
B) Measuring calf circumference of both legs
C) Checking the mouth for open sores
D) Asking about ringing in the ears
Q2) Which drug is a first-generation cephalosporin?
A) Cefepime (Maxipime)
B) Cefotaxime (Claforan)
C) Cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
D) Cefazolin (Kefzol)
Q3) A patient who has been prescribed oral cephalexin (Keflex)also takes aluminum hydroxide (Mylanta)1 hour after each meal.When should you give this drug?
A) Give the two drugs at the same time to prevent GI upset.
B) Give the cephalexin 1 hour before the aluminum hydroxide.
C) Give the aluminum hydroxide 1 hour before the cephalexin.
D) Give the aluminum hydroxide 4 hours after the cephalexin.
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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?
A) "After the drug is mixed,store it away from light."
B) "Use sterile technique to draw up and inject the drug."
C) "Do not take this drug if there is any possibility that you are pregnant."
D) "Mix the drug with tap water,then rinse the drug's original container and add that fluid to the drug mixture."
Q2) Why do most people become ill with a specific viral infection only once?
A) Once a virus is killed by the body,it is gone from the earth forever.
B) During a viral infection,the body changes the virus to be less virulent.
C) Antiviral drugs change the viral DNA so it cannot infect the same person again.
D) During a specific viral infection,the person's immune system improves protection against that virus.
Q3) Which drug can only be given by subcutaneous injection?
A) Atazanavir (Reytaz)
B) Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)
C) Maraviroc (Selzentry)
D) Darunavir (Prezista)
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Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long is the minimum course of drug therapy for an immunocompetent patient with active tuberculosis?
A) 7 to 10 days
B) 6 weeks
C) 6 months
D) 2 years
Q2) Which drug is NOT one of the "first-line" antitubercular drugs?
A) Isoniazid (INH)
B) Rifampin (RIF)
C) Pyrazinamide (PAS)
D) Amphotericin (AMT)
Q3) What is the most important question to ask a patient before administering rifampin (RIF)intravenously?
A) "Have you ever had gout?"
B) "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?"
C) "Are you allergic to sulfite preservatives?"
D) "Have you had any alcoholic beverages within the last month?"
Q4) A patient who weighs 220 lb is prescribed 20 mg/kg of ethambutol (EMB).The ethambutol tablets available 400 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets will you give?
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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose foot was cut deeply by a rusty tin can last received a tetanus toxoid vaccination 8 years ago.He is prescribed to now receive a tetanus toxoid injection.What type of immunity does this vaccination help provide?
A) Boosting of artificially acquired active immunity
B) Initiation of artificially acquired active immunity
C) Boosting of naturally acquired active immunity
D) Initiation of naturally acquired active immunity
Q2) What is definition of a toxoid that can be used for vaccination?
A) A vaccine containing antibodies that were produced by other animals in response to the administration of human white blood cells.
B) A vaccine that contains a modified toxin that an organism produces or a small part of the actual organism.
C) A vaccine designed to be toxic to or inhibit the excessive functioning of the immune system.
D) A vaccine that contains artificially created antibodies that will generate passive immunity.
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Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemotherapy agents in this list have a high emetogenic potential? (select all that apply)
A) Busulfan (Myleran)
B) Capecitabine (Xeloda)
C) Dactinomycin (Cosmegen)
D) Floxuridine (FUDR)
E) Melphalan (Alkeran)
Q2) Which complications or responses to chemotherapy have a greater impact among older adults who receive intravenous chemotherapy? (select all that apply)
A) Alopecia
B) Headache
C) Nausea/vomiting
D) Neutropenia
E) Peripheral neuropathy
Q3) To what cancer therapy drug class does anastrozole (Arimidex)belong?
A) Alkylating agent
B) Biological response modifier
C) Hormone inhibitor
D) Miscellaneous agent
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do type 1 and type 2 diabetes differ from each other?
