Clinical Pathophysiology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the functional changes that occur in the body as a result of disease processes, bridging the gap between basic biomedical sciences and clinical practice. This course examines the mechanisms underlying the onset, progression, and manifestations of common and significant diseases, with an emphasis on how these abnormalities disrupt normal physiology. Students gain an integrated understanding of organ system dysfunctions, clinical signs and symptoms, and the rationale for current diagnostic and therapeutic strategies. Through case studies and real-world examples, learners develop the ability to apply pathophysiological principles to clinical scenarios, preparing them for advanced studies and professional healthcare practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by
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50 Chapters
1557 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Kathryn L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases?
A)Cardiac and vascular disorders
B)Autoimmune and malignant disorders
C)Gastrointestinal and renal disorders
D)Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders
Answer: B
Q2) Which method of transport uses transmembrane proteins with receptors with a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported?
A)Active
B)Mediated
C)Transmembranous
D)Passive
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is working at the health tent during a marathon. A runner is brought to the tent complaining of nausea and weakness. What is the first thing the professional should do?
A)Call 911.
B)Have the person lie down.
C)Give the person salt tablets.
D)Ask about street drug use.
Answer: B
Q2) A patient suffered multiple traumatic injuries and received many blood transfusions within a few days of the injuries. For which medical condition should the healthcare professional monitor the patient for?
A)High blood pressure
B)HIV infection
C)Hemosiderosis
D)Kidney damage
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?
A)Angiotensin I
B)Angiotensin II
C)Aldosterone
D)Renin
Answer: D
Q2) Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of what?
A)Osmotic forces
B)Plasma oncotic pressure
C)Antidiuretic hormone
D)Hydrostatic forces
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Males, having only one X chromosome, are said to be what?
A)Homozygous
B)Heterozygous
C)Hemizygous
D)Ambizygous
Q2) What is an individual's genetic makeup called?
A)Phenotype
B)Genotype
C)Heterozygous locus
D)Homozygous locus
Q3) People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of which genetic principle?
A)Penetrance
B)Expressivity
C)Dominance
D)Recessiveness
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are cancers that cluster strongly in families? (Select all that apply.)
A)Breast
B)Colon
C)Ovarian
D)Lung
E)Brain
Q2) A student asks, "What is the percentage of all cases of breast cancer that are identified as an autosomal dominant form?" What response by the professor is best?
A)<1
B)5 to 10
C)15 to 20
D)20 to 30
Q3) Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A)LCAT
B)CHK1
C)CHK2
D)BRCA1
E)BRCA2
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are genes responsible for the maintenance of all cells referred to as?
A)Universal
B)Managerial
C)Housekeeping
D)Executive
Q2) Which statement is true regarding the embryonic development of stem cells?
A)They are already differentiated.
B)They are referred to as housekeeping genes.
C)They already demonstrate DNA sequencing.
D)They are said to be totipotent.
Q3) What is the difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications?
A)DNA sequence mutations can be directly altered.
B)Leukemia is a result of only DNA sequence mutation.
C)Epigenetic modifications potentially can be reversed.
D)No known drug therapies are available for epigenetic modifications.
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells?
A)IL-1
B)IL-10
C)TNF-a
D)IFN-a
Q2) What process causes heat and redness to occur during the inflammatory process?
A)Vasodilation of blood vessels
B)Platelet aggregation
C)Decreased capillary permeability
D)Endothelial cell contraction
Q3) During phagocytosis, what is occurring during the step referred to as opsonization?
A)Phagocytes recognize and adhere to the bacteria.
B)Microorganisms are ingested.
C)Microorganisms are killed and digested.
D)An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed.
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?
A)Fetal
B)Neonatal
C)Infancy
D)Puberty
Q2) Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) A student asks the healthcare professional how the aging process of the T-cell activity affects older adults. What response by the professional is best?
A)Poor heat regulation abilities
B)Increased risk for bone fractures
C)Tendency to develop various infections
D)Likelihood of experiencing benign skin lesions
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child in the clinic has an absence of a parathyroid gland, structural heart defects, and a shortened structure of the upper lip. What immune dysfunction does the healthcare professional suspect?
A)Partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity
B)X-linked recessive microcephaly
C)An autoimmune disease like systemic lupus erythematosus
D)Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Q2) What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
A)Greater quantities of histamine
B)More histamine receptors
C)Greater quantities of IgE
D)A deficiency in epinephrine
Q3) What is a hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response called?
