Clinical Pathophysiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes underlying human disease and how these processes manifest as clinical symptoms and signs. This course bridges basic science and clinical practice by examining alterations in normal organ system functions, including cellular injury, inflammation, immune responses, and dysfunctions in major body systems such as cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, and endocrine systems. Students gain insight into the mechanisms of disease progression, diagnostic reasoning, and the rationale for therapeutic interventions, enabling them to connect foundational science with clinical decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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28 Chapters
1172 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
A)The Initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
B)If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly,the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state.
C)If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time,the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies.
D)Initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism,structure,or function.
Answer: D
Q2) The term homeostasis refers to:
A)the causative factors in a particular disease
B)maintenance of a stable internal environment
C)a condition that triggers an acute episode
D)a collection of signs and symptoms
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
A)Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
B)Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
C)Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
D)Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.
Answer: B
Q2) Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
A)pyrexia
B)malaise
C)chest pain
D)anorexia
Answer: C
Q3) A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because:
A)bleeding occurs under the burn surface
B)the heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn
C)fluid and protein shift out of the vascular compartment
D)vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cases of HIV infection,the "window period" refers to the time between:
A)entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations
B)entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood
C)entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count
D)diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS"
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?
A)helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)
B)B-lymphocytes
C)natural killer cells
D)macrophages
Answer: A
Q3) Neutrophils:
A)are phagocytic cells
B)produce histamine
C)produce antibodies
D)are elevated during an allergic response
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does bacteremia refer to?
A)numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
B)uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
C)multiple infections,primary and secondary,established in the body
D)small numbers of microbes temporarily present in the blood
Q2) Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
A)are usually considered to be pathogenic
B)consist of clusters of cells
C)may cause opportunistic infection in the body
D)are normally not found in resident flora
Q3) Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:
A)antiviral drugs lower host resistance
B)the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis
C)respiratory droplets transmit infections
D)the viral infection is usually self-limiting
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
A)The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
B)Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
C)The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
D)No effective treatment is available.
Q2) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A)thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
B)headache and lethargy
C)nausea and constipation
D)alopecia and weight loss
Q3) What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
A)Adenoma
B)Lipoma
C)Fibrosarcoma
D)Adenocarcinoma
Q4) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A)identify the original cell from which the tumor developed
B)locate and identify the primary tumor
C)decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor
D)determine the best treatment and the prognosis
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis?
A)pH is below normal range
B)pH is above normal range
C)bicarbonate level decreases
D)bicarbonate level increases
Q2) Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
A)4.5-8
B)7.0
C)7.4
D)8
Q3) Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema?
A)metabolic acidosis
B)metabolic alkalosis
C)respiratory acidosis
D)respiratory alkalosis
Q4) Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
A)rapid,strong pulse
B)low hematocrit
C)increased urine output
D)rough oral mucosa
8
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Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy;the father is unaffected.They have one son with muscular dystrophy.Another male child is expected.The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
Q2) Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?
A)many viruses
B)some heavy metals
C)certain chemicals
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Which term refers to prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid?
A)chorionic villus testing
B)preparing a family pedigree
C)amniocentesis
D)triple-screen test
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9
Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious Mononucleosis is characterized by all EXCEPT:
A)sore throat,fever,fatigue,malaise and rash on trunk
B)enlarged lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)and spleen (splenomegaly)
C)increased occurrence in infants and young children
D)the presence of atypical T-lymphocytes
E)a positive heterophil antibody test (Monospot test)
Q2) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A)levels of androgens
B)abnormally thin epiphyseal plate in X-ray
C)lack of a broader pelvis in males
D)development of kyphosis
Q3) The biologic changes associated with adolescence result are stimulated primarily by:
A)the peripheral nervous system
B)the thalamus
C)increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone
D)the pituitary gland
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Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A)inadequate prenatal care
B)poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements
C)iron deficiency anemia
D)incomplete pelvic development
E)All the above are correct.
Q2) What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth? It is:
A)38 weeks
B)termed the gestation period
C)referred to as gravidity
D)the embryonic period
Q3) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A)The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B)The parents differ in blood type.
C)The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D)Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
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11
Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Senescence refers to the period of time when:
A)mitosis is accelerated
B)apoptosis is reduced
C)aging changes become apparent
D)cell death exceeds cell replacement
Q2) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A)widespread vascular degeneration
B)cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C)hereditary factors
D)increased immune surveillance
Q3) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)decreased estrogen secretion
B)genetic factors
C)sedentary lifestyle
D)decreased parathyroid hormone
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following frequently causes decubitus ulcers?