A) Type 1 diabetes develops in people under 40 years old,whereas type 2 diabetes develops only in older people.
B) Type 2 diabetes develops in people under 40 years old,whereas type 1 diabetes develops only in older people.
C) Patients with type 1 diabetes are at higher risk for obesity and heart disease,whereas patients with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk for strokes.
D) Patients with type 1 diabetes produce no insulin,whereas patients with type 2 diabetes produce insulin but their insulin receptors are not very sensitive to it.
Q2) A patient is receiving an injection of Humulin 70/30 at 7:00a.m.At what time should you expect the peak action for this drug?
A) Between 7:30 a.m.and 8:00 a.m.
B) Between 9:00 a.m.and 11:00 a.m.
C) Between 1:00 p.m.and 5:00 p.m.
D) Between 4:00 p.m.and 11:00 p.m.
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15
Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)25 mcg orally once a day.The pharmacy sends liothyronine sodium (Cytomel)25 mcg.What is your best action?
A) Give the drug as sent from the pharmacy.
B) Contact the nurse manager for advice.
C) Call the pharmacy to send the correct drug.
D) Explain to the patient that both drugs are thyroid hormone agonists.
Q2) Laboratory blood tests show that a patient has a T3 level of 190 ng/dL.How should you interpret this finding?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Normal thyroid function
D) Thyroid function totally absent
Q3) A patient who is prescribed propylthiouracil (Propacil)also takes warfarin (Coumadin).Which laboratory blood test result indicates a possible drug interaction?
A) Hematocrit 42%
B) Hemoglobin 14.2 g/dL
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)12 mg/dL
D) International normalized ratio (INR)5.0
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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Sample Questions
Q1) During medication reconciliation,the patient tells you that he takes Luvox daily as a "water pill." You note that this drug is not on his current list of ordered drugs.How should you proceed?
A) Ask him what strength or dose of Luvox he takes.
B) Request that the prescriber add Luvox to the patient's orders.
C) Ask the patient to have all his drugs brought from home to the hospital.
D) Check with the pharmacist to determine whether Luvox interacts with his ordered drugs.
Q2) Which are common signs and symptoms when a patient is dehydrated? (Select all that apply. )
A) Decreased pulse rate
B) Low blood pressure
C) Thirst
D) Swollen eyeballs
E) Dry mouth
Q3) How do antispasmodic drugs for overactive bladder work?
A) They reduce the urine-making action of the kidney.
B) They relax the muscles of the bladder.
C) They shrink the prostate gland.
D) They reduce the thirst reflex.
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Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihypertensive drug would you teach a patient is considered safe for use during pregnancy or breastfeeding?
A) Clonidine (Catapres)
B) Methyldopa (Aldomet)
C) Labetalol (Normodyne)
D) Carvedilol (Coreg)
Q2) An adult patient is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor)50 mg orally twice a day.Metoprolol is available in 100 mg tablets.How many tablets will you give for each dose?
Q3) Which statement by a patient prescribed enalapril (Vasotec)indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "I will use a salt substitute instead of table salt when I eat."
B) "I will avoid alcohol while I am taking this medication."
C) "I will wear long sleeves,a hat,and sunscreen when I go outdoors."
D) "I will call my prescriber immediately if I notice any swelling in my face."
Q4) Which term means high blood pressure from no known cause?
A) Orthostatic hypertension
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Primary hypertension
D) Secondary hypertension
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should you teach a patient who has been prescribed potassium (K-Dur)tablets?
A) "If you miss a dose,double your next dose to keep your blood level of potassium normal."
B) "Take your potassium with food or a full glass or water to avoid nausea/vomiting."
C) "Be sure to use salt substitutes instead of salt so that your body will not retain water."
D) "Eat lots of foods that are high in potassium such as bananas,spinach,broccoli,and sweet potatoes."
Q2) Which safety precaution should be taught to a patient going home on any antihypertensive drug for heart failure?