A)Hemolytic shock
B)Anaphylaxis
C)Necrotizing vasculitis
D)Systemic erythematosus
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11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional student is learning about fungal infections. What information should the student use to help another student understand?
A)Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
B)Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections.
C)Fungal infections release endotoxins.
D)Vaccines prevent fungal infections.
Q2) What is the first stage in the infectious process?
A)Invasion
B)Colonization
C)Spread
D)Multiplication
Q3) Which infections are fungal? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ringworm
B)Candida
C)Cholera
D)Athlete's foot
E)Aspergillus
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone would the healthcare professional assess for?
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Hypertension
C)Bronchodilation
D)Pupil dilation
Q2) Released stress-induced cortisol results in the stimulation of gluconeogenesis by affecting which structure?
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Pancreas
C)Liver
D)Anterior pituitary
Q3) Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Hypothalamus
C)Anterior pituitary
D)Limbic system
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13
Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The professor explains to students that oncogenes are genes that are capable of what?
A)Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
B)Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
C)Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
D)Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
Q2) What are tumor cell markers?
A)Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
B)Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked C)Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
D)Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as which BMI range?
A)18.5 to 24.9
B)25 to 29.9
C)30 to 39.9
D)40 to 50.9
Q2) When considering topics for a series of community discussions related to cancer prevention strategies, what should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Healthy eating
B)Tobacco avoidance
C)Importance of early diagnosis
D)Impact of obesity on one's health
E)Age-appropriate exercise routines
Q3) Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Human papillomavirus
D)Pelvic inflammatory disease
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
B)Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
C)Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
D)Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
E)Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
B)Genetic risk factors and congenital conditions are more related in childhood cancers.
C)Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
D)Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
E)Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
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Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the brain mediates the physical expression of emotions?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Basal ganglia
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Subthalamus
Q2) Which statements are true regarding the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? (Select all that apply.)
A)The BBB is dependent on astrocytes.
B)It uses the meningeal layers of the brain.
C)It restricts the flow of large molecules, such as plasma proteins.
D)Naturally occurring inflammatory mediators affect the BBB.
E)Becomes increasingly permeable with aging
Q3) Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
A)Large nonmyelinated
B)Large myelinated
C)Small nonmyelinated
D)Small myelinated
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who was rewarmed after suffering from hypothermia. What possible long-term complication will the professional continue to assess the patient for?
A)Acidosis
B)Dysrhythmias
C)Shock
D)Renal failure
Q2) Which endogenous opioid is located in the hypothalamus and pituitary and is a strong m-receptor agonist?
A)Enkephalins
B)Endorphins
C)Dynorphins
D)Endomorphins
Q3) Which term is also used to refer to paradoxical sleep?
A)Non-REM
B)Light
C)REM
D)Delta wave
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What area of the brain mediates the executive attention functions?
A)Limbic
B)Prefrontal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
Q2) What does diagnostic criteria for a persistent vegetative state include?
A)Absence of eye opening
B)Lack of subcortical responses to pain stimuli
C)Roving eye movements with visual tracking
D)Return of autonomic functions
Q3) The body compensates for a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing what?
A)Cerebrospinal fluid
B)Arterial blood
C)Venous blood
D)Cerebral cells
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19
Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestations are characteristic of cluster headaches? (Select all that apply.)
A)Preheadache aura
B)Severe unilateral tearing
C)Gradual onset of a tight band around the head
D)Can be associated with vomiting
E)Pain lasting from 20 to 120 min
Q2) A blunt-force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain?
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
Q3) Which cerebral vascular hemorrhage causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?
A)Intracranial
B)Subarachnoid
C)Epidural
D)Subdural
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has positive signs of schizophrenia and is scheduled for a brain scan. What part of the brain does the healthcare professional expect the scan will focus on?
A)Parietal lobe
B)Limbic system
C)Temporal lobe
D)Hypothalamus
Q2) A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
A)3
B)6
C)9
D)12
Q3) A patient has started on clozapine. The healthcare professional educates the patient that this drug blocks which neurotransmitter receptor?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Serotonin
D)Dopamine
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is seen for the first time at 6 months' gestation and has not taken prenatal vitamins. The healthcare professional educates the woman on the need for a blood test specifically to assess what substance?