A)infection by resident flora
B)inadequate circulation at pressure points
C)normal degenerative changes
D)allergic reaction to adhesive tape or dressings
Q2) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A)contracture
B)muscle hypertrophy
C)muscle atrophy
D)increased osteoblastic activity
Q3) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A)urinary stasis
B)renal calculi
C)infection
D)any of the above
Q4) Atelectasis may occur with a prolonged period of bed rest due to:
A)reduced removal of pulmonary secretions
B)increased expansion of the lower lobes of the lungs
C)increased risk of aspiration in a sitting position
D)loss of cough reflex
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Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe,prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop due to:
A)a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body
B)development of decompensated acidosis
C)prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia
D)the supply of hormones has been exhausted
Q2) Possible complications caused by prolonged,severe stress include all EXCEPT:
A)hypertension
B)tension headache
C)diabetes mellitus
D)infection
E)blindness
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A)the presence of several stressors at the same time
B)past experiences
C)lack of effective coping mechanisms
D)b,c
E)a,b,c
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14
Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs frequently with acute pain but not with chronic pain?
A)depression and debilitation
B)a perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
C)fatigue and lower pain tolerance
D)a stress response
Q2) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A)nociceptors
B)myelinated A delta fibers
C)unmyelinated C fibers
D)any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold
Q3) According to the gate-control theory,passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
A)at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses
B)by the stress response
C)by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord
D)by referring the pain to other parts of the body
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Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following apply to abuse of anabolic steroids? They:
A)cause CNS depression,deep sleep and amnesia
B)often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system
C)help to relax skeletal muscle spasms
D)help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries
Q2) What is physiologic dependence?
A)an intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B)adaptation of the body to a drug resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C)the need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D)continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
Q3) When an increased dosage of a drug causes toxic effects,it is called:
A)synergism
B)neurostimulant
C)overdose
D)detoxification
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A)bone and cartilage
B)skeletal and smooth muscle
C)peripheral and central neurons
D)epithelial tissue and bone marrow
Q2) The amount of radiation absorbed by the body is measured in rads,or _________?
A)radiation-absorbed doses
B)roentgen-absorbed doses
C)radiation-emission number
D)radiation ionizing rate
Q3) During the development of hyperthermia,the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A)body core temperature is very high
B)skeletal muscle spasms occur
C)hypovolemia and fainting occur
D)the cool-down process is too rapid
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the first priorities in the assessment of a patient in an emergency situation?
A)presence of bleeding and checking blood pressure
B)level of consciousness and respiratory function
C)to call 911 for an ambulance
D)appearance of the patient and cause of the problem
Q2) A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may:
1)stimulate activity in those cells
2)inhibit activity in those cells
3)have widespread effects on body functions
4)produce many unwanted side effects
A)1,2
B)2,3
C)3,4
D)1,3,4
Q3) At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
A)liver
B)kidneys
C)circulating blood
D)lymphoid tissue
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is pernicious anemia treated with injections of vitamin B ?
A)An immune reaction in the stomach would destroy the vitamin.
B)Digestive enzymes would destroy the vitamin.
C)The vitamin irritates the gastric mucosa.
D)The ingested vitamin would not be absorbed into the blood.
Q2) Thalassemia is caused by:
A)a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin
B)an abnormal form of heme
C)abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron
D)overproduction of hypochromic,microcytic RBCs
Q3) A high percentage of blast cells in the leukocyte population indicates a poor prognosis for an individual with:
A)Hodgkin's lymphoma
B)acute myelogenous leukemia
C)myelodysplastic syndrome
D)multiple myeloma
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event causes the QRS wave on an ECG tracing?
A)atrial depolarization
B)atrial repolarization
C)ventricular depolarization
D)ventricular repolarization
Q2) What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?
A)development of lipid plaques in large arteries
B)recurrent inflammation and fibrosis in peripheral arteries
C)degeneration and loss of elasticity in arteries
D)increased systemic vasoconstriction
Q3) Why are septic emboli a common complication of infective endocarditis?
A)Vegetations are loosely attached and fragile.
B)The valves are no longer competent.
C)Cardiac output is reduced.
D)Heart contractions are irregular.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases?
Serum bicarbonate 36.5 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28)
PCO 75 mm Hg (normal range: 35-45)
Serum pH 7.0
A)compensated metabolic acidosis
B)decompensated metabolic acidosis
C)compensated respiratory acidosis
D)decompensated respiratory acidosis
Q2) Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?
A)The surface area available for gas exchange is greatly reduced.
B)A genetic defect may lead to breakdown of elastic fibers.
C)The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.
D)Expiration is impaired.
Q3) Which of the following is a common source of a pulmonary embolus?
A)mural thrombus from the left ventricle
B)thrombus attached to atheromas in the aorta or iliac arteries
C)thrombus forming in the femoral veins
D)a blood clot in the pulmonary vein
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
A)amylase
B)peptidase
C)lactase
D)trypsin
Q2) How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
A)loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
B)bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
C)chronic blood loss in stools
D)insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption
Q3) Which of the following is/are (a)manifestation(s)of hemolytic jaundice?
