Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology Exam
Solutions
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the fundamental mechanisms of disease processes affecting organ systems in the human body, offering a bridge between basic science and clinical medicine. Through detailed case studies and analysis of physiological alterations, students learn to recognize the signs, underlying causes, and consequences of various pathological conditions. The course emphasizes the integration of cellular, molecular, and systemic knowledge to understand how disease manifests, progresses, and informs clinical decision-making, preparing students for advanced study in health sciences and healthcare practice.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during:
A) the first stage.
B) the second stage.
C) the third stage.
D) any of these stages.
Answer: C
Q2) A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an:
A) epidemic.
B) exacerbation.
C) morbidity.
D) pandemic.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate?
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
A) Rapid, strong pulse
B) Low hematocrit
C) Increased urine output
D) Rough oral mucosa
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following would cause edema?
A) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased capillary osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary permeability
D) Increased capillary permeability
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects?
A) Antagonism
B) Beneficial
C) Synergism
D) Potentiation
Answer: C
Q2) A medical history should include all:
1) legally prescribed drugs.
2) vitamin or mineral supplements.
3) any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items).
4) herbal treatments.
A) 1 only
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A) pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
B) spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin.
C) responsible for the state of arousal with pain.
D) useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.
Q2) Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of:
A) referred pain.
B) phantom pain.
C) chronic pain.
D) subjective pain response.
Q3) Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as:
A) neuropathic pain.
B) central pain.
C) neurogenic pain.
D) referred pain.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) An abscess contains:
A) serous exudate.
B) purulent exudate.
C) fibrinous exudate.
D) hemorrhagic exudate.
Q2) Tears are considered to be part of the:
1) first line of defense.
2) second line of defense.
3) third line of defense.
4) specific defenses.
5) nonspecific defenses.
A) 1, 4
B) 1, 5
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 5
Q3) Hypermetabolism is common with major burns because of:
A) increased heat loss from the burn wound.
B) demand for tissue repair.
C) recurrent stress response.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "incubation period" refers to the time period between:
A) entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.
B) the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
C) the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
D) the acute period and establishment of chronic infection.
Q2) Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because:
A) the immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue.
B) the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth.
C) phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas.
D) capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.
Q3) How do antiviral drugs act?
A) They interfere with cell wall development.
B) They decrease cell membrane permeability.
C) They destroy new, immature viral particles.
D) They reduce the rate of viral replication.
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) CD4-positive helper T cells function by:
A) direct cytotoxic action.
B) facilitating all immune system activity.
C) producing immunoglobulins.
D) inactivating allergens.
Q2) Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
A) activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
B) destroy antigens quickly.
C) increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
D) cause immediate pain.
Q3) Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?
A) Agglutination
B) Double immunodiffusion test
C) Western blot test
D) Sedimentation rate test
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
A) using a culture and sensitivity test on the exudate.
B) checking the frequency of the exacerbations.
C) noting the location and size of the lesion.
D) the type of pain associated with the lesion.
Q2) What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
A) Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions
B) Autoimmune response
C) Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
D) Basal cell degeneration
Q3) Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections?
A) Fungus
B) Virus
C) Gram-negative bacterium
D) Mite
Q4) Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
A) Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
B) Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
C) Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
D) Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that:
A) only small joints are affected.
B) rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe.
C) onset is more insidious in JRA.
D) deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA.
Q2) Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
A) articular capsules.
B) bursae.
C) synovial sacs.
D) hyaline chambers.
Q3) Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
A) Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time
B) Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis
C) Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
D) Presence of many antibodies in the blood
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11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukemia is sometimes linked to chromosome abnormalities, as evidenced by:
A) the presence of Philadelphia chromosome translocation in cases of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML).
B) very low incidence in persons with Down syndrome.
C) little evidence of familial incidence.
D) transmission as a recessive gene.
Q2) All of the following apply to vitamin K EXCEPT:
A) it is used as an antidote for warfarin (Coumadin).