A)Total protein
B)Culture
C)a-Fetoprotein
D)C-reactive protein
Q2) What is the most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants?
A)Obstructed arachnoid villi
B)Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius
C)Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid
D)Impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation in the subarachnoid space
Q3) What is the result of a Chiari type II malformation associated with a myelomeningocele?
A)Upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon
B)Motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele
C)Downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle
D)Generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone inhibits the secretion of growth hormone (GH)?
A)Somatostatin
B)Thyroxine
C)Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)Calcitonin
Q2) A diabetic patient has not taken insulin in several days and has an extremely high blood sugar. What electrolyte would the health care professional assess as the priority?
A)Potassium
B)Calcium
C)Sodium
D)Chloride
Q3) Which compound or hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A)Cortisol
B)Epinephrine
C)Androgens
D)Aldosterone
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person has hypothyroidism. What chemical does the healthcare professional advise the person to include in the diet?
A)Iron
B)Iodine
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
Q2) What is diabetes insipidus a result of?
A)Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion
B)Antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion
C)Insulin hyposecretion
D)Insulin hypersecretion
Q3) Which condition may result from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor?
A)Hypothyroidism
B)Hypercortisolism
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Insulin hyposecretion
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24
Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the professor about the functions of adipose tissue. What responses by the professor are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
A)Provides insulation
B)Helps with mechanical support
C)Dysregulates thyroid function
D)Secretes adipokines
E)Helps generate heat
Q2) A person has abnormally severe tooth decay and erosion of the tooth enamel. What problem should the health care professional assess the person for?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Binge eating
C)Bulimia
D)Refeeding syndrome
Q3) Which individual does the health care professional determine is obese?
A)Body mass index 23 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)Body mass index 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)Body mass index 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)Body mass index 32 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
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Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman attempting to conceive tells the healthcare professional that she and her partner have intercourse when her basal body temperature (BBT) is around 37°C (98°F) without getting pregnant. What information does the professional give the woman?
A)Maybe you need a fertility workup.
B)That's a normal temperature, but during ovulation BBT decreases.
C)Temperature alone is not the most accurate way to predict ovulation.
D)BBT rises consistently above 37.8°C (100°F) with ovulation.
Q2) Having ejected a mature ovum, what does the ovarian follicle develop into?
A)Atretic follicle
B)Theca follicle
C)Corpus luteum
D)Functional scar
Q3) A healthcare professional is discussing breast feeding with a pregnant woman. Which beneficial substance does the professional tell the mother is found in breast milk?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?
A)Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus.
B)Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
C)Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases.
D)Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.
Q2) A woman has a pelvic organ prolapse. What treatments does the healthcare professional teach the woman about? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pessary
B)Kegel exercises
C)Estrogen therapy
D)Surgical repair
E)Bearing down exercises
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man has balanitis. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Educate the man on the side effects of chemotherapy.
B)Perform a finger stick for a blood glucose reading.
C)Administer pain medication before retracting the foreskin.
D)Prepare the man for a needle aspiration of the corpus.
Q2) A 7-year-old child has cryptorchidism. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Educate the child and parents on orchiectomy.
B)Instruct the parents to give the child all the antibiotics.
C)Describe skin precautions used during radiation therapy.
D)Describe the correct administration of GnRH.
Q3) A student reads in a chart that a child has been diagnosed with mixed precocious puberty and asks for an explanation. What explanation by the healthcare professional is most accurate?
A)When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex
B)When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs
C)When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects
D)When early puberty has signs of physical and hormonal abnormalities
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional wants to join a research team working on treatments for gonococci infections. What is the major concern regarding the treatment the professional will likely work on?
A)Antibiotic resistance
B)Changes in virulence
C)Changes in pathogenicity
D)Mutations into different strains
Q2) Which hepatitis virus is most commonly known to be sexually transmitted?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
A)Neisseria syphilis
B)Treponema pallidum
C)Haemophilus ducreyi
D)Chlamydia trachomatis
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29
Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
A)20 to 30
B)60 to 90
C)100 to 120
D)200 to 240
Q2) Soon after birth, a newborn has cord blood drawn which shows hemoglobin of 28.2 mg/dL. What does the healthcare professional understand about this finding?
A)The baby suffered from hypoxia in utero.
B)This is a normal finding from cord blood.
