Clinical Pathophysiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the fundamental mechanisms by which diseases alter normal physiological processes in the human body. This course emphasizes the clinical relevance of pathophysiological changes, linking cellular, tissue, and organ dysfunction to the outward signs and symptoms observed in patients. Through detailed analysis of disease processes such as inflammation, infection, immune responses, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, and endocrine disorders, students develop a comprehensive understanding of how pathology manifests in clinical practice. The course integrates case studies and current clinical examples to highlight diagnostic reasoning and the rationale for therapeutic strategies, preparing students for advanced studies and clinical decision-making in healthcare professions.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Huether
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42 Chapters
1238 Verified Questions
1238 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication.In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained?
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosome
C) Nucleolus
D) Nucleus Cytoplasm
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)stimulates the production of:
A) platelets.
B) epidermal cells.
C) connective tissue cells.
D) fibroblast cells.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and a reduced carrying angle at the elbow.
A) Down syndrome
B) Cri du chat syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: C
Q2) The base components of DNA are:
A) A, G, C, and U.
B) P, G, C, and T.
C) A, G, C, and T.
D) X, XX, XY, and YY.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has provided support for the theory that epigenetic modifications can result from deficient in utero nutrition causing which chronic disease? (select all that apply)
A) Obesity
B) Asthma
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Diabetes
E) Crohn's disease
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities?
A) Infancy
B) Puberty
C) In utero
D) Middle age
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate.On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese).Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Autonecrosis
Q2) While reading a textbook, a student reads the term apoptosis.The student recalls that apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to:
A) atrophy.
B) die.
C) regenerate.
D) age.
Q3) A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion.The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:
A) malnutrition.
B) free radicals.
C) ischemia.
D) chemical toxicity.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia?
A) Excess aldosterone
B) Acute acidosis
C) Insulin usage
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q2) A 5-year-old male presents to the ER with delirium and sunken eyes.After diagnosing him with severe dehydration, the primary care provider orders fluid replacement.The nurse administers a hypertonic intravenous solution.Which of the following would be expected?
A) Symptoms subside quickly
B) Increased ICF volume
C) Decreased ECF volume
D) Intracellular dehydration
Q3) For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by:
A) excreting H<sup>+</sup> through the kidneys.
B) hyperventilating.
C) retaining CO<sub>2</sub> in the lungs.
D) secreting aldosterone.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse remembers that the primary actions of the complement cascade include: (select all that apply)
A) increased vascular permeability.
B) vasoconstriction.
C) chemotaxis.
D) opsonization.
E) cell killing.
F) increased clotting.
Q2) An 8-year-old female presents with edema of the cutaneous and mucosal tissue layers.Her mother reports that the condition is recurrent and seems to occur more often during stressful situations.The child is diagnosed with hereditary angioedema.Which of the following is deficient in this child?
A) C1 esterase inhibitor
B) Carboxypeptidase
C) Neutrophils
D) Plasmin
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response.The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens.Which cells should be isolated?
A) Lymphokine-producing cells
B) T-cytotoxic cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Macrophages
Q2) A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections.A possible cause of this condition is:
A) hypergammaglobulinemia.
B) increased maternal IgG.
C) immune insufficiency.
D) decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hyposensitivity.
Q3) Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who:
A) has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization.
B) receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donor.
C) has T cells that become B cells.
D) receives immunoglobulin.
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Chapter 8: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV.Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
A) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Protease inhibitors
C) Entrance inhibitors
D) Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
Q2) After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
A) are easily treated with penicillin.
B) are extremely rare.
C) never occur with other infections.
D) are commonly opportunistic.
Q3) After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
A) contain no DNA or RNA.
B) are capable of independent reproduction.
C) replicate their genetic material inside host cells.
D) are easily killed by antimicrobials.
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Chapter 9: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student arrives at school to find that he/she has an exam for which he/she is unprepared.Which physiological response would be expected?
A) Decreased lipolysis
B) Bronchoconstriction
C) Decreased cortisol release
D) Increased glucagon release
Q2) A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla.He experiences elevated blood pressure and increased anxiety.Which of the following hormones is the predominant one released by the tumor?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Acetylcholine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Cortisol
Q3) When assessing the effects of elevated ?-endorphins in a patient, which of the following should the nurse monitor?
A) Peripheral vasoconstriction
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Pain inhibition
D) Decreased immune cell activity
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Chapter 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
A) release of growth factors.
B) tumor regression.
C) apoptosis.
D) new blood vessel growth.
Q2) Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient.What types of cancers respond well to brachytherapy? (select all that apply)
A) Prostate
B) Cervix
C) Head
D) Neck
E) Lung
Q3) A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker.Which of the following could be a possible marker?