A)increased unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
B)increased bleeding tendencies
C)pale stool and dark urine
D)elevated liver enzymes in the blood
Q4) What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
A)infection in the appendix
B)an episode of severe diarrhea
C)obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
D)eating a low-fiber diet
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary action of the diuretic furosemide?
A)decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
B)decreased reabsorption of H+ in the tubules
C)increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone
D)inhibition of renin
Q2) In a case of acute pyelonephritis,what is the cause of flank pain?
A)inflammation,causing ischemia in the tubules
B)inflammation,stretching the renal capsule
C)increasing glomerular permeability,creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney
D)microbes irritating the tissues
Q3) Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
A)The urine pH decreases.
B)Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
C)Serum potassium levels are high.
D)Serum osmotic pressure increases.
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
A)left hemisphere
B)right hemisphere
C)brainstem
D)hypothalamus
Q2) Which term refers to a stiff hyperextended neck associated with irritation of spinal nerve roots?
A)nystagmus
B)ptosis
C)nuchal rigidity
D)spastic quadriplegia
Q3) Following a head injury,what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain?
A)hematoma or infection
B)laceration by foreign objects
C)hypoxia or acidosis
D)tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years?
A)vitamin B
B)folic acid
C)vitamins A and D
D)zinc and magnesium
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
A)remissions and exacerbations
B)predictable pattern of progression in all patients
C)onset in men and women more than 60 years of age
D)full recovery of function during remissions
Q3) What is the pathophysiologic change in Parkinson's disease?
A)degeneration of motor fibers in the pyramidal tracts
B)excess secretion of stimulatory neurotransmitters in the CNS
C)degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine
D)deficit of acetylcholine and degeneration of the motor cortex in the frontal lobe
Q4) The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Q1) What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?
A)The circular muscle of the iris must contract.
B)Cranial nerve III must be activated.
C)Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required.
D)The optic nerve must be stimulated.
Q2) Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
A)glaucoma
B)cataract
C)macular degeneration
D)keratitis
Q3) What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
A)movement of the eyeball
B)movement of the eyelid
C)size of the pupil
D)shape of the lens
Q4) Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?
A)degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network
B)gradual increase in intraocular pressure
C)abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris
D)damage to the retina and optic nerve
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of Addison's disease?
A)elevated blood glucose levels
B)high blood pressure
C)low serum potassium levels
D)poor stress response
Q2) Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
A)increased glucocorticoids
B)decreased glucocorticoids
C)deficit of ADH
D)deficit of T3 and T4
Q3) Which of the following is a major function of the hormone norepinephrine?
A)inhibition of an excessive stress response
B)visceral and cutaneous vasoconstriction
C)increased force of heart contraction
D)vasodilation in skeletal muscle
Q4) Metabolic syndrome is marked by:
A)abnormal lipid and glucose metabolism
B)periodic hypotension
C)deficit of glucagon
D)early onset on Type I diabetes mellitus
27
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
A)excessive bone movement
B)severe ischemia and tissue necrosis
C)malunion or nonunion
D)fat emboli to form
Q2) What is a common outcome of fibrosis,calcification,and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
A)damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
B)paraplegia
C)impaired heart and lung function
D)rigidity,postural changes,and osteoporosis
Q3) Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?
A)costovertebral joints and progression down the spine
B)cervical and thoracic vertebrae,causing kyphosis
C)sacroiliac joints and progression up the spine
D)peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
A)using a culture and sensitivity test on the exudate
B)checking the frequency of the exacerbations
C)noting the location and size of the lesion
D)the type of pain associated with the lesion
Q2) What causes the pruritus associated with scabies?
A)an allergic reaction to the causative microbe
B)mites burrowing into the epidermis and their feces
C)bleeding and injected toxin from bites
D)neurotoxins secreted by mites
Q3) Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo:
A)large red painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
B)small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
C)red,swollen painful areas often with projecting red streaks
D)firm raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Q4) Herpes virus is usually spread by all of the following EXCEPT:
A)saliva during an exacerbation and for a short time thereafter
B)contact with the fluid in the lesion
C)contaminated blood
D)autoinoculation by fingers
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
A)lungs
B)bone
C)pelvic lymph nodes
D)brain
Q2) Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
A)The complete process takes about 28 days.
B)Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
C)It is controlled by FSH and testosterone.
D)The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
Q3) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
Q4) How do testicular tumors usually present?
A)soft,tender mass
B)multiple firm nodules
C)hard,painless unilateral mass
D)small,fluid-filled cyst
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