C)The newborn needs a blood transfusion.
D)The infant's bone marrow is immature.
Q3) Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of erythrocytes? (Select all that apply.)
A)Protein
B)Iron
C)Cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)
D)Folate
E)Pantothenic acid
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA) is fatal?
A)Brain hypoxia
B)Liver hypoxia
C)Heart failure
D)Renal failure
Q2) Which of these describes how the body compensates for anemia?
A)Increasing rate and depth of breathing
B)Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction
C)Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen
D)Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
Q3) What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?
A)Hypotension
B)Hyperesthesia
C)Hypoxia
D)Ischemia
Q4) Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?
A)Folic acid
B)Hemolytic
C)Iron deficiency
D)Pernicious
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid
Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early detection of acute leukemia would include which symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A)Dizziness
B)Paresthesia
C)Anorexia
D)Bruising
E)Bone pain
Q2) Which classic clinical manifestations are symptoms of infectious mononucleosis (IM)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lymph node enlargement
B)Hepatitis
C)Pharyngitis
D)Edema in the area of the eyes
E)Fever
Q3) In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect?
A)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
B)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
C)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
D)Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
32
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children?
A)Folic acid deficiency
B)Iron deficiency
C)Hemoglobin abnormality
D)Erythrocyte abnormality
Q2) A patient has microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Which type of treatment or procedure does the healthcare professional discuss as a potential cure with the patient?
A)Cord blood transplantation
B)Scheduled infusion of gamma globulins
C)Massive blood transfusions
D)Repeated injections of Rho-GAM
Q3) An infant was born with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). What treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this baby?
A)Administration of intravenous fluids to dilute the blood
B)Replacement transfusion of Rh-positive blood not contaminated with anti-Rh antibodies
C)Performance of a splenectomy to prevent the destruction of abnormal erythrocytes
D)Replacement transfusion of Rh-negative erythrocytes
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which structures?
A)Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
B)Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
C)Upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
D)Posterior interventricular sulcus and the smaller branches of both ventricles
Q2) A healthcare professional cares for older adults in a skilled nursing facility. What should the professional assess for in these individuals related to cardiovascular functioning?
A)Increased rate of falling and dizzy spells
B)Improved exercise tolerance
C)A gradual slowing of the heart rate
D)Progressive ECG changes
Q3) What can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node?
A)Parasympathetic nervous system
B)Catecholamines
C)Vagal stimulation
D)Sinoatrial node (SA)
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with diabetes mellitus does not realize that this disease contributes to coronary artery disease and asks the healthcare professional to explain. What information does the professional provide? (Select all that apply.)
A)"High blood glucose directly attacks the heart cells."
B)"Diabetes is associated with impaired lipid metabolism."
C)"It can lead to more vasoconstriction in the blood vessels."
D)"Diabetes can damage the inside of your blood vessel."
E)"It causes inflammation and cells to clump together in the vessels."
Q2) Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
A)Inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
B)Vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes
C)Autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
D)Neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-year-old child has a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg in the school nurse's office. What action by the school nurse is most appropriate?
A)Inform the parents the child might be dehydrated.
B)Note the normal finding in the child's records.
C)Calculate the child's Body Mass Index.
D)Refer the child for medication.
Q2) The student studying pathophysiology learns which fact about circulation at birth?
A)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
B)Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
C)Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
D)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Q3) A parent brings a 10-year-old child to the clinic and reports a mottled appearance to the skin and legs cramps when the child is in physical education class. What diagnostic testing or treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the family for?
A)Immediate cardiac catheterization
B)Administration of prostaglandin
C)Multiple-stage surgical correction
D)An echocardiogram
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Q1) A healthcare professional who works in a senior center knows about the effects of aging on the pulmonary system, which include which of these? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased chest wall compliance
B)Decreased lung recoil
C)Reduced ventilatory reserve
D)Decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO<sub>2</sub>)
E)Reduced respiratory rate
Q2) A healthcare professional wants to determine the adequacy of a person's alveolar ventilation. What assessment finding is most important for the professional to consider?
A)Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min
B)Ventilatory pattern is regular and rhythmic.
C)Respiratory effort is strained with muscle involvement.
D)Arterial blood gas shows a PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 44 mmHg.
Q3) The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?