A) Always change positions slowly.
B) Never get up without assistance.
C) Take the drug in the evening before bedtime.
D) Avoid all over-the-counter drugs while taking this drug.
Q3) A patient is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin)0.03 mg as a liquid dose.The drug on hand is digoxin 0.05 mg/mL.How many milliliters do you give?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older patient with a history of liver impairment is prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem)SR 120 mg twice a day for supraventricular tachycardia.What is your best action before giving the first dose?
A) Hold the drug and contact the prescriber.
B) Administer the drug as ordered.
C) Give 60 mg four times a day.
D) Give an XR capsule of 240 mg once a day.
Q2) What is the most important action when caring for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed a beta blocker?
A) Assess the patient's feet daily.
B) Monitor for infection.
C) Administer oral diabetic drugs.
D) Regularly check the patient's blood glucose.
Q3) Which part of the heart normally controls the heart rate?
A) Atrioventricular (AV)node
B) His-Purkinje system
C) Sinoatrial (SA)node
D) Left ventricle
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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about cholesterol is true?
A) The only source of cholesterol is from the foods a person eats.
B) Cholesterol always has harmful effects on a person's body.
C) Too much cholesterol leads to a deficit of bile acids that digest fat.
D) It is a fatty,waxy material present in cell membranes of the body.
Q2) A patient prescribed niacin extended action (Niaspan)reports all of the following new onset problems.For which problem should you notify the prescriber?
A) Moderate itchiness,especially at night
B) Six to seven loose stools daily
C) Increased nighttime urination
D) Swollen,painful great toe
Q3) Why should the use of cholestyramine (Questran)and colestipol (Colestid)be avoided in children?
A) These drugs can cause muscle breakdown in children.
B) These drugs can cause intestinal obstruction in children.
C) These drugs can cause mental deficits in children.
D) These drugs can cause bleeding and easy bruising in children.
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which category of drugs actually dissolves existing clots?
A) Heparins
B) Coagulants
C) Antiplatelets
D) Thrombolytics
Q2) A patient is being discharged on enoxaparin (Lovenox).Which statement should you include in the discharge teaching plan?
A) "An advantage of this drug is that labs do not need to be drawn to guide therapy."
B) "Follow-up lab work must be drawn every 2 to 6 months."
C) "Enoxaparin is given intramuscularly twice a day."
D) "The purpose of this drug is to dissolve clots."
Q3) Which dietary teaching do you include for a patient who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)on discharge?
A) "Weight loss diets such as the Atkins diet are OK while taking this drug."
B) "Be sure to eat lots of green leafy vegetables for extra vitamin K."
C) "Dietary changes do not affect the action of this drug."
D) "Drinking alcoholic beverages can change the action of warfarin."
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Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main way iloprost (Ilomedin)is administered?
A) Oral inhalation
B) Subcutaneous injection
C) Sublingual tablet
D) Continuous intravenous infusion
Q2) The use of which drug or drugs is/are associated with later development of pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH)?
A) Amiodarone and ambrisentan
B) Macitentan and cyclophosphamide
C) Fenfluramine/phentermine
D) Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
Q3) Which part of the respiratory system is most affected by asthma?
A) Alveoli
B) Airway
C) Trachea
D) Cartilage
Q4) A patient who weighs 125 lb is prescribed to receive treprostinil (Remodulin)1.25 ng/kg/min for the next 4 hours.What is the total dose this patient should receive in 4 hours?
23
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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should metoclopramide (Reglan)be taken?
A) 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
B) 30 minutes before meals and at bedtime
C) 30 minutes after meals and at bedtime
D) 1 hour after meals and at bedtime
Q2) A patient reports taking psyllium (Metamucil)every morning to prevent constipation.What is your best action?
A) Teach that over-the-counter laxatives should not be taken for more than 1 week.
B) Instruct the patient that long-term use of psyllium can cause health problems.
C) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.