A) Red blood cells
B) Apoptotic cells
C) Enzymes
D) Neurotransmitters
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Chapter 11: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?
A) Dark complexion, light eyes, underweight
B) Light complexion, dark eyes, overweight
C) Medium complexion, light eyes, smoker
D) Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
Q2) Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as:
A) bystander effects.
B) lethal mutation.
C) delayed reproductive death.
D) genetic instability.
Q3) When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism's development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining?
A) Transgenerational inheritance
B) Epigenetics
C) Histone modification
D) Developmental plasticity
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Chapter 12: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor.This disease is a tumor of the:
A) kidney.
B) brain.
C) bone marrow.
D) liver.
Q2) What event occurs in about 70% of the cases of childhood cancers?
A) Cured
B) Required only chemotherapy
C) Participated in clinical trails
D) Developed a secondary malignancy
Q3) What is the origin of most childhood cancers?
A) Placenta
B) Environment
C) Mesodermal germ layer
D) Neural tube
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14
Chapter 13: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter is released when a patient's parasympathetic motor neurons are stimulated?
A) Epinephrine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Substance P
Q2) When a student asks in which region of the neuron do nerve impulses travel the fastest, how should the nurse respond? The:
A) large axon.
B) axon hillock.
C) cell body.
D) dendrites.
Q3) A nurse remembers the brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output.
A) 80
B) 40
C) 20
D) 10
Q4) When a patient wants to know how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column, the nurse responds with _____.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exogenous pyrogens are:
A) interleukins.
B) endotoxins.
C) prostaglandins.
D) corticotropin-releasing factors.
Q2) Which group of people is most prone to color blindness?
A) Males
B) Females
C) Elderly persons
D) Children
Q3) Heat loss from the body via convection occurs by:
A) evaporation of electromagnetic waves.
B) transfer of heat through currents of liquids or gas.
C) dilation of blood vessels bringing blood to skin surfaces.
D) direct heat loss from molecule-to-molecule transfer.
Q4) Which condition would be treated with therapeutic hypothermia?
A) Malnutrition
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Reimplantation surgery
D) Parkinson disease
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive movement and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes.He is experiencing movement problems that begin in the face and arms and eventually affect the entire body.The most likely diagnosis is:
A) tardive dyskinesia.
B) Huntington disease.
C) hypokinesia.
D) Alzheimer disease.
Q2) A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center as a result of experiencing delirium, inability to concentrate, and being easily distracted.What term would be used to document this state?
A) Acute confusional state
B) Echolalia
C) Dementia
D) Dysphagia
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Chapter 16: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Six weeks ago a patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury.What complication does the nurse suspect when the patient develops a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia?
A) Extreme spinal shock
B) Acute anxiety
C) Autonomic hyperreflexia
D) Parasympathetic areflexia
Q2) A patient diagnosed with a spinal cord injury experienced spinal shock lasting 15 days.The patient is now experiencing an uncompensated cardiovascular response to sympathetic stimulation.What does the nurse suspect caused this condition?
A) Toxic accumulation of free radicals below the level of the injury
B) Pain stimulation above the level of the spinal cord lesion
C) A distended bladder or rectum
D) An abnormal vagal response
Q3) What are the most common primary central nervous system (CNS)tumors in adults?
A) Meningiomas
B) Oligodendrogliomas
C) Astrocytomas
D) Ependymomas
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old Black child with a history of sickle cell disease and is now diagnosed with meningitis.Which is the most likely microorganism the nurse will find on the lab report?
A) Virus
B) Haemophilus influenzae type B
C) Streptococcus pneumonia
D) Neisseria meningitidis
Q2) A newborn child is diagnosed with a vertebral arch defect, spina bifida.This condition would lead the nurse to suspect the child may have which of the following as well? (select all that apply)
A) Type II Chiari malformation
B) Myelomeningocele
C) Meningocele
D) Acrania
E) Craniosynostosis
Q3) The percent of retinoblastomas that are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait is ____%.
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19
Chapter 18: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor?
A) Melatonin
B) Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
D) Somatostatin
Q2) Which nutrient would the nurse encourage the patient to consume for thyroid hormone synthesis?
A) Zinc
B) Sodium
C) Iodine
D) Calcium
Q3) Which of the following lab results would indicate a slowdown in the rate of parathyroid hormone secretion?
A) Increased serum calcium levels
B) Decreased serum calcium levels
C) Decreased levels of TSH
D) Increased levels of TSH
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 11-year-old is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM.Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for?
A) Recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesia
B) Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss
C) Vomiting, abdominal pain, sweet, fruity breath, dehydration, and Kussmaul breathing
D) Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion
Q2) What is the most common cause of Addison disease?
A) An autoimmune reaction
B) Dietary deficiency of sodium and potassium
C) Cancer
D) Viral infection of the pituitary gland
Q3) A patient presents with breast discharge, dysmenorrhea, and excessive excitability.Tests reveal that all pituitary hormones are elevated.What does the nurse suspect as the most likely cause for these assessment findings?
A) A pituitary adenoma
B) Hypothalamic hyposecretion
C) Hypothalamic inflammation
D) Pheochromocytoma
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21
Chapter 20: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a staff member asks how erythrocytes can carry oxygen, the nurse should describe which of the following properties that allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers? (select all that apply)
A) Biconcavity
B) Reversible deformability
C) Undergoes mitotic division
D) Presence of many mitochondria
E) Presence of a nucleus
Q2) A nurse is discussing a cell that can differentiate into any tissue type.Which term is the nurse describing?
A) Hematopoietic
B) Pluripotent
C) Blastocyst
D) Progenitor
Q3) Which of the following assessment findings is most likely to occur following a splenectomy?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Decreased red blood cell count
D) Decreased platelets
22
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lab results showing high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit would support a diagnosis of which form of anemia?
A) Pernicious
B) Folate deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Sideroblastic
Q2) A 45-year-old is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia.The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
A) defective DNA synthesis.
B) abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin.
C) defective use of vitamin C.
D) blocked protein synthesis.
Q3) A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass.He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma.Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?
A) Merkel cell
B) Schwann cell
C) Reed-Sternberg cell
D) Kupffer cell
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amino acids is present in Hb S and not present in normal Hb?
A) Valine
B) Glutamic acid
C) Proline
D) Histidine
Q2) Which of the following clusters of symptoms would lead the nurse to suspect a child has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
A) Multiple infections; bruising; abnormal bone marrow aspiration
B) Lower extremity that is warm to touch, edematous, and painful
C) Spontaneous nosebleeds, bruising, and petechiae
D) Increased platelet count; recent-onset venous thrombosis
Q3) What is a priority assessment for Hodgkin lymphoma in children?
A) Painless adenopathy in cervical nodes
B) Significant bruising
C) Weight gain
D) Petechiae
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Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structures act as anchors for the atrioventricular valves?
A) Chordae tendineae
B) Great vessels
C) Coronary ostia
D) Trabeculae carneae
Q2) Within a normal physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume would lead the nurse to monitor for:
A) an increased force of contraction.
B) a decrease in cardiac output.
C) an increase in heart rate.
D) heart failure.
Q3) Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of:
A) a decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to ions.
B) the rapid movement of ions across the cell membrane.
C) a blockade by calcium ions.
D) stimuli instigated during the refractory period.
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Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse recalls acute orthostatic hypotension can be caused by: (select all that apply)
A) prolonged immobility.
B) drug action.
C) starvation.
D) volume depletion.
E) exercise.
Q2) For an infection to progress to septic shock, what must occur?
A) The individual must be immunosuppressed.
B) The myocardium must be impaired.
C) The infection must be gram negative.
D) Bacteria must enter the bloodstream.
Q3) A 60-year-old female has survived a myocardial infarction.The nurse is providing care for impaired ventricular function because:
A) there is a temporary alteration in electrolyte balance.
B) there is too much stress on the heart.
C) the cells become hypertrophic.
D) the resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death.
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Chapter 25: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old female with a ventricular septal defect is experiencing left-sided heart failure.Which symptom will most likely occur?
A) Failure to thrive
B) Increased urinary output
C) Jaundice
D) Flat neck veins
Q2) A 3-year-old male is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease.What is the most likely cause of Kawasaki disease?
A) A genetic defect causing left heart failure
B) Autoimmune injury to the lymphatic vessels
C) Infectious pericarditis
D) Inflammation of the small capillaries, arteries, and veins
Q3) What is the most common type of congenital heart defect assessed for in infants?
A) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Atrioventricular canal defect
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Chapter 26: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual with respiratory difficulty were retaining too much carbon dioxide, which of the following compensatory responses would the nurse expect to be initiated?
A) Increase in respiratory rate
B) Decrease in ventilation rate
C) Increase in tidal volume
D) Vasodilation of the pulmonary arterioles
Q2) After entering a room of chemical fog, a 20-year-old male cannot stop coughing.Which of the following structures are primarily responsible for his response?
