Clinical Pathophysiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the underlying mechanisms and processes that lead to the development and progression of diseases in humans. This course examines how normal physiological functions are altered by injury, infection, or other pathological conditions, and links molecular and cellular changes to clinical symptoms. Emphasis is placed on the integration of basic science with clinical presentation, using case studies and patient scenarios to deepen understanding of disease states across various organ systems. By providing a comprehensive framework, the course prepares students to analyze diagnostic findings, interpret laboratory data, and apply pathophysiological principles to inform clinical decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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28 Chapters
1172 Verified Questions
1172 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
A)subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness
B)signs and symptoms of a disease
C)factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness
D)early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection
Answer: B
Q2) The best definition of ischemia is:
A)the mechanical damage due to pressure on tissue
B)any imbalance of fluids or electrolytes in the body
C)a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells,due to circulatory obstruction
D)the effects of infection by microorganisms
Answer: C
Q3) When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart,the resulting damage is referred to as:
A)atrophy
B)liquefactive necrosis
C)apoptosis
D)infarction
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT:
A)decreased bone density
B)wasting of skeletal muscle
C)opportunistic infections
D)increased leukocyte production
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement applies to the recommended emergency care for burns?
A)Drop and lie completely still on your back.
B)Call a neighbor for help if the burn appears to be extensive.
C)Apply lotion and cover burn tightly with a sheet or towel.
D)Cover the burn area with clean,cool,or tepid water and remove nonsticking clothing.
Answer: D
Q3) Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include:
A)edema and erythema
B)area of necrosis and loss of function
C)pain and tenderness
D)elevated C-reactive protein and leukocytosis
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
A)T-helper cells
B)macrophages
C)eosinophils
D)monocytes
Answer: B
Q2) Humoral immunity is mediated by:
A)natural killer cells
B)T-lymphocytes (T cells)
C)B-lymphocytes (B cells)
D)neutrophils
Answer: C
Q3) The term tolerance refers to:
A)surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system
B)the ability of the immune system to ignore "self" cells
C)the ability of T- and B-lymphocytes to work together
D)the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
A)interfering with cell-wall synthesis
B)blocking protein synthesis
C)increasing cell membrane permeability
D)preventing DNA replication
Q2) Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:
A)antiviral drugs lower host resistance
B)the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis
C)respiratory droplets transmit infections
D)the viral infection is usually self-limiting
Q3) The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:
A)using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections
B)not touching any open or bleeding lesions
C)sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use
D)assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A)metastasize early in their development
B)they create excessive pressure within the skull
C)cannot be removed
D)cause serious systemic effects
Q2) Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
1)reduce the adverse effects
2)guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed
3)be effective in more phases of the cell cycle
4)totally block the mitotic stage
A)1,3
B)1,4
C)2,3
D)3,4
Q3) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A)chemotherapy cannot be used
B)signs and symptoms are absent
C)complications are evident
D)metastases occur
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to:
A)increased PCO
B)decreased PCO
C)respiratory acidosis
D)metabolic acidosis
Q2) Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis?
A)pH is below normal range
B)pH is above normal range
C)bicarbonate level decreases
D)bicarbonate level increases
Q3) Which statements apply to atrial naturetic peptide?
1)It is secreted by heart muscle cells.
2)It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys.
3)It helps to control water and sodium balance.
4)It is released in response to low blood pressure.
A)1,3
B)1,4
C)2,3 D)2,4
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Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to Huntington's disease?
A)The effects are obvious at birth.
B)There is a test for the defective gene.
C)There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
D)The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
Q2) Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:
A)exposure to radiation
B)mercury in foods and water
C)drugs and alcohol
D)cigarette smoking
E)folic acid
Q3) A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy;the father is unaffected.They have one son with muscular dystrophy.Another male child is expected.The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
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Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A)sore throat,fever,and lymphadenopathy
B)abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test
C)the causative bacteria in the saliva
D)extreme fatigue and malaise
Q2) How is scoliosis identified?
A)bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B)uneven hips and shoulders
C)a swayback posture
D)one arm and leg shorter than the other
Q3) What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
A)lordosis
B)kyphosis
C)scoliosis
D)kyphoscoliosis
Q4) What is/are common local signs of osteomyelitis?
A)joint swelling,limited movement
B)deformity of a limb,pain at rest
C)fever,leukocytosis,and malaise
D)a red,swollen area,pain increasing with movement
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth? It is:
A)38 weeks
B)termed the gestation period
C)referred to as gravidity
D)the embryonic period
Q2) Edema and congestion normally develop in many tissues during pregnancy due to:
A)reduced kidney function
B)decreased serum albumin
C)increased blood volume
D)more sedentary lifestyle
Q3) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A)The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B)The parents differ in blood type.