D) Document this information as the only action.
Q3) You are instructing a patient on how to prevent constipation.Which point should you stress?
A) "Be sure to eat a diet that is low in fiber."
B) "Use a laxative on a daily basis to prevent constipation."
C) "Physical inactivity will not affect your bowel function."
D) "You should drink plenty of fluids every day to prevent constipation."
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Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec)asks why the drug should be taken before breakfast.What is your best response?
A) "The intended action of this drug is best achieved when given before meals,preferably in the morning."
B) "It is best to take this drug in the morning so that antacids taken later in the day do not interfere with absorption."
C) "This drug should always be taken on an empty stomach for maximal action and for better absorption."
D) "Taking this drug early in the morning helps to minimize the occurrence of side effects or adverse effects."
Q2) You are instructing a patient who has been prescribed sucralfate (Carafate)for peptic ulcer disease.Which statement by the patient indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "This drug coats my ulcer and protects it so that healing can occur."
B) "I should eat foods with lots of fiber while I'm taking this drug."
C) "If I feel dizzy,I will be sure to get up from bed slowly."
D) "Once I am feeling better I can stop taking the drug."
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25
Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the intended responses of the trace mineral zinc? (select all that apply)
A) Helps blood clot
B) Supports protein structures
C) Strengthens bones
D) Essential for taste and smell
E) Supports the immune system
Q2) Which statement about water soluble vitamins is accurate?
A) They are not stored in the body.
B) They are stored in the liver.
C) They do not need to be taken in every day.
D) They are not lost when foods containing them are cooked.
Q3) Which is a trace mineral?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) Zinc
Q4) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which temporary condition is considered a brief but expected response immediately after an individual has a seizure?
A) Residual muscle twitches
B) Low blood pressure
C) Unconsciousness
D) Confusion
Q2) Which organs can be badly damaged by valproic acid (Depakote)?
A) Eyes and ears
B) Skeletal muscles
C) Liver and pancreas
D) Brain and spinal cord
Q3) A patient is having a prolonged seizure lasting more than 30 minutes.Which drug should you be prepared to administer?
A) Diazepam (Valium)5 to 10 mg slow IV push
B) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)1600 orally as a loading dose
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)15 mg/kg orally as a loading dose
D) Valproic acid (Depacon IV)25 mg/kg slow IV push
Q4) An infant is prescribed phenobarbital 4 mg/kg in an oral suspension.The infant weighs 11 lb.How many milligrams will you give?
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet)informs you that a dark spot on his arm is getting larger.What is your best action?
A) Measure the size of the spot and document the finding.
B) Inform the patient that this is an expected side effect of the drug.
C) Administer the drug as ordered by the prescriber.
D) Hold the drug and contact the prescriber about this change.
Q2) Which statement about Alzheimer's disease is true?
A) The causes of Alzheimer's disease are known but not treatable.
B) Physical deterioration occurs before intellectual deterioration.
C) The onset of the disorder is sudden and dramatic.
D) It is the most common form of dementia.
Q3) Which statement made by a patient with Alzheimer's disease indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "When I have been taking donepezil for 6 weeks I should regain my memories."
B) "The only way to be sure that I have Alzheimer's disease is by autopsy after I die."
C) "Even with medication,eventually I will need total care to prevent complications."
D) "The rivastigmine I am taking may slow down the progression of my symptoms."
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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are common anxiety disorders? (select all that apply)
A) Dysthymia
B) Panic disorder
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Phobic disorder
E) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Q2) Although serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)are used more commonly now to treat anxiety disorders than are benzodiazepines,for which patient situation would you expect a benzodiazepine to be prescribed instead of an SSRI?
A) The patient is 18 years old.
B) Anxiety has been present daily for 6 months.
C) The patient has compulsive repetitive actions.
D) The anxiety attack is severe with hallucinations.
Q3) What term means to have fixed false beliefs or opinions that are held despite a lack of supporting evidence?