B) the liver requires it to produce prothrombin.
C) it is a fat-soluble vitamin.
D) the bone marrow requires it to synthesize hemoglobin.
Q3) What are the typical early general signs and symptoms of anemia?
A) Chest pain, palpitations
B) Jaundice, stomatitis
C) Pallor, dyspnea, and fatigue
D) Bradycardia, heat intolerance
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma is the: A) monocyte.
B) Ann Arbor cell
C) Hodgkin's lymphocyte
D) Reed-Sternberg cell
Q2) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
Q3) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
A) venous return is increased.
B) ventricular fibrillation develops immediately.
C) conduction through the AV node is impaired.
D) ventricular filling is reduced.
Q2) Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?
A) A full description of the pain, including the sequence of development
B) The presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides
C) Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG
D) Leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein
Q3) The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:
A) cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body.
B) temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery.
C) total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis.
D) irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.
Q4) The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following?
A) Condition where cardiac output is less than the demand
B) A decreased circulating blood volume
C) Missing a ventricular contraction
D) The cessation of all cardiac function
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?
A) A positive tuberculin skin test
B) Occurrence of hemoptysis
C) Unproductive cough with absence of sputum
D) Small areas of calcification on a chest X-ray
Q2) In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:
A) excess bile production.
B) high sodium chloride content in saliva and sweat.
C) gastric ulcers.
D) frequent ear and sinus infections.
Q3) What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases? serum bicarbonate 36.5 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28)
PCO<sub>2</sub> 75 mm Hg (normal range: 35-45)
Serum pH 7.0
A) Compensated metabolic acidosis
B) Decompensated metabolic acidosis
C) Compensated respiratory acidosis
D) Decompensated respiratory acidosis
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form?
A) In the pia mater, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain
B) In the dura mater and epidural space
C) At the site of the injury or entry point of the microbes
D) Primarily around the spinal cord
Q2) Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
A) Seizures are recurrent or continuous without full recovery between episodes.
B) Severe hypoxia and acidosis develop.
C) Person does not lose consciousness during seizure.
D) If the episode persists, there may be additional brain damage.
Q3) Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull?
A) Depressed
B) Contrecoup
C) Comminuted
D) Basilar
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16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B) Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C) Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D) Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q2) An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
A) Sensorineural
B) Conduction
C) Semiacute
D) Inflammatory
Q3) The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as:
A) strabismus.
B) nystagmus.
C) presbyopia.
D) diplopia.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
A) A malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands
B) End-stage renal failure
C) Osteoporosis
D) Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
Q2) Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
A) cataracts.
B) macular degeneration.
C) myopia.
D) strabismus.
Q3) A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called:
A) temporary maternal diabetes.
B) fetal diabetes.
C) acute developmental diabetes.
D) gestational diabetes.
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
A) Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
B) Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
C) A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
D) Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
Q2) Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:
A) obesity and smoking.
B) high-fat diet and hypertension.
C) congenital defects and drug abuse.
D) gallstones and alcohol abuse.
Q3) Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
A) Bicarbonate ion
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Activated digestive enzymes
D) Insulin
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circulatory shock causes:
A) decreased GFR and increased renin secretion.
B) increased ADH and decreased aldosterone secretion.
C) immediate tubule necrosis and obstruction.
D) sympathetic nervous system (SNS) stimulation and vasodilation of afferent and efferent arterioles.
Q2) By what process is water reabsorbed from the filtrate?
A) Osmosis
B) Active transport
C) Cotransport
D) Capillary action
Q3) With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause:
A) cardiac arrhythmias.
B) encephalopathy.
C) hypervolemia.
D) skeletal muscle twitch or spasm.
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal cavity?
A) The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus.
B) The uterus is perforated because of infection, allowing bacteria to leak out.
C) Most of the primary infections do not respond to antimicrobial drugs.
D) Microbes are highly virulent.