A) Upper respiratory tract mucosa
B) Irritant receptors in the trachea and large airways
C) Irritant receptors in the nostrils
D) Upper respiratory nasal hairs and turbinates
Q3) One of the functions of the pulmonary system is the:
A) expelling of bacteria.
B) exchange of gases between the environment and blood.
C) movement of blood into and out of the capillaries.
D) principal mechanism for cooling of the heart.
Q4) ____% of oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 26-year-old recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis.Tests reveal a collapsed lung caused by the removal of air from obstructed alveoli.Which term is used to document this condition?
A) Compression atelectasis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Absorption atelectasis
D) Hypoventilation
Q2) What is the most likely cause of chronic bronchitis in a 25-year-old?
A) Chronic asthma
B) Air pollution
C) Cigarette smoke
D) Recurrent pneumonias
Q3) Asthma is thought to be caused by:
A) an autosomal recessive trait.
B) autoimmunity.
C) excessive use of antibiotics as a young child.
D) interactions between genetic and environmental factors.
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old is diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea.When the parents ask, the nurse shares that the initial treatment will be:
A) tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A).
B) weight loss.
C) continuous positive airway pressure.
D) drug therapy.
Q2) A 6-month-old presents with rhinorrhea, cough, poor feeding, lethargy, and fever and is diagnosed with bronchiolitis.Which of the following will the nurse most likely observe on the culture report?
A) Parainfluenza virus
B) Haemophilus influenzae type B
C) Respiratory syncytial virus
D) Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
Q3) To prevent sudden infant death syndrome, the nurse should instruct parents to:
A) place infants on a soft mattress for sleeping.
B) always lay infants down on their backs to sleep.
C) breast-feed their infants.
D) keep the infant's room very warm.
Q4) Asthma affects ____% of children between birth and 17 years of age.
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:
A) corpuscle.
B) capsule.
C) medulla.
D) pyramid.
Q2) A nurse would chart that a patient is experiencing oliguria when a 24-hour urine output is less than ________ milliliters per day.
Q3) The blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:
A) vagus nerve.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
Q4) On average, the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.
A) 10-14%
B) 15-19%
C) 20-25%
D) 26-35%
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Q5) A nurse recalls the superficial cortical nephrons account for ____% of all nephrons.
Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Q1) Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by:
A) swelling of mesangial cells in the Bowman space in response to the presence of bacteria.
B) immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage.
C) inflammatory factors that stimulate cellular proliferation of epithelial cells.
D) accumulation of antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.
Q2) When a 42-year-old is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, which dietary restriction will the nurse discuss with the patient?
A) Fats
B) Complex carbohydrates
C) Proteins
D) Sugars
Q3) The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:
A) cystitis.
B) renal cancer.
C) urinary tract obstruction.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Q1) An infant male experiences a constant dribbling of urine.His urethral opening is located behind the glans.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
A) Anterior epispadias
B) Posterior epispadias
C) Exstrophy of the bladder
D) Bladder outlet obstruction
Q2) A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis.History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition.The infection was most likely located in the:
A) bone.
B) gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
C) respiratory tract.
D) ear.
Q3) The life expectancy of infants who are diagnosed with bilateral renal agenesis is expected to be:
A) death within 1 year of birth.
B) a fairly normal, healthy life.
C) death within a few hours of birth.
D) good when anomalies are corrected with surgery.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The area of the penis with the most nerve endings is the:
A) foreskin.
B) glans.
C) corpora cavernosa.
D) corpus spongiosum.
Q2) The major difference between male and female sex hormone production is that:
A) LH has no apparent action in the male.
B) sex hormone production in the male is relatively constant.
C) estrogen is not produced in the male.
D) in the male, GnRH does not cause the release of FSH.
Q3) Cells of the ____ have receptors for gonadotropins.
A) uterus
B) breast
C) ovary
D) vagina
Q4) Progesterone is referred to as "the hormone of pregnancy" because it:
A) stimulates lactation.
B) increases ciliary action in the fallopian tubes.
C) thins the endometrium.
D) prevents smooth muscle contraction of the uterus.
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Chapter 33: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Q1) An 18-year-old female is diagnosed with dysmenorrhea.Which of the following symptoms will she most likely experience?
A) Absence of menstruation
B) Painful menstruation
C) Unusually long menstrual period
D) Menstrual irregularity
Q2) A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding.Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium.These tumors are commonly called:
A) adenomyosis.
B) endometriosis.
C) leiomyomas.
D) adenomas.
Q3) Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
A) Dimpling
B) Nipple discharge
C) Chest pain
D) A painless lump
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Chapter 34: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Q1) A 25-year-old sexually active male presents with urethritis and epididymitis, and is diagnosed with the most common bacteria STI in the United States.What is this infection?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes
Q2) A 30-year-old presents with penile tenderness and discharge while the physical examination reveals that his foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans penis.This assessment data is consistent with what condition?
