Clinical Pathology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathology focuses on the laboratory analysis of bodily fluids, such as blood, urine, and cerebrospinal fluid, to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. This course covers the principles and methodologies of clinical laboratory testing, including hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and transfusion medicine. Students learn to interpret test results, understand the pathophysiological basis of laboratory findings, and apply this knowledge to real-world clinical scenarios. Emphasis is placed on the correlation between laboratory data and clinical conditions, quality control, and the ethical responsibilities of laboratory professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
1596 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells: Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage in granulocyte maturation where the nucleus appears kidney shaped is evident in what cell?
A) Promyelocyte
B) Band neutrophil
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) In which immature erythroid cell are nucleoli most visible?
A) Basophilic normoblast
B) Orthochromatic normoblast
C) Pronormoblast
D) Polychromatic normoblast
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) In adults, fat cells average about what percentage of the total volume in the vertebrae and flat bones of the pelvis?
A) 20%
B) 80%
C) 50%
D) 10%
E) 90%
Answer: C
Q2) Hematogones are thought to be committed progenitor cells of what lineage?
A) Granulocytic
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytic
D) Monocytic
E) Lymphoid
Answer: E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents embryonic hemoglobin?
A) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\beta\)<sub>2</sub>)
B) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\gamma\)<sub>2</sub>)
C) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\delta\)<sub>2</sub>)
D) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\varepsilon\)<sub>2</sub>)
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which integral membrane protein contains approximately 60% carbohydrate and accounts for most of the membrane sialic acid that gives the RBC its negative charge?
A) Spectrin
B) Actin
C) Glycophorin
D) Ankyrin
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) used for?
A) Estimating the average size of RBCs
B) Estimating the hemoglobin content
C) Estimating the packed cell volume
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following can cause anemia?
A) Blood loss
B) Iron or vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
C) Cancer
D) Infection
E) All of the above
Q3) A patient with a vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency might have an anemia classified as:
A) Macrocytic/normochromic
B) Microcytic/normochromic
C) Normocytic/normochromic
D) Macrocytic/hypochromic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with autoimmune hemolytic anemia may have a blood smear demonstrating:
A) Cabot rings
B) Spherocytes
C) Target cells
D) Stomatocytes
E) None of the above
Q2) Target cells may be found in which of the following conditions?
A) Thalassemia
B) Liver disease
C) Hemoglobin C disease
D) Sickle cell anemia
E) All of the above
Q3) A normal size red cell with a slit-like area of central pallor is called a:
A) Drepanocyte
B) Ovalocyte
C) Sickle cell
D) Stomatocyte
E) Target cell
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two-thirds of the total body iron is found as _________.
A) Transferrin
B) Heme in hemoglobin
C) Heme in myoglobin
D) Globin in hemoglobin
E) None of the above
Q2) One-third of the total body iron may be found in storage pools such as:
A) Bone marrow
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a beta globulin synthesized in the liver and a transport protein specific for iron?
A) Haptoglobin
B) Albumin
C) Transferrin
D) Hemopexin
E) None of the above
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of polychromatophilic macrocytes in a treated megaloblastic anemia is due to:
A) RBC degeneration
B) Reticulocytosis
C) Macrocytosis
D) Megaloblastoid dyspoiesis
E) None of the above
Q2) Which hematologic condition is indicated with a macrocytosis and a reticulocyte count of >5%?
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Megaloblastic anemia
D) Thalassemia
E) None of the above
Q3) What two dietary substances are essential for DNA synthesis?
A) Folic acid/carotene
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>/folic acid
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>/cyanocobalamin
D) Iron/globin
E) Transferrin/vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including Pure Red Cell Aplasia
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be considered a typical platelet count in a patient with PNH?
A) >500 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) <50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 50-100 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 100-400 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the main complication of bone marrow transplants in a patient diagnosed with aplastic anemia?
A) Graft rejection
B) Transfusion reactions
C) Acute graft versus host disease
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q3) One of the major complications of PNH is:
A) Iron overload
B) Venous thrombosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Hepatomegaly
E) None of the above
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common treatment for most patients with HS?
A) Exchange transfusion
B) Chemotherapy
C) Splenectomy
D) No treatment
E) None of the above
Q2) A 40-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with acute cholecystitis and a palpable spleen. A CBC was performed: Hemoglobin, 13.0 g/dL; MCV, 80 fL; Hct, 38%; MCH, 28 pg; Retic, 7%; MCHC, 36%; RPI, 3.9; Coombs' test negative; spherocytes, 2+; anisocytosis, 2+; poikilocytosis, 2+. Which of the following disorders is consistent with the laboratory profile?
A) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B) Thalassemia
C) Hereditary elliptocytosis (HE)
D) Hereditary spherocytosis (HS)
E) Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HPP)
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of PK deficiency?
A) The severity of the hemolytic anemia varies widely
B) Varying degrees of polychromasia and poikilocytosis may be found on the peripheral smear and nucleated red cells may be seen
C) Clinical manifestations commonly found include splenomegaly and cholelithiasis
D) Onset may be during infancy or early childhood and mild cases may not be detected until adulthood
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents the second most frequently encountered enzyme deficiency that causes a hemolytic anemia?
A) Hexokinase
B) Lactic dehydrogenase
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
E) None of the above
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12
Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process listed below is commonly responsible for the symptoms of the hand-foot syndrome observed in sickle cell anemia?
A) Infarction
B) Infection
C) Bone marrow hyperplasia
D) Autosplenectomy
E) Ulceration
Q2) Which of the following represents causes of methemoglobinemia?
A) Hemoglobin M variants
B) NADH-diaphorase deficiency
C) Toxic substance
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following rare hemoglobins also sickles, giving a positive tube solubility test?
A) HbC Georgetown
B) HbS Memphis
C) Hb Porto-Alegre
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects:
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distinguishing feature of both alpha thalassemia-one-trait and alpha thalassemia-two-trait conditions compared to Bart's hydrops fetalis or hemoglobin H disease is:
A) Lack of hemoglobin Bart's at birth
B) Disappearance of hemoglobin Bart's with development
C) Persistence of high levels of fetal hemoglobin into adulthood.
D) Excessive amounts of hemoglobin Portland at birth
E) None of the above
Q2) What hemoglobin structures make up hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>?
A) Zeta 2 epsilon 2
B) Alpha 2 beta 2
C) Alpha 2 gamma 2
D) Alpha 2 delta 2
E) None of the above
Q3) The anemia of thalassemia is morphologically characterized as __________ anemia.
A) Macrocytic/hyperchromic
B) Microcytic/hypochromic
C) Normocytic/normochromic
D) Microcytic/normochromic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaluate the course of infection that can occur in a splenectomized patient with babesiosis:
A) Acute intravascular hemolysis
B) Hemoglobinemia
C) Renal failure
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) An autohemolysin can be defined as:
A) A warm autoantibody that binds a patient's red cells at low temperatures and fixes complement
B) A cold autoantibody that binds a patient's red cells at low temperatures and fixes complement
C) A cold autoantibody that binds a patient's red cells at warm temperatures and fixes complement
D) A cold autoantibody that binds a patient's red cells at low temperatures but does not fix complement
E) All of the above
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15
Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemolytic anemia seen in alcoholics occurs as a result of hemolysis in the
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Spleen
E) Lungs
Q2) Iron deficiency in patients with chronic liver disease is due to:
A) Blood loss
B) Poor dietary habits
C) Dysfunctional porphyria
D) Dysfunctional hemoglobin
E) None of the above
Q3) Which cytokines are thought of as key pathogenetic factors in AOI (anemia of inflammation)?
A) IL-1
B) Erythropoietin
C) Ferritin
D) Ferrous iron
E) Thrombopoietin
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myeloperoxidase is present in the primary granules of __________.
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes/macrophages
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) A child with chronic benign neutropenia demonstrates an antibody in the serum directed at antigens on the patient's neutrophils. This finding is consistent with the presence of __________.
A) Bacterial infection
B) Antineutrophil antibody
C) Parasitic infection
D) ABO blood group antibodies
E) Viral infection
Q3) A white blood cell count (WBC) found in the blood of a healthy adult is:
A) 5-10 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 1.5-7.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 1-5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 3-5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) 12- 14 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukemia of the myeloid lineage may include:
A) Granulocytic leukemia
B) Monocytic leukemia
C) Megakaryocytic leukemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) A 14-year-old male presents with a mediastinal mass, a WBC of 110 \(\times\)10<sup>9</sup>/L, hepatosplenomegaly, and early central nervous system involvement. Both L1 and L2 morphology are seen, and surface markers CD7, CD2, and CD5 are expressed. Which type of ALL is present?
A) Precursor B-cell
B) T-cell
C) B-cell
D) Null cell
E) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is characteristic of the bone marrow morphology in CML?
A) Myeloid hyperplasia
B) Normal M/E ratio
C) Myeloid hypoplasia
D) Hypocellularity
E) Erythroid hyperplasia
Q2) When CML is diagnosed in infants and toddlers, it is called __________ CML.