A)Vagus
B)Phrenic
C)Brachial
D)Pectoral
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has recently been diagnosed with emphysema. What initial step in management of this disease does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
A)Inhaled anticholinergic agents
B)Beta agonists
C)Cessation of smoking
D)Surgical reduction of lung volume
Q2) Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?
A)Pleural effusion
B)Atelectasis
C)Bronchiectasis
D)Ischemia
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with an empyema. What does the healthcare professional tell the patient about this condition?
A)We will have to drain the pus out of your pleural space.
B)You will be given a long course of antiviral medication.
C)These blebs in your lungs can rupture with exercise.
D)We will watch you for respiratory muscle fatigue.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Q1) When assessing for the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the absence of which condition is considered characteristic?
A)Progressive respiratory distress
B)Bilateral infiltrates
C)Decreased pulmonary compliance
D)Heart failure
Q2) Children diagnosed with acute asthma are likely to exhibit which symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A)Nasal flaring
B)Musical expiratory wheezing
C)Clubbing of fingers and toes
D)Substernal retractions
E)Diaphoresis
Q3) Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?
A)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
B)Influenza virus
C)Adenoviruses
D)Rhinovirus
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the end product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine?
A)Glucose
B)Ketones
C)Bile
D)Urea
Q2) How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?
A)75 to 100 mL
B)100 to 150 mL
C)250 to 300 mL
D)350 to 400 mL
Q3) What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?
A)Glomerular filtration
B)Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3
C)Increased heart rate
D)Compensatory hypertrophy
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypercalciuria is primarily attributable to which alteration?
A)Defective renal calcium reabsorption
B)Intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium
C)Bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization
D)Hyperparathyroidism
Q2) Creatinine is primarily excreted by glomerular filtration after being constantly released from what type of tissue?
A)Nervous system
B)Kidneys
C)Muscle
D)Liver
Q3) Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Parasites
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Haemophilus
Q2) What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A)Periorbital edema
B)Scrotal or labial edema
C)Frothy urine
D)Ascites
Q3) Compared with an adult, an infant has a greater content of extracellular fluid, as well as a greater rate of fluid exchange. What effect does this have on the fluid balance of a child compared with that of an adult?
A)Edema development is less of a problem.
B)Overhydration is not difficult to manage.
C)Daily fluid requirements are greater.
D)The control of dehydration is more difficult.
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) What is the primary source of physiologic iron?
A)Transferrin from plasma
B)Pepsin form pepsinogen
C)Bile from bilirubin
D)Heme from animal protein
Q2) Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q3) A professor has been teaching a class on gastrointestinal function. Which statement by a student indicates the need for more education?
A)Within 30 min of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach.
B)Cholinergic branches of the vagus nerve mediate gallbladder contraction.
C)Cholecystokinin provides hormonal regulation of gallbladder contraction.
D)The sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of bile from the gallbladder.
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) A professor has taught the students about the pathogenesis of abdominal pain. Which statement by a student indicates the professor needs to review the material?
A)Chemical mediators, such as histamine, bradykinin, and serotonin, produce abdominal pain.
B)Edema and vascular congestion produce abdominal pain by stretching.
C)Ischemia, caused by distention of bowel obstruction or mesenteric vessel thrombosis, produces abdominal pain.
D)Low concentrations of anaerobes, such as Streptococci, Lactobacilli, Staphylococci, Enterobacteria, and Bacteroides, produce abdominal pain.
Q2) How many stools per day are considered the upper limits of normal?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Five
D)Seven
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) A child has celiac disease. Which foods does the healthcare professional teach the parents to eliminate from their child's diet? (Select all that apply.)
A)Citrus fruits
B)Starchy vegetables
C)Wheat products
D)Barley
E)Fat soluble vitamins
Q2) Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial and intermaxillary process during the fourth week of embryonic development causes which condition in an infant?
A)Cleft palate
B)Sinus dysfunction
C)Cleft lip
D)Esophageal malformation
Q3) Cystic fibrosis is characterized by which symptom?
A)Excessive mucus production
B)Elevated blood glucose levels
C)Low sodium content in perspiration
D)Abnormally thin exocrine secretions
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Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which statement indicates that a student needs more information about muscles?
A)Muscle comprises 50% of an adult's body weight and 40% of a child's body weight.
B)Muscle is 75% water, 20% protein, and 5% organic and inorganic compounds.
C)Muscle contains 32% of all protein stores for energy and metabolism.
