Clinical Pathology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathology focuses on the study, diagnosis, and monitoring of diseases through laboratory analysis of bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and cerebrospinal fluid. The course covers the principles and practices of laboratory medicine, including hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students will learn about the interpretation of laboratory results, the clinical significance of various tests, and the integration of laboratory data with clinical findings to aid in patient care. Emphasis is placed on quality control, laboratory safety, and understanding the pathophysiological basis of diseases as reflected in laboratory findings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells of the adaptive immune system arise in the A)Bone
B)Bone marrow
C)Muscle
D)Pancreatic tissue
Answer: B
Q2) When a naive B cell Le ves the bone marrow,it has membrane-bound ________ antibody.
A)IgA and IgE
B)IgA and IgM
C)IgD and IgE
D)IgD and IgM
Answer: D
Q3) According to the clonal selection theory,lymphocytes are
A)Activated if an antigen binds to its receptors
B)Activated if an immunglobulin binds to its receptors
C)Eliminated if they are bound to antibody
D)Eliminated if they react to self antigens
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of ribosomes?
A)Produce complementary strand of mRNA
B)Transcribe DNA into mRNA
C)Translate mRNA into protein
D)Unwind DNA
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the method used for predicting genotype frequencies of offspring?
A)Combination grouping
B)Dominant grouping
C)Dosage effect
D)Punnett square
Answer: D
Q3) What term is used to describe an allele present on the same chromosome?
A)Amorph
B)Cis
C)Genotype
D)Karyotype
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antihuman globulin technique is used to detect which isotype of antibody?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
Q2) During the incubation phase of an antibody screen test,how long should the test tubes be incubated?
A)5-10 minutes
B)10-30 minutes
C)Depends on the temperature of incubation
D)Depends on the enhancement reagent added
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following would be a disadvantage to using a monoclonal reagent?
A)No contaminating antibodies
B)Small variation between batches
C)Specificity may be relative
D)Unlimited production
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The red blood cells of the Bombay phenotype appear to be group ____ in routine ABO testing.
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
Q2) Forward grouping
A)Identifies antibody by combining the unknown plasma with known ABO red blood cells
B)Identifies antigen by combining the unknown red blood cells with known antibody
C)Occurs when the results of the forward and reverse grouping do not correlate
D)Occurs when the results for the A and B antigen do not correlate
Q3) ABO discrepancies are categorized into ____ groups.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RHD gene codes for the ____ antigen.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q2) In people of European ethnicity,the most common Rh(D)-positive phenotype is ___ and the most common Rh(D)-negative phenotype is ____.
A)R1R1,r'r'
B)R2R2,r''r''
C)R1R2,r'r''
D)R1r,rr
Q3) Which of the following is a purified concentrate of human anti-D?
A)HBIg
B)RhIg
C)Rhmod
D)Rhvariable
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding antigens in the Duffy system,all of the following statements are true except
A)Commonly encountered antigens include the allelic pair Fy and Fy .
B)Duffy antigens are well developed at birth.
C)Fy3 and Fy5 antigens are destroyed by treatment with ficin enzyme.
D)Fyx is a weak expression of the Fy antigen.
Q2) Detection of anti-i has been associated with A)hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
B)infectious mononucleosis
C)paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
D)sickle cell anemia
Q3) The null phenotype in the Duffy system is produced by inheriting
A)the genotype Fy /Fy
B)the phenotype Fy (a+b-)
C)the FY3 antigen
D)two FY genes
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Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false?
A)Downtime procedures are vital in a laboratory that performs electronic crossmatches.
B)Downtime procedures encompass back entry of results once the LIS is functioning again.
C)During downtime,antiglobulin crossmatch should be performed on all specimens if recipients requiring an antiglobulin crossmatch cannot be identified.
D)During downtime,immediate spin crossmatches will be rarely performed instead of electronic crossmatches.