C)The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D)Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
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Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1)tissue elasticity
2)rib mobility
3)control by the respiratory center
4)skeletal muscle strength
A)1,3
B)1,4
C)2,3,4
D)1,2,4
Q2) Which of the following factors lead to delayed wound healing in the elderly?
1)reduced rate of mitosis
2)inadequate circulation
3)high risk of infection
4)more effective immune system
A)1,2
B)1,3
C)2,4
D)1,2,3
E)2,3,4
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Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are common effect(s)of prolonged immobility in children?
A)delayed linear growth
B)contractures and deformities involving the hips,spine,legs and feet
C)skeletal muscle weakness
D)a,c
E)a,b,c
Q2) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A)urinary stasis
B)renal calculi
C)infection
D)any of the above
Q3) Which of the following apply to orthostatic hypotension associated with prolonged immobility?
A)Sudden changes in body position from supine to upright may cause low blood pressure.
B)Venous return and cardiac output are decreased with immobility.
C)All cardiovascular reflexes are lost with prolonged immobility.
D)a,b
E)a,c
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Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A)increasing anger during an argument
B)writing a final examination
C)fear about a medical diagnosis
D)internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q2) A serious consequence of a major disaster,first recognized in war veterans is:
A)stress ulcers
B)delayed tissue healing
C)posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D)cancer
Q3) Selye defined 3 stages in the stress response.The third stage is designated as the:
A)alarm stage
B)resistance stage
C)stage of exhaustion
D)maladaptive stage
Q4) The basic physiologic response to stress is the same in all individuals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs frequently with acute pain but not with chronic pain?
A)depression and debilitation
B)a perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
C)fatigue and lower pain tolerance
D)a stress response
Q2) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A)It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B)The drug is injected into CSF or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C)The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D)The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed.
B)Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
C)Young infants respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D)Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
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Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all EXCEPT:
A)cirrhosis
B)mental confusion
C)loss of motor coordination
D)altered personality and amnesia
E)respiratory failure
Q2) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A)hereditary factors
B)disease requiring certain prescription drugs
C)easy access to many kinds of drugs
D)increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress
E)increased work productivity
Q3) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A)antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly
B)a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken
C)a large dose of a drug affects the central nervous system
D)an individual involuntarily develops a habit
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A)systemic vasodilation
B)lethargy and confusion
C)nausea and cramps
D)rapid but strong pulse
Q2) Bites from both wild and domesticated animals may cause:
A)anaphylaxis
B)Shigella outbreaks
C)rabies
D)severe pain and headache
Q3) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A)bone and cartilage
B)skeletal and smooth muscle
C)peripheral and central neurons
D)epithelial tissue and bone marrow
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In traditional Asian medicine,acupoints are usually located:
A)over pain or other sensory receptors
B)where blood vessels branch
C)over joints
D)on designated meridians
Q2) A medical history should include all:
1)legally prescribed drugs
2)vitamin or mineral supplements
3)any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items)
4)herbal treatments
A)1 only
B)1,3
C)1,2,4
D)1,2,3,4
Q3) Antagonistic drugs may be used to:
A)increase the effectiveness of selected drugs
B)prolong the action of a drug
C)act as an antidote when necessary
D)speed up the excretion of a drug
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered to be a compensation mechanism for individuals with anemia?
A)peripheral vasodilation
B)increased erythropoiesis
C)tachycardia
D)secondary polycythemia
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic tests would be within the normal range for an individual with hemophilia A?
A)bleeding time
B)coagulation time
C)PTT time
D)prothrombin time
Q3) Which of the following occur when disseminated intravascular coagulation develops?
A)increased thrombocytes and blood-clotting
B)hemolysis with loss of blood cells
C)massive sepsis and hemorrhage
D)multiple thrombi and deficit of clotting factors
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19
Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is uncontrolled hypertension most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function?
A)kidneys,brain,and retinas of the eye
B)peripheral arteries in the legs
C)aorta and coronary arteries
D)liver,spleen,and stomach
Q2) Which drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion?
A)acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
B)streptokinase
C)acetaminophen
D)heparin
Q3) What would indicate decompensated acidosis related to shock?
A)serum bicarbonate level below normal
B)PCO above normal
C)serum pH below normal range
D)urine pH of 4.5
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
A)insufficient surfactant production
B)incomplete expiration shortly after birth
C)retention of fluid in the lungs after birth
D)immature neural control of respirations
Q2) The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:
A)expiratory reserve volume
B)inspiratory reserve volume
C)total lung capacity
D)vital capacity
Q3) Which of the following applies to anthrax infection?
