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Clinical Pathology is a vital course that explores the laboratory-based diagnosis of diseases by examining bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and other specimens. The course covers the principles and techniques of hematology, immunology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, and molecular diagnostics, emphasizing the interpretation of laboratory data in the context of clinical symptoms. Students gain practical skills in specimen collection, analysis, and quality control, and learn how laboratory findings guide patient management and therapy. By integrating scientific knowledge with clinical applications, this course prepares students for roles in medical laboratories and enhances their understanding of disease processes and diagnostic strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Linne Ringsruds Clinical Laboratory Science 7th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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Sample Questions
Q1) screens for strep throat infections
A)hematology
B)clinical chemistry
C)immunohematology
D)immunology and serology
E)microbiology
Answer: E
Q2) Chain of custody is defined as:
A) physical transport of a specimen needed for legal reasons.
B) escorting patients who are prison inmates.
C) beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the laboratory, to the analysis itself and the reporting of the results, each step must be documented.
D) documentation of quality control when reporting a patient's laboratory results.
Answer: C
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Q1) Information related to hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace must be provided in:
A) Laboratory Policy Manual.
B) material safety data sheets (MSDSs).
C) Bloodborne Pathogen Standards information.
D) Standard Operating Procedures Manual.
Answer: B
Q2) Infectious disease safety practices include:
A) educating and training all health workers in standard precautions.
B) providing disposable gloves.
C) monitoring compliance with protective biosafety policies.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) The newest Patient Safety Goals with application to the laboratory includes:
A) improve accuracy of patient identification.
B) identify analytical errors by using quality control before releasing results.
C) decrease the laboratory turn-around time.
D) establish an exact protocol for testing outpatient specimens.
Answer: A
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Q1) ISO 15189 monitors requirements such as:
A) personnel.
B) documents.
C) laboratory equipment.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) Quality assessment programs include:
A) patient identification.
B) specimen procurement.
C) specimen transportation and processing procedures.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) If a violation of Westgard rules occurs,the correct action is:
A) accept the results if only a warning is violated.
B) reject the results when a mandatory rule is violated.
C) increase the retesting range if either a warning or a mandatory rule is violated.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
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Q1) The relationship between patients and physicians and other health care professionals is described in the recently published:
A) patient's bill of rights.
B) patient care partnership document.
C) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) regulations.
D) both a and b.
Q2) The draw volume of blood into an evacuated tube can be affected at greater than ____ feet of altitude.
A) 2000
B) 5000
C) 15,000
D) 25,000
Q3) Blood for the screening of newborns is for certain conditions such as:
A) phenylketonuria.
B) hypothyroidism.
C) galactosemia.
D) all of the above.
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Q1) The magnifying powers of the usual microscope objectives are:
A) 5×, 10×, 20×.
B) 10×, 20×, 40×.
C) 10×, 40×, 80×.
D) 10×, 40×, 100×.
Q2) The definition of the microscopic working distance is the distance from the:
A) bottom of the objective to the material being studied.
B) ocular to the bottom of the objective.
C) ocular to the material being studied.
D) top of the objective to the material being studied.
Q3) Fluorescent objects (natural,stained,or labeled)can be seen with a fluorescent microscope because they absorb the ____ light and emit light of yellow or ____ wavelength.
A) blue; green
B) red; orange
C) green; purple
D) purple; red
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Q1) A reagent is defined as:
A) any concentrated solution used for testing.
B) any substance used to produce a chemical reaction.
C) a solution contained in an instrument.
D) a solution with a known concentration.
Q2) The purest grade of reagent water is:
A) deionized.
B) type I.
C) type II.
D) type III.
Q3) Each new lot or batch of reagent should be tested with ____ with the existing reagent.
A) controls
B) standards
C) calibrators
D) all of the above
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Q1) Report a laboratory result with the most number of significant figures as the accuracy of the final result.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In rounding off numbers:
A) when the digit next to the last one to be retained is less than 5, the last digit should be left unchanged.
B) when the digit next to the last one to be retained is greater than 5, the last digit is increased by 1.
C) if the additional digit is 5, the last digit reported is changed to the nearest even number.
D) follow all of the above.
Q3) density
A)the amount of matter per unit volume of a substance
B)relates the weight of 1 mL of a solution and the weight of 1 mL of pure water at 4°C (1 g)
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Q1) The piece of equipment that measures the H+ is:
A) pH meter.
B) photometer.
C) spectrophotometer.
D) flow cytometer.
Q2) Beer's law states:
A) the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed.
B) inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted light.
C) inversely proportional to the amount of light absorbed.
D) both a and b.
Q3) One criterion for a good standard curve is that the line is straight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Quality control tests for spectrophotometers consist of checking wavelength accuracy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The three most highly automated areas of the clinical laboratory are:
A) microbiology, urinalysis, and hematology.
B) clinical chemistry, hematology, and urinalysis.
C) clinical chemistry, microbiology, and blood banking.
D) immunology, microbiology, and hematology.
