Clinical Pathophysiology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology is a course that delves into the mechanisms of disease by exploring the functional and structural changes that occur in the body as a result of illness. Students examine the pathogenesis of major diseases affecting organ systems, linking foundational knowledge of normal physiology to clinical manifestations and diagnostic findings. Through case studies and current research, the course emphasizes critical thinking in assessing how disruptions in biological processes lead to the signs, symptoms, and laboratory results observed in clinical practice, preparing students to apply this knowledge in diagnostic and therapeutic decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term disease refers to:
A) the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
B) a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
C) the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
D) a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q2) A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
A) latent stage.
B) predisposing factor.
C) incidence.
D) precipitating factor.
Answer: D
Q3) If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called:
A) the placebo effect.
B) evidence-based research.
C) blind research studies.
D) approval for immediate distribution.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is:
A) proportionally smaller body surface area.
B) higher metabolic rate.
C) smaller respiratory capacity.
D) greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins?
A) Increased osmotic pressure
B) Decreased osmotic pressure
C) Increased hydrostatic pressure
D) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
Answer: B
Q3) In the initial stage, vomiting results in:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) None of the above
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other
Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by: A) chiropractors.
B) naturopaths.
C) homeopaths.
D) osteopaths.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
A) Additional, mild, unwanted effects
B) Unusual, unexpected mild effects
C) Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
D) Reduction of the allergic response
Answer: C
Q3) At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Circulating blood
D) Lymphoid tissue
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain?
A) It usually initiates a physiological stress response.
B) It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety.
C) It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.
D) It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.
Q2) Intractable pain is best defined as:
A) pain that is perceived as occurring in an amputated limb.
B) severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication.
C) pain perceived as coming from a source other than the actual source.
D) pain coming from a specific dermatome.
Q3) A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an:
A) intracranial headache.
B) intrameningeal headache.
C) migraine headache.
D) cerebral headache.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the correct statement about burns:
A) The severity of the burn depends on the temperature, duration, and extent of the burn.
B) Young children are less likely to suffer severe burns from immersion in excessively hot water.
C) Burns to the palms of the hands are more damaging than burns on the face.
D) With a major burn, excessive bleeding usually causes shock.
Q2) A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because:
A) bleeding occurs under the burn surface.
B) the heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn.
C) fluid and protein shift out of the blood.
D) vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area.
Q3) Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include:
A) edema and erythema.
B) area of necrosis and loss of function.
C) pain and tenderness.
D) fever and malaise.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:
A) ineffective.
B) bacteriostatic.
C) narrow-spectrum.
D) bactericidal.
Q2) Which statement applies to yeasts?
A) They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
B) They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
C) They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
D) They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.
Q3) When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
A) sporadic occurrence.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) emerging disease.
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term tolerance refers to:
A) surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system.
B) the ability of the immune system to ignore "self" cells.
C) the ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together.
D) the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses.
Q2) Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
A) hyperacute rejection of tissue.
B) T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
C) infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
D) transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.
Q3) Neutrophils:
A) are phagocytic cells.
B) produce histamine.
C) produce antibodies.
D) are elevated during an allergic response.
Q4) Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
A) activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
B) destroy antigens quickly.
C) increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
D) cause immediate pain.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
A) Pruritus in hairy areas of the body
B) Loss of blood due to lice bites
C) Finding lice in clothing
D) The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
Q2) Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Fatty tissue
Q3) Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
A) Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
B) Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
C) Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
D) Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Q4) Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location.
A) Scabies-fingers, wrists, waist
B) Impetigo-legs, feet
C) Pediculosis humanus corporis-scalp
D) Seborrheic keratosis-feet, hands
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:
A) weight-bearing activity.
B) a sedentary lifestyle.
C) long-term intake of glucocorticoids.
D) calcium deficit.
Q2) How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Relatively normal
B) Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement
C) Deformed, pale, and nodular
D) Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
Q3) Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
A) articular capsules.
B) bursae.
C) synovial sacs.
D) hyaline chambers.
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple opportunistic infections develop with acute leukemia primarily because:
A) the number of white blood cells is decreased.