D)Muscles are encased in fascia.
Q2) The outer layer of the periosteum contains blood vessels and nerves that penetrate the inner structures of the bone by way of which structure?
A)Volkmann canals
B)Canaliculi
C)Sharpey canals
D)Trabeculae
Q3) The stage of healing in the bone that involves procallus formation entails which process?
A)Formation of a hematoma that allows the development of a fibrin network
B)Production of granulation tissue by fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts
C)Development of a primitive bone matrix termed woven bone
D)Remodeling of the periosteal and endosteal bone surfaces
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost?
A)30%
B)40%
C)50%
D)60%
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with Paget disease. What explanation of the disease does the health care professional provide the patient?
A)"It is a severe infection in your bones."
B)"It is a problem with bone resorption and formation."
C)"It is a condition in which your bones become soft."
D)"It's a disorder of altered energy production in muscle."
Q3) A student asks for an explanation of rhabdomyolysis. What response by the professor is best?
A)Paralysis of skeletal muscles, resulting from an impaired nerve supply
B)Smooth muscle degeneration, resulting from ischemia
C)Lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade
D)Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A)Heads of the femur
B)Distal femurs
C)Heads of the humerus
D)Distal tibias
Q2) What does the student learn about the pain experienced with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A)Elbow and upper and lower arm pain is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.
B)Knee, inner thigh, and groin pain is described as a continuous ache and relieved by antiinflammatory drugs.
C)Knee, inner thigh, and groin pain is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.
D)Elbow and upper and lower arm pain is described as a continuous ache and relieved by antiinflammatory drugs.
Q3) An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
A)C
B)B12
C)B6
D)D
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) A patient in the clinic is diagnosed with dermatitis. The patient states that a previous healthcare professional diagnosed eczema. What response by the healthcare professional is best?
A)"Both are general terms for a specific inflammatory response in the skin."
B)"Eczema is an older, outdated term. The preferred term is dermatitis."
C)"No, it's not eczema. Eczema has yellowish scaly plaques."
D)"If it were eczema, it would have blisters that go away on their own."
Q2) A patient has an intradermal nevus. What assessment does the healthcare professional know is consistent with this lesion?
A)Flat, dark, may be up to 2 cm in size
B)Elevated and smooth surface
C)Regular edges with bristle-like hairs
D)Heaped-up, keratinized cells
Q3) Which component of the epidermis initiates immune responses and provides a defense against environmental antigens?
A)Langerhans cells
B)Merkel cells
C)Keratinocytes
D)Melanocytes
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) A person has a vascular anomaly associated with a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries and has been told this lesion does not fade with age. What treatment options can the healthcare professional discuss with this person?
A)Surgical excision
B)Pulsed dye laser
C)Cool temperatures
D)Cosmetic tattooing
Q2) A baby has diaper dermatitis. What secondary infection does the healthcare professional assess for?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Candida albicans
C)Proteus spp.
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is elevated in atopic dermatitis?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)IgG
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) A student learns that a fatal burn injury has what effect on interleukins (ILs)?
A)Decreases levels of IL-2
B)Decreases levels of IL-4 lymphocytes
C)Increases levels of IL-6
D)Increases levels of IL-12
Q2) Four patients are in the intensive care unit with different types of shock. Which patient would the healthcare professional assess as the priority?
A)Septic
B)Hypovolemic
C)Anaphylactic
D)Neurogenic
Q3) For which type of shock would antihistamines and corticosteroids be prescribed?
A)Septic
B)Anaphylactic
C)Hypovolemic
D)Cardiogenic
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Q1) To determine a child's response to fluid therapy for shock, the healthcare professional should monitor which measurements as the priority?
A)Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
B)Urine output and specific gravity
C)Blood pressure and pulse
D)Arterial blood gases and heart rate
Q2) The healthcare professional explains to a student that the most serious outcome resulting from limited glycogen stores in children who have been seriously burned is which of these?
A)Poor wound healing
B)Increased morbidity
C)Decreased immunity
D)Loss of adipose tissue stores
Q3) A 4-year-old child with a burn injury has entered the catabolic flow phase. What assessment would the healthcare provider correlate with this situation?
A)Oxygen saturation normal on room air
B)7 pound weight loss in 1 week
C)Capillary refill <2 sec
D)Blood pressure 89/56 mmHg
Page 52
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