Q2) waived
A)slide examinations of freshly collected body fluids
B)simple procedures with little chance of negative outcomes if performed inaccurately
C)usually nonautomated, requiring considerable judgment
D)more complex than waived, usually automated
Q3) The major benefits of laboratory automation include all of the following except:
A) reduction of medical errors.
B) improved safety for laboratory staff.
C) longer turnaround time of results.
D) more reliable results.
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Q1) It is important to record the exact time and date in relation to the last dose of the drug when drawing a blood specimen for therapeutic drug monitoring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The adult reference range for fasting serum glucose is ____ mg/dL.
A) 40-75
B) 55-105
C) 60-95
D) 70-110
Q3) The term for the condition associated with elevated serum potassium is:
A) hyponatremia.
B) hypernatremia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyperkalemia.
Q4) The primary form of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is:
A) urea.
B) creatinine.
C) cystatin C.
D) creatine.
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Q1) alteration in RBC shape
A)Howell-Jolly body
B)schistocyte
C)hypochromia
D)macrocytes
Q2) neutrophil
A)usually the most numerous of the mature leukocytes (WBCs)
B)dark-purple or black granules in the cytoplasm
C)orange granules in the cytoplasm
D)cytoplasm usually stains a light blue
E)the largest mature WBC
Q3) The blood cell that produces immunoglobulins (antibodies)is the:
A) lymphocyte.
B) plasma cell.
C) monocyte.
D) neutrophil.
Q4) polychromasia
A)variation in cell size
B)increased central pallor in RBCs
C)faint blue-colored RBCs
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Q1) contact group
A)factors II, VII, IX, and X
B)factors XI and XII, prekallikrein (Fletcher factor), and HMWK (Fitzgerald factor)
C)factors I, V, VIII, and XIII
Q2) factor I
A)prothrombin
B)hemophilia B
C)von Willebrand's factor
D)fibrinogen
Q3) The protein "glue" that optimally binds platelets and collagen after vessel injury is:
A) fibronectin.
B) von Willebrand's Factor (VIII:vWF).
C) factor II.
D) factor I.
Q4) A function or activity of platelets is to secrete fibronectin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The least pathological type of cast is:
A) hyaline.
B) finely granular.
C) waxy.
D) fatty.
Q2) calcium oxalate
A)found in acid urine
B)envelope-shaped, glistening and colorless
C)coffin lids
D)colorless slender needles that are strongly birefringent with polarized light
E)yellow or reddish-brown shapes (e.g., lemon- or barrel-shaped forms)
Q3) Quality assessment of control specimens should include:
A) testing of all opened bottles of reagent strips or tablets each morning.
B) testing of each new bottle on opening.
C) recording data on the record sheet daily.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Select the microscopic elements that could be found in normal or abnormal urinary sediment: Moderate number of squamous epithelial cells.
A) Normal
B) Abnormal

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Q1) Ideally,a semen specimen should be analyzed within ____ of collection.
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 12 hours
Q2) The type of specimen that is most critical to deliver immediately to the laboratory for examination is ____ fluid.
A) cerebrospinal
B) synovial
C) pericardial
D) peritoneal
Q3) Seminal fluid may be examined for:
A) infertility studies.
B) postvasectomy assessment.
C) evaluation of probable sexual assault.
D) all of the above.
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Q1) Which of the following organisms can be detected by India ink staining and appear as budding yeast surrounded by a large clear area (capsule)?
A) Nocardia spp.
B) Candida albicans
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Candida spp.
Q2) Which of the following is a differential stain used routinely in microbiology laboratories?
A) Methylene blue
B) Flagella stain
C) Gram stain
D) Capsule stain
Q3) Which of the following bacteria are typically stained using the acid-fast technique?
A) Mycobacteria
B) Staphylococci
C) Streptococci
D) Escherichia coli
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Q1) active artificial immunity
A)vaccination
B)infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C)obtained from colostrum
D)as a result of suffering from the disease
Q2) Factors that influence an individual's defense against disease include taking mega-doses of vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In testing for rheumatoid factor,lipemic or hemolyzed specimens can cause ____ results.
A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) no effect on the test
D) both false positive and false negative
Q4) lag
A)no detectable antibody
B)antibody titer stabilizes
C)antibody is catabolized
D)antibody titer increases
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Q1) Fresh frozen plasma
A)Best used when oxygen-carrying capacity is needed
B)Rarely used but can meet a patient's need for volume replacement, oxygen-carrying capacity, and heat-labile coagulation factors
C)Used to treat multiple coagulation deficiencies
D)Used to treat hemophilia
Q2) The major categories for transfusion of red blood cells (RBCs)and blood components include all of the following except transfusion:
A) may be used to restore or maintain oxygen-carrying capacity or hemoglobin.
B) can be used to restore or maintain blood volume.
C) can replace coagulation factors to maintain hemostasis.
D) can be to change a patient's blood type.
Q3) Rh antibodies belong to the ____ subclass of antibodies.
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgE
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