B) many circulating leukocytes are immature.
C) severe anemia interferes with the immune response.
D) decreased appetite and nutritional intake reduce natural defenses.
Q2) Which of the following substances acts as an anticoagulant?
A) Prothrombin
B) Heparin
C) Fibrinogen
D) Vitamin K
Q3) What is the primary treatment for the leukemias?
A) Radiation
B) Chemotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Immunotherapy
Q4) What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
A) A defective gene inherited from both parents
B) A chronic bacterial infection
C) Bone marrow depression
D) An autoimmune reaction
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q2) Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:
A) plasma cell myeloma.
B) diverticulitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) obstructive vessel disorder.
Q3) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:
A) development of atheromas in large arteries.
B) intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries.
C) degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries.
D) ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart.
Q2) Phlebothrombosis is more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than is thrombophlebitis because:
A) platelets attach to the inflamed wall.
B) thrombus forms in a vein and is less firmly attached.
C) leg cramps require massage.
D) systemic signs of inflammation require treatment.
Q3) A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
A) venous return is increased.
B) ventricular fibrillation develops immediately.
C) conduction through the AV node is impaired.
D) ventricular filling is reduced.
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does total obstruction of the airway lead to atelectasis?
A) Decreased surfactant production impairs lung expansion.
B) The involved lung is compressed.
C) Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.
D) Air continues to be inspired but is trapped distal to the obstruction.
Q2) What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
A) Purulent nasal discharge and periorbital pain
B) Serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
C) Copious purulent sputum, particularly in the morning
D) Harsh barking cough and wheezing
Q3) Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?
A) Frequent nonproductive cough
B) Fever, dyspnea, generalized aching
C) Production of large volumes of purulent sputum
D) Hemoptysis and weight loss
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a vegetative state refer to?
A) Depression of the reticular activating system (RAS) and inability to initiate action
B) Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
C) Continuing intellectual function but inability to communicate or move
D) Disorientation and confusion with decreased responsiveness
Q2) The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes:
A) capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements.
B) motor skills, spatial awareness, time awareness, facial recognition.
C) short-term memory, cognitive skills, speech, name recognition.
D) hand-eye coordination, problem solving, ability to stand or walk, consciousness.
Q3) What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
A) Loss of hearing in both ears
B) Inability to understand what is heard
C) Loss of hearing in the left ear
D) Inability to determine the source of the sound
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma is an eye infection caused by:
A) influenza virus.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Staphylococcus bacteria.
D) Chlamydia bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
A) Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells
B) Edema of the cornea causing blurred vision
C) Cupping of the optic disc with damage to the optic nerve
D) Damage to the fovea centralis
Q3) Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals?
A) Sudden total loss of hearing
B) Tinnitus
C) Severe pain in ear
D) Fluid exudate draining from ear
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
A) cataracts.
B) macular degeneration.
C) myopia.
D) strabismus.
Q2) Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany?
A) Skeletal muscle contractions are weaker.
B) Nerves to skeletal muscle are more excitable.
C) Calcium is not stored in skeletal muscle cells.
D) Serum phosphate levels are low.
Q3) Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
A) Increased glucocorticoids
B) Decreased glucocorticoids
C) Deficit of ADH
D) Deficit of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
A) HAV
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HEV
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
A) They give feces the characteristic brown color.
B) They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids.
C) They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.
D) They are excreted in the feces.
Q3) Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
A) It is also called serum hepatitis.
B) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
C) It contains a double strand of DNA.
D) It frequently leads to chronic hepatitis.
Q4) What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
A) Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material has been removed
B) Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
C) Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
D) Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Q1) What causes polyuria during the stage of renal insufficiency?
A) Loss of tubule function
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Decreased aldosterone secretion
D) Increased GFR
Q2) What is the primary action of the diuretic furosemide?
A) Decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
B) Decreased reabsorption of H<sup>+</sup> in the tubules
C) Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone
D) Inhibition of renin
Q3) Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Cystitis
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Urolithiasis
Q4) Which of the following describes the flow of filtrate in the kidney?