Q2) A type and screen includes all of the following tests except
A)ABO group
B)Antibody screen
C)Patient cell phenotype
D)Rh(D)type
Q3) In most situations,patients who type as Rh(D)negative should receive
A)Rh(D)-negative red blood cells
B)Rh(D)-positive red blood cells
C)Rh(E)-negative red blood cells
D)Rh(E)-positive red blood cells
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What equation is used to calculate the frequency of alleles and genotypes within a population?
A)Fisher-Test
B)Hardy-Weinberg
C)Hyde-Park
D)Landsteiner-Wiener
Q2) Which method is preferred for removing autoantibodies?
A)Autologous absorption
B)Allogenic absorption
C)Cutaneous absorption
D)Pathologic absorption
Q3) What is the most common sulfhydryl reagent used in transfusion medicine?
A)Bromelin
B)Chymotrypsin
C)Dithiothreitol
D)Papain
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations publishes Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services?
A)AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)
B)ARC (American Red Cross)
C)CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
D)FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
Q2) Which document was developed to ensure that the donor gets a consistent message and that the questions asked are thorough and meet AABB Standards as well as FDA regulations?
A)DDD
B)DDR
C)DHQ
D)DHR
Q3) Which medication would result in a permanent donor deferral?
A)Accutane©
B)Avodart©
C)Proscar©
D)Tegison©
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Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma fractionation produces what three categories of protein concentrates?
A)Albumin,beta globulins,and coagulation factors
B)Albumin,immune globulins,and coagulation factors
C)Haptoglobin,immune globulins,and coagulation factors
D)Haptoglobin,immune globulins,and complement factors
Q2) Who coined the term "blood bank"?
A)Bernard Fantus
B)Francis Rous
C)JR Turner
D)Richard Weil
Q3) What temperature must be maintained for shipping platelets and granulocytes?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)
B)33.8-50° F (1-10° C)
C)68-75.2° F (20-24° C)
D)75.2-89.6° F (24-32° C)
Q4) In the buffy coat production method the whole blood is first subjected to a
A)automated spin
B)hard spin
C)soft spin
D)top spin
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true of intraoperative blood salvage except
A)Bacteria at the site of the surgery are washed out of the blood before reinfusion.
B)Blood can be collected during or after surgery.
C)Collected blood can be reinfused as either whole blood or red blood cells.
D)Collected blood is mixed with anticoagulant.
Q2) Where do the majority of hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs)reside?
A)bone marrow
B)lymphatic system
C)peripheral circulation
D)striated muscle
Q3) A platelet count of less than _____ is often used as a trigger to initiate prophylactic platelet transfusions to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
A)10 × 10³ / µL (10 x 10 /L)
B)20 × 10³ / µL (20 x 10 /L)
C)30 × 10³ / µL (30 x 10 /L)
D)40 × 10³ / µL (40 x 10 /L)
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most commonly reported complication associated with transfusion?
A)Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
B)Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
C)Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
D)Immune-mediated hemolytic transfusion reaction
Q2) Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)is a rare complication of transfusion,but the mortality rate is approximately
A)75%
B)80%
C)85%
D)90%
Q3) According to the 2005 UK SHOT data,the risk of a patient receiving an incorrect blood component is 1 in ____ blood components transfused.
A)100
B)5,000
C)15,000
D)100,000
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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is transmitted to humans through tick bites?
A)Babesiosis
B)Chagas disease
C)Malaria
D)Toxoplasmosis
Q2) The hepatitis C virus belongs to which family?
A)Flaviviridae
B)Hepeviridae
C)Picornaviridae
D)Retroviridae
Q3) In the United States,all donated blood is tested for the following before transfusion except
A)Anti-HCV
B)CMV using NAT
C)HBsAg
D)WNV using NAT
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniocentesis can be performed as early as
A)10 weeks gestation
B)15 weeks gestation
C)20 weeks gestation
D)25 weeks gestation
Q2) Which method is the most accurate means of determining the severity of fetal hemolytic anemia and the need for treatment of the fetus?
A)Amniotic fluid analysis
B)Doppler flow studies
C)Fetal blood sampling
D)Maternal antibody titer
Q3) A minimum of at least one ______ dose of Rh-immune globulin (RhIG)must be administered to all Rh(D)-negative women who deliver an Rh(D)-positive infant,provided the woman has not already made anti-D.