Q2) Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Herpes simplex
D) All of the above
Q3) Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
A) lungs.
B) bone.
C) pelvic lymph nodes.
D) brain.
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
A) A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor
B) Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
C) A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested
D) A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity
Q2) Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
A) Invasiveness
B) Seeding
C) Metastasis
D) Systemic effect
Q3) The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means :
A) the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.
B) the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
C) higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
D) the patient is at high risk for infection.
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality, the result is called a:
A) chromosomal disorder.
B) developmental disorder.
C) multifactorial disorder.
D) single-gene disorder.
Q2) A person with sickle cell trait that is heterozygous has:
A) an incomplete dominant gene.
B) a multifactorial condition.
C) co-dominant genes.
D) X-linked dominant trait.
Q3) Which term refers to prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid?
A) Chorionic villus testing
B) Preparing a family pedigree
C) Amniocentesis
D) Triple-screen test
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to eclampsia?
A) Elevated blood pressure returns to normal after delivery.
B) Kidney and liver function remain normal.
C) It commonly develops with ectopic pregnancies.
D) Blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur.
Q2) Place the following statements regarding Rh incompatibility in the correct sequence. Not all choices are included in each answer.
1) Hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and anemia occur.
2) Maternal Rh-negative cells enter fetal blood.
3) Fetal Rh-positive cells enter maternal blood.
4) Elevated serum bilirubin levels develop in the fetus.
5) Antibodies to Rh-positive cells form in maternal blood.
6) Maternal Rh antibodies enter the fetal circulation.
A) 3, 1, 4, 6, 5
B) 6, 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
C) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4
D) 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comprise typical early signs of Still's disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1) Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2) High fever and skin rash
3) Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
4) Deformity of the hands and feet
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Q2) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A) sweat glands of the upper body.
B) dermis and epidermis of the skin.
C) apocrine glands.
D) sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A) sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
B) abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test.
C) the causative bacteria in the saliva.
D) extreme fatigue and malaise.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) Senescence refers to the period of time when:
A) mitosis is accelerated.
B) apoptosis is reduced.
C) aging changes become apparent.
D) cell death exceeds cell replacement.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing life span of the general population?
A) Reduced cognitive and social activities
B) Improved living conditions
C) Better nutrition
D) Advancements in health care
Q3) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
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26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) The major problem associated with immobility and the gastrointestinal tract is:
A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) nausea.
D) increased rate of peristalsis.
Q2) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
Q3) Virchow's triad refers to:
A) an anatomical structure in the kidneys.
B) a combination of factors affecting potential thrombus formation.
C) factors that predispose an individual toward urinary tract infections.
D) psychological factors leading to stress associated with immobility.
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
Q3) Hans Selye defined his general adaptation syndrome concept, which is also known as:
A) fight or flight.
B) compensate or compromise.
C) restrain or release.
D) avoid and flee.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) When an increased dosage of a drug causes toxic effects, it is called:
A) synergism.
B) neurostimulant.
C) overdose.
D) detoxification.
Q2) A patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine will:
A) demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
B) require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
C) require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
D) show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
Q3) Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol?
A) It is primarily a CNS stimulant.
B) It may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers.
C) It does not interact with other drugs in the CNS.
D) It usually causes severe kidney damage.
Q4) What is/are the typical effect(s) of psychedelic substances?
A) Drowsiness and euphoria
B) Marked stimulation of the central nervous system (CNS)
C) Lethargy and decreased metabolic rate
D) Altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A) Damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B) Inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C) Various cancers
D) Displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
Q2) Which statement applies to food poisoning?
1) It results from consuming contaminated food and water.
2) It often causes gastroenteritis, including vomiting and diarrhea.
3) Outbreaks occur frequently in institutions.
4) It is often caused by Escherichia coli, normally found in the stomach.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) Choose the correct effects of exposure of the ears to very cold temperatures:
A) Loss of sensation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Vascular occlusions
D) A and C
30
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