A) Anxiety
B) Delusion
C) Psychosis
D) Obsession
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Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs used to treat insomnia belong to the benzodiazepine class? (select all that apply)
A) Chloral hydrate (Somnote)
B) Estazolam (ProSom)
C) Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
D) Flurazepam (Dalmane)
E) Secobarbital (Seconal)
F) Triazolam (Halcion)
Q2) A patient who has been taking flurazepam (Dalmane)for insomnia is now prescribed zolpidem (Ambien)instead.The patient asks why the prescription was changed.What is your best response?
A) "Zolpidem (Ambien)is a first-line drug for the treatment of insomnia."
B) "Flurazepam (Dalmane)is a benzodiazepine drug that can be habit-forming."
C) "Zolpidem (Ambien)is also used to treat any anxiety or stress that may contribute to your insomnia."
D) "Flurazepam (Dalmane)has both hypnotic and sedative effects that are less effective in the treatment of insomnia."
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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which question is most important to ask a patient who is prescribed acetazolamide (Diamox)before administering the first dose?
A) "Do you have diabetes?"
B) "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?"
C) "How long have you had glaucoma?"
D) "Do you eat grapefruit or drink grapefruit juice?"
Q2) Which statement made by a patient prescribed drug therapy for glaucoma indicates more teaching is needed?
A) "I am so glad my glaucoma has been cured with bimatoprost (Lumigan)in time to prevent blindness."
B) "I will take care never to touch the tip of the applicator to my eye to prevent infection."
C) "I will only call my doctor for eye redness if it lasts longer than just an hour or two."
D) "I understand that I should wait for my vision to clear once the eye drops are in before I drive the car."
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which patient who has severe osteoporosis is a drug from the bisphosphonate class of drug a better choice of therapy than a drug from the estrogen agonist/antagonist class?
A) 40-year-old premenopausal woman who engages in aerobic exercise daily.
B) 64-year-old woman who takes hormone replacement therapy for hypothyroidism.
C) 70-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postoperative from a total abdominal hysterectomy.
D) 80-year-old woman who has had a stroke and must use a walker for all ambulation.
Q2) Which action is most important to teach a patient prescribed to take allopurinol (Zyloprim)daily for gout?
A) "Avoid operating heavy machinery."
B) "Drink plenty of water."
C) "Avoid alcohol and caffeine."
D) "Take the drug only when symptoms of gout are present."
Q3) Which bone or joint is most likely to be adversely affected by bisphosphonates?
A) Eye orbit
B) Jawbone
C) Big toe
D) Wrist
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking finasteride (Proscar)tells you that he is also taking the herbal supplement saw palmetto.What is your best response?
A) "You should not take finasteride and saw palmetto at the same time."
B) "Finasteride and saw palmetto taken together increase your risk of bleeding."
C) "Be sure to notify your prescriber if you notice any unusual side effects."
D) "Avoid people with viral infections while taking these two substances."
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? (select all that apply)
A) Burning with urination
B) Frequency of urination
C) Decreased urination at night
D) Difficulty starting and continuing urination
E) Increased force and size of urine stream
F) Dribbling after urination
G)Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying
Q3) A patient is prescribed testosterone (Cypionate)250 mg IM every 3 weeks.You have testosterone 100 mg/1 mL.How many milliliters will you give with each dose?
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy (HRT)reduce perimenopausal symptoms?
A) By inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
B) By making periods more regular and predictable.
C) By inhibiting excessive secretion of follicle stimulating hormone.
D) By increasing the rate of normal involution and menopausal cessation.
Q2) Which hormone levels in the blood are reduced as a result of taking hormone replacement therapy for menopause?
A) Estrogen and progesterone
B) Estrogen and follicle stimulating hormone
C) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone and progesterone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone and gonadotrophin releasing hormone
Q3) Which female hormone supports pregnancy by directly maintaining the thickened uterine lining?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone
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