A) Paraphimosis
B) Phimosis
C) Peyronie disease
D) Priapism
Q3) A common complaint from men with mild to moderate benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)is:
A) decreased urinary stream.
B) infertility.
C) sexual dysfunction.
D) prostatodynia.
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) Digestion begins in the mouth with salivary a-amylase (ptyalin)that initiates the digestion of:
A) proteins.
B) carbohydrates.
C) fats.
D) amino acids.
Q2) The GI tract performs which of the following processes? (select all that apply)
A) Absorption of digested food
B) Chemical breakdown of food particles
C) Initiates erythropoiesis
D) Mechanical breakdown of food particles
E) Secretion of mucus
Q3) The ________ sphincter controls the movement of waste from the sigmoid colon into the rectum?
A) oddi
B) ileocecal
C) O'Beirne
D) internal anal
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant.Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low-grade fever.A possible diagnosis would be:
A) colon cancer.
B) pancreatitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) hepatitis.
Q2) A 50-year-old male reports episodes of frequently recurring crampy abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools.A possible diagnosis would be:
A) ulcerative colitis.
B) hiatal hernia.
C) pyloric obstruction.
D) achalasia.
Q3) Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of:
A) fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
B) water-soluble vitamins.
C) proteins.
D) minerals.
Q4) Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI)greater than _____.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) Occurrence of gastroesophageal reflux (GER)is highest in which pediatric population?
A) Premature infants
B) Infants with Down syndrome
C) Children with cystic fibrosis
D) Children with esophageal atresia
Q2) A 2-month-old female is brought to the emergency room (ER)for persistent bile-stained vomiting after feeding.Physical examination reveals dehydration, and x-ray reveals gas bubbles in the intestines.What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Malrotation
B) Ileocecal displacement
C) Pyloric stenosis
D) Meconium ileus
Q3) What is the most common symptom of Meckel diverticulum observed in children?
A) Constipation
B) Vomiting
C) Rectal bleeding
D) Ascites
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) A nurse recalls fibrous joints generally are:
A) rotating.
B) slightly movable.
C) freely movable.
D) calcified.
Q2) What type of joint normally exists between the teeth and the maxilla or mandible?
A) Symphysis
B) Diarthrosis
C) Gomphosis
D) Syndesmosis
Q3) When describing a freely movable joint, which term should be used?
A) Synarthrosis
B) Amphiarthrosis
C) Fibrous
D) Diarthrosis
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) A 21-year-old is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis (AS).The most likely joint to be affected would be the:
A) sacroiliac.
B) carpal.
C) shoulder.
D) knee.
Q2) What is the most common aggravating trigger of gouty arthritis attacks?
A) Trauma
B) Anemia
C) High-fat foods
D) Lack of exercise
Q3) The cause of Paget disease is:
A) fluoride deficiency.
B) unknown at present.
C) excess vitamin A.
D) osteogenic sarcoma.
Q4) To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) Which type of scoliosis accounts for the majority of the cases of scoliosis?
A) Idiopathic
B) Infectious
C) Iatrogenic
D) Secondary
Q2) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)has a(n)_____ inheritance pattern.
A) autosomal recessive
B) X-linked recessive
C) Y-linked dominant
D) autosomal dominant
Q3) A 1-year-old female was diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI).Which complication must be monitored for?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Liver failure
C) Aortic aneurysm
D) Pulmonary emboli
Q4) Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected.
Q5) Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease peaks at age______.
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Chapter 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) Individuals of which descent are more prone to developing keloids?
A) Black
B) Northern European
C) Asian
D) Native American
Q2) In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:
A) depth of burn injury.
B) possibility of infection.
C) degree of systemic involvement.
D) total body surface area burned.
Q3) A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion.Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia.Lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
A) sickle cell syndrome.
B) fluid movement out of the vascular space.
C) renal failure.
D) increased vascular protein secondary to increased metabolism.
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Chapter 42: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) A 4-month-old is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (AD).Which assessment finding will most likely support this diagnosis?
A) Blistering
B) Moist reddened skin
C) Dry, itchy skin
D) White patches
Q2) A 4-month-old develops oral white spots and shallow ulcers.The pediatrician diagnoses thrush which is caused by:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Streptococcal bacteria.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Staphylococcal bacteria.
Q3) A 10-year-old presents with vesicles consistent with vesicular impetigo.What is the most likely cause of the condition?
A) Herpes virus
B) Candida albicans
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
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