Clinical Pathology for Nurses
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathology for Nurses provides nursing students with foundational knowledge of laboratory medicine and its application in patient care. The course covers the principles of clinical pathology, including the collection, processing, and interpretation of body fluids such as blood, urine, and cerebrospinal fluid. Students learn to recognize normal and abnormal laboratory values, understand the significance of diagnostic tests, and correlate clinical findings with laboratory results. Emphasis is placed on the nurses role in test preparation and specimen collection, infection control, identifying critical values, and effective communication with healthcare teams. This course prepares nurses to integrate clinical pathology concepts into safe and effective patient management across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory and Diagnostic Testing in Ambulatory Care 3rd Edition by Marti Garrel
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10 Chapters
346 Verified Questions
346 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/980
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Laboratory and Safety Training
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19324
Sample Questions
Q1) Tests that provide simple, unvarying results and require minimal judgment and interpretation are ____________________ tests.
Answer: CLIA-waived
Q2) HBV and HIV may be directly transmitted in the occupational setting by:
A) accidental puncture with infected needle or other sharps.
B) contamination of skin that has abrasions or open lesions.
C) splashing of blood into the eye.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) __________ is a test result indicating a threat to a patient's health.
Answer: Critical value
Panic value
Q4) The substance being tested in a specimen, such as glucose or cholesterol in a blood specimen, is a(n) ____________________.
Answer: analyte
Q5) The abbreviation POL means ____________________.
Answer: physician's office laboratory
Q6) The clotting ability of blood is called ____________________.
Answer: coagulation
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Chapter 2: Regulations, Microscope Setup, and Quality
Control
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false regarding quality control documentation?
A) Levey-Jennings quality control charts have the advantage of showing the results of quality control tests over a period of time.
B) Shifts, trends, and random errors are quickly apparent on a Levey-Jennings chart.
C) Only abnormal test controls should be recorded on a Levey-Jennings chart.
D) A worker may obtain very precise but inaccurate test results.
Answer: C
Q2) When the internal control area on a qualitative test shows no reaction during the testing process, it is called a(n) _________________________________.
Answer: invalid test
Q3) The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the power of the objective lens and the: A) stage.
B) focal adjustment.
C) nosepiece.
D) ocular lens.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Urinalysis
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect regarding a24-hour urine collection?
A) After the patient has completed the procedure and returned the container, you should check the label for completeness and ask the patient whether there were any problems during the collection procedure.
B) Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the first day of the 24-hour procedure.
C) Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure.
D) If at any time during the procedure some urine is not collected, the test must be started again.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following crystals resemble coffin lids?
A) Calcium oxalates
B) Uric acid crystals
C) Amorphous urates
D) Triple phosphate crystals
Answer: D
Q3) Ketones in the urine is called ____________________.
Answer: ketonuria
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Blood Collection
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ are tiny purple or red skin spots that can be found in patients who have coagulation problems.This condition could lead to excessive bleeding during phlebotomy procedures.
Q2) Which of the following is not a reason for failure to obtain blood?
A) The bevel of the needle was against the wall of the vein.
B) The needle gauge was 21.
C) The needle was only partially inserted into the vein.
D) The needle pierced all the way through the vein.
Q3) What color tube top is used to collect blood for coagulation studies?
A) Red
B) Gray
C) Light blue
D) Green
Q4) Which of the following veins is most commonly used for venipuncture?
A) Basilic vein
B) Cephalic vein
C) Radial vein
D) Median cubital vein
Q5) _________________ is a process whereby blood flows freely into a capillary tube in microcollection procedures.
6
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Chapter 5: Hematology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term does not match its description?
A) Erythrocytes are the most numerous blood cells, occupying almost 50% of blood volume.
B) Bands are immature neutrophils.
C) Platelets are fragments of cytoplasm.
D) Segs are mature neutrophils.
E) Basophils have coarse red granules in their cytoplasm.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding hematocrits is false?
A) If capillary blood from a finger is used for the microhematocrit, the capillary tube must not contain an anticoagulant.
B) Spun hematocrits should be performed in duplicate, with results falling within 2% of each other.
C) Note the appearance of the plasma for hemolysis (red) and/or lipemia (cloudy white due to high fat content).