A)100 µg
B)200 µg
C)300 µg
D)400 µg
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16
Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic
Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)DAT-negative autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Mixed autoimmune hemolytic anemia (MAIHA)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Q2) Which of the following describes alloadsorption?
A)Removal of antibody from plasma by incubation with donor or reagent red blood cells with specific phenotypes
B)Removal of autoantibody from plasma by incubation with the patient's own red blood cells
C)Removal of antibody bound to red blood cells by incubation with chloroquine
D)Removal of autoantibody bound to red blood cells by incubation with glycine
Q3) All of the following can be symptoms of anemia except
A)Brachycardia
B)Fatigue
C)Pallor
D)Tachycardia
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accumulation of ultra-large multimers of von WilLe rand factor causes which of the following conditions?
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B)Graft versus host disease (GVHD)
C)Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
D)Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
Q2) The antibodies most commonly implicated in immune platelet refractoriness are directed against which group of antigens?
A)ABO
B)HLA
C)HPA
D)Rh
Q3) Platelet transfusion is usually required to treat which of the following conditions?
A)Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
B)Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)
C)Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
D)Post-transfusion purpura (PTP)
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?
A)Chemotherapy is complete
B)CMV reactivation occurs
C)Engraftment occurs
D)Factor levels reach 70%
Q2) Which of the following is an oral iron chelator?
A)Deferasirox
B)Deferoxamine
C)Dexamethasone
D)Dimercaprol
Q3) Donor and patient red blood cells are typically matched for which antigens when a patient with sickle cell disease is going to be transfused?
A)C,c,E,e
B)C,E,K
C)E,K,S
D)M,N,S
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following describe the adaptive immune system except A)Also known as the natural immune system
B)Consists of antigen presenting cells
C)Displays an anamnestic response
D)Is involved in allograft rejection
Q2) Which of the following are molecules produced and secreted by activated cells?
A)Cytokines
B)Cytometries
C)Cytosines
D)Cytosols
Q3) All of the following are true about HLA class I molecules except A)Are expressed only on antigen presenting cells
B)Includes a 45 kDa glycoprotein heavy chain
C)Includes a 12 kDa -2 microglobulin light chain
D)Has a peptide-binding cleft that reacts with short peptides
Q4) Which chromosome carries the genes for the HLA system?
A)1
B)3
C)6
D)9
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the PEx,which statement is false?
A)Begins with calculating the proportion of the population who would not be excluded.
B)Indicates the proportion of the population who could have been included in parentage.
C)Is a way to evaLu te results of parentage testing.
D)Is the probability the alleged parent would be excluded if they were falsely accused.
Q2) Which organization formed the Committee on Parentage Testing?
A)AABB
B)ABA
C)AMA
D)ABBB
Q3) VNTR refers to
A)variable nucleotide test result in DNA testing
B)variable number of tandem repeats in a DNA sequence
C)venous nucleotide type repeat in DNA sequence
D)very neutral transition reactions in DNA synthesis
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Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is usually issued by a professional society to indicate that a person has met a set of qualifications and is therefore qualified to perform a particular job?
A)Certification
B)Degree
C)Licensure
D)Registry
Q2) Which code of federal regulations contains the rules for blood product safety?
A)CFR title 10
B)CFR title 21
C)CFR title 29
D)CFR title 42
Q3) When was the first license for a blood bank issued?
A)1902
B)1934
C)1946
D)1962
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22
Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding record retention,which statement is not true?
A)Facilities must comply with all regulatory retention requirements.
B)Many records are stored electronically.
C)There must be a method for backing up all critical data.
D)Transfusion records must be stored for at least 7 years.
Q2) The definition for policy would be which of the following?
A)Document used to record data
B)Information that provides objective evidence that an activity was completed
C)Principle that guides decision making
D)Set of related steps that achieve a goal
Q3) Which agency is responsible for regulating transfusion services in the United States?
A)AABB
B)CAP
C)FDA
D)JCAHO
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