A)It is caused by a virus that mutates frequently.
B)When inhaled it causes flulike symptoms followed by acute respiratory distress.
C)There is a long incubation period,often months,following exposure.
D)It is a common infection in North America.
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21
Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral candidiasis is considered to:
A)be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children
B)cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue
C)cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off
D)be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
Q2) What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
A)continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
B)hemorrhage into the intestine
C)rupture of the intestinal wall
D)repeated bouts of severe diarrhea
Q3) What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
A)infection in the appendix
B)an episode of severe diarrhea
C)obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
D)eating a low-fiber diet
Q4) The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:
A)volvulus
B)hernia
C)adhesion
D)intussusceptions
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
A)albuminuria increases vascular volume
B)congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
C)ADH secretion is decreased
D)damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate
Q2) The reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the kidneys is directly controlled by:
1)atrial natriuretic hormone
2)antidiuretic hormone
3)angiotensin
4)the levels of bicarbonate ion
A)2 only
B)3 only
C)1,2
D)2,4
E)1,3,4
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
A)between the double layers of the dura mater
B)in the subdural space
C)in the subarachnoid space
D)through the arachnoid villi
Q2) Where are beta-1 adrenergic receptors located?
A)bronchiolar walls
B)arteriolar walls
C)cardiac muscle
D)glands of the intestinal tract
Q3) Following an injury at L2 to L3,what would indicate recovery from spinal shock?
A)spastic paraplegia
B)urinary retention
C)labile body temperature
D)increased sensation in the legs
Q4) How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
A)rate decreases
B)rate increases
C)no change in rate
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis?
A)demyelination of axons
B)it affects the brain,spinal cord,and cranial nerves
C)it affects motor,sensory,and autonomic fibers
D)progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves
Q2) Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
A)paralysis of the lower body,impaired cognitive function
B)tremors,weakness in the legs,visual problems
C)sensory deficit in the legs and trunk,memory loss,urinary incontinence
D)tremors,speech impairment,hearing loss
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
A)the localization of the seizure activity
B)the uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres
C)seizures that persist for several hours
D)loss of consciousness and all motor function
Q4) Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?
A)nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate
B)a genetic defect affecting metabolism and causing degeneration in the neurons
C)a developmental error during early growth of the peripheral nervous system
D)a chromosomal defect resulting in abnormalities in many body structures
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fluid is constantly secreted and reabsorbed through structures within the eye?
A)aqueous humor
B)vitreous humor
C)tears
D)cerebrospinal fluid
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B)Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C)Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D)Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q3) Why does vertigo occur with Ménière's syndrome?
A)Fluid is lost from the inner ear.
B)Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears.
C)Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve.
D)Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.
Q4) Loss of vision can occur when:
A)excessive intraocular pressure develops
B)the cornea is scarred
C)either of the preceding occurs
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is caused by Graves' disease?
A)increased metabolic rate
B)decreased size of thyroid gland
C)bradycardia and hypothermia
D)decreased blood levels of T3,T4,and TSH
E)increased epinephrine and norepinephrine
Q2) A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine is called:
A)pheochromocytoma
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)Graves' disease
D)Addison's disease
Q3) Trophic hormones include:
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)triiodothyronine
D)adrenocorticotropic hormone
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27
Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
A)multiple joints that are swollen,red,and painful at one time
B)presence of mild fever,fatigue,and leukocytosis
C)purulent synovial fluid present in a single,swollen joint
D)presence of many antibodies in the blood
Q2) What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
A)relief with moderate activity
B)quite severe in the early stages
C)aggravated by general muscle aching
D)increased with weight-bearing and activity
Q3) What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
A)the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
B)the wider joint space
C)decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
D)fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
Q4) What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
A)additional ischemia in the broken bone
B)nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C)pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D)abscess and infection at a distant site
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
A)purplish papules
B)firm raised pruritic nodules
C)moist red vesicles
D)silvery plaques on an erythematous base
Q2) Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo:
A)large red painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
B)small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
C)red,swollen painful areas often with projecting red streaks
D)firm raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Q3) What condition does human papillomavirus cause?
A)shingles
B)acute necrotizing fasciitis
C)plantar warts
D)herpes zoster
Q4) The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
A)using a culture and sensitivity test on the exudate
B)checking the frequency of the exacerbations
C)noting the location and size of the lesion
D)the type of pain associated with the lesion
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Q1) Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
A)obstruction in the fallopian tubes
B)inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
C)hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
D)fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes
Q2) Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by:
A)systemic antibacterial therapy
B)insertion of an intrauterine device
C)sexual intercourse with an infected partner
D)previous viral infection
Q3) Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)herpes simplex
D)syphilis
E)all of the above
Q4) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
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