D) One condition in which a high hematocrit value might be found is polycythemia.
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Chapter 6: Chemistry
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholesterol derived from the diet is ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following groups are allowed to be eaten2 days before collecting the fecal specimen used for the Hemoccult blood test?
A) Chicken, fish, and eggs
B) Vitamin C, alcohol, and aspirin
C) Cauliflower, broccoli, turnips, parsnips, and melons
D) Red and partially cooked meats
Q3) Excessively high blood insulin levels is referred to as ____________________.
Q4) Elevated blood sugar is called ____________________.
Q5) People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats will probably increase their level of which of the following?
A) Albumin
B) Bad cholesterol (LDL)
C) Glucose
D) Good cholesterol (HDL)
Q6) The hormone produced by the pancreas to lower blood glucose is
Q7) Man-made hydrogenated fats are called ____________________.
Q8) ________________ include sugars and starches.
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Chapter 7: Immunology
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpathogenic microorganisms that normally inhabit the skin and mucous membranes are called ____________________.
Q2) ______________ are proteins secreted by infected cells to prevent the further replication and spread of an infection into neighboring cells.
Q3) Substances within the body that induce the production of antibodies that attack an individual's own body tissues are ____________________.
Q4) Substances that are perceived as foreign to the body and elicit an antibody response are ____________________.
Q5) Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?
A) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B) Variola major
C) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
D) Cytomegalovirus
Q6) The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often displayed is:
A) under 5.
B) 15 to 25.
C) 40 to 50.
D) 50 and over.
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Chapter 8: Microbiology
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a properly performed Gram stain procedure, what color are the gram-negative organisms immediately after the decolorizing stage?
A) Purple
B) Pink/red
C) Colorless
D) Brown (iodine color)
Q2) __________ are liquid, semisolid, or solid substances containing nutrients needed to grow microorganisms.
Q3) Which of the following associations is incorrect?
A) Staphylococcus/gram-positive cocci
B) Escherichia coli/gram-positive bacilli
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae/gram-positive diplococci
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae/gram-negative diplococci
Q4) _______________ means an infection capable of forming pus.
Q5) Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect?
A) This organism is transported in the Jembec transport system.
B) This organism is a gram-positive bacillus.
C) This organism requires a 10% carbon dioxide atmosphere for growth.
D) This organism causes gonorrhea, which is a sexually transmitted disease.
Q6) A(n) _______________ contains medium in which to grow microorganisms.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Toxicology
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three-letter abbreviation used for oxycodone is ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic drug categories and their represented drugs are not typically monitored for therapeutic levels?
A) Anticonvulsants (i.e., phenobarbital)
B) Antihistamines (i.e., Benadryl)
C) Antibiotics (i.e., ampicillin)
D) Antidepressants (i.e., lithium)
Q3) The three-letter abbreviation used for barbiturates is ____________________.
Q4) Which of the following is not a poisonous metal that needs to be tested?
A) Lead
B) Zinc
C) Iron
D) Arsenic
Q5) The three-letter abbreviation used for methadone is ____________________.
Q6) Which of the following has the correct order of the pharmacokinetic stages?
A) Distribution, metabolism, absorption, liberation, and elimination
B) Liberation, metabolism, absorption, elimination, and distribution
C) Metabolism, absorption, liberation, distribution, and elimination
D) Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination
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Q7) The three-letter abbreviation used for marijuana is ____________________.
Chapter 10: Electrocardiography and Spirometry
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) FVC stands for ______________.
Q2) The node that sends out an electrical impulse that starts the heartbeat is the _______________.
Q3) A patient's spirometer results are compared to the predicted values of a control group of others who share all the following except:
A) blood pressure.
B) weight.
C) gender and age.
D) race.
E) height.
Q4) FEV stands for ______________.
Q5) What is the purpose of the patient diary in Holter monitoring?
A) Inform the patient of what items to avoid during the test.
B) Supply a link to patient activity at the time of any abnormal results.
C) Remind the patient about heart-healthy behaviors.
D) Provide a place to document the results of the test.
Q6) ______________ is the measurement of the volume and flow of air that is breathed.
Q7) ECG stands for ______________.
Q8) A fast heart rate is referred to as ____________________.
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