A) The collecting duct to the distal convoluted tubule to the renal pelvis
B) Bowman's capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle
C) The loop of Henle to the collecting duct to Bowman's capsule
D) The distal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
A) slow the growth of the primary tumor.
B) destroy any micrometastases.
C) prevent the removal of any lymph nodes.
D) reduce the need for a mastectomy.
Q2) What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?
A) A positive Pap test
B) Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting
C) Infection resistant to treatment
D) Painful intercourse
Q3) Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
A) Obstruction in the fallopian tubes
B) Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial tissue
C) Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
D) Fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes
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21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:
A) often have systemic effects.
B) contain cells showing increased mitosis and atypical rapid growth.
C) are encapsulated and slow-growing.
D) can metastasize or invade nearby tissue.
Q2) Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
A) The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
B) Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
C) The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
D) No effective treatment is available.
Q3) The term apoptosis refers to:
A) programmed cell death.
B) abnormal or immature cells.
C) degree of differentiation of cells.
D) the development of new capillaries in a tumor.
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22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Q1) Ultrasonography during pregnancy would be helpful in detecting fetal:
A) enzyme deficits.
B) structural anomalies.
C) chromosomal defects.
D) hormonal abnormalities.
Q2) What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual's cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?
A) Pedigree
B) Punnett squares
C) Karyotype
D) Genotype
Q3) A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy; the father is unaffected. They have one son with muscular dystrophy. Another male child is expected. The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 0%
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Q1) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A) The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B) The parents differ in blood type.
C) The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D) Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
Q2) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q3) Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
A) normal maternal blood glucose levels until the last month of pregnancy.
B) no further indication of diabetes mellitus following delivery.
C) delivery of a high birth-weight infant.
D) no additional complications for the infant or mother.
Q4) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Proteinuria, edema, and weight gain
B) Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Blood clots forming in the legs
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Q1) How is scoliosis identified?
A) Bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B) Unevenly aligned hips and shoulders
C) A swayback posture
D) One arm and leg shorter than the other
Q2) Which statement applies to testicular cancer?
A) It often develops in untreated, undescended testes.
B) It is related to chromosome abnormalities such as monosomy X.
C) The tumor presents as a painful red lump in the scrotum.
D) The cancer usually causes sterility.
Q3) Obesity in adolescents is:
A) determined by calculating body mass index (BMI).
B) a significant factor in a teen's self-image.
C) related to increased intake of high fat and high carbohydrate snacks, "fast foods."
D) All of the above
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1) tissue elasticity.
2) rib mobility.
3) control by the respiratory center.
4) skeletal muscle strength.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decreased estrogen secretion.
B) genetic factors.
C) sedentary lifestyle.
D) decreased parathyroid hormone.
Q3) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
Q2) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
A) stasis of urine in the urinary system.
B) development of hypocalcemia with immobility.
C) fluid overload in the system.
D) lack of neurological control of the bladder.
Q3) What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
A) Decreased activity and demand for oxygen
B) Increased retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Inability to sneeze forcefully
D) Stasis of secretions in the lungs
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) Possible complications caused by prolonged, severe stress include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertension.
B) tension headache.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) blindness.
Q2) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q3) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following applies to abuse of anabolic steroids?
A) They cause CNS depression, deep sleep, and amnesia.
B) They often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system.
C) They help to relax skeletal muscle spasms.
D) They help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries.
Q2) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A) hereditary factors.
B) disease requiring certain prescription drugs.
C) easy access to many kinds of drugs.
D) increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress.
E) increased work productivity.
Q3) A patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine will:
A) demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
B) require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
C) require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
D) show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Inhalants can be:
A) a particulate such as asbestos.
B) gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
C) a solvent, such as benzene.
D) A, B, and C
Q2) Illness in institutions may be traced back to food handlers who:
A) are carriers of pathogens.
B) do not practice adequate hand-washing or sanitization.
C) bring in pathogens from home or the community.
D) A, B, and C
Q3) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A) Damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B) Inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C) Various cancers
D) Displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
Q4) Radiation damage may occur from repeated exposure to:
A) ultraviolet rays.
B) X-rays.
C) radioactive substances.
D) A, B, and C
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