A) Young
B) Juvenile
C) Infant
D) Myelofibrosis
E) AML
Q3) Which clinical signs are evident in CML?
A) Splenomegaly
B) Hepatomegaly
C) Pallor
D) Epistaxis
E) All of the above
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Chapter 18:
Chronic Myeloproliferative
Disorders
Ii: Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the 2008 WHO criteria for diagnosis of Polycythemia Vera (PV), the hemoglobin value must be greater than what value for men?
A) 16.5 g/dL
B) 18.5 g/dL
C) 19.5 g/dL
D) 16.0 g/dL
E) 15.5 g/dL
Q2) How is essential thrombocythemia differentiated from chronic myelocytic leukemia?
A) Presence of bone marrow fibrosis
B) Absence of Philadelphia chromosome
C) Presence of nucleated red blood cells (NRBCs)
D) Thrombocytosis
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the etiology of polycythemia vera?
A) A physiologic response to an abnormal stimulus
B) Clonal hematologic malignancy of bone marrow
C) Idiopathic cause
D) An inherited hemoglobinopathy
E) An inherited oxygen affinity disorder
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents may lead to secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (sMDS)?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Alkylating agents
C) Irradiated blood components
D) Folic acid
E) Pyridoxal phosphate
Q2) The following morphologies are characteristic of dyserythropoiesis in MDS:
A) Basophilic stippling
B) Normochromic, normocytic red cells
C) Multinuclearity
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
Q3) Chromosomal abnormalities are directly correlated with the presence of the __________ population in patients with MDS.
A) Promyelocyte
B) Blast
C) Megakaryocyte
D) Erythrocyte
E) None of the above
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Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunologic technique is helpful in detecting very small numbers of malignant cells or amplifying gene rearrangements in malignant clones?
A) Monoclonal antibodies
B) Polyclonal antibodies
C) PCR technology
D) DNA probe
E) None of the above
Q2) A cell that could suggest that lymphocytes in CLL are not normal is a:
A) Smudge cell
B) Lymphoblast
C) Monoblast
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) In CLL, all of the following might result from the autoimmune phenomenon except:
A) Thalassemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
D) Immune neutropenia
E) None of the above
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are thought to be derived from lymphocytes present in the following lymph node compartments:
A) Intrafollicular
B) Mantle zone
C) Marginal zone
D) Interfollicular
E) All of the above
Q2) Which infectious agent is most commonly associated with the pathogenesis of Hodgkin's disease?
A) Echo virus
B) Herpes virus
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) Picornavirus
Q3) Small lymphocytic lymphoma is characterized by all of the following except:
A) Indolent but incurable
B) Usually CD19+, CD5+, CD23+, CD10-
C) Growth centers
D) t(14;18)
E) Trisomy 12
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monoclonal gammopathy occurs in the sixth to eighth decade of life and is characterized by the presence of an M-spike with IgG < 3.5 g/dL, IgA < 20 g/dL, urinary light chains < 1.0 g/24 hr, and < 10% plasma cells in the bone marrow?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
C) Solitary plasmacytoma
D) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
E) None of the above
Q2) An evaluation of multiple myeloma includes:
A) Bone marrow biopsy
B) SPEP
C) Immunoelectrophoresis and immunofixation
D) Serum free light chain (FLC) assays
E) All of the above
Q3) Which class of immunoglobulin has the largest molecular weight?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgE
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) The mature histiocytes present in eosinophilic granuloma, Hand-Schüller-Christian disease, and Letterer-Siwe disease are called __________.
A) Eosinophils
B) Langerhans' cells
C) Plasma cells
D) Lymphocytes
E) Giant cells
Q2) The mucopolysaccharidoses are characterized by accumulations of unmetabolized __________ within lysosomes.
A) Sphingomyelin
B) Sphingolipids
C) Mucopolysaccharides
D) Hexosaminidase A
E) None of the above
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antihemophilic factor corresponds to __________.
A) Factor II
B) Factor IX
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor XII
E) None of the above
Q2) The thrombin time is a measure of the ability of thrombin to convert __________ to fibrin.
A) Plasmin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Prothrombin
D) Plasminogen
E) Collagen
Q3) The contact group of coagulation proteins includes all of the following except:
A) Hageman factor
B) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
C) Stuart-Prower factor
D) Prekallikrein
E) High-molecular-weight kininogen
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative
and Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory findings in the storage pool deficiencies include all of the following except:
A) Absence of secondary aggregation in response to ADP and epinephrine
B) Normal prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times
C) Impaired platelet factor III availability
D) Normal primary aggregation
E) Decreased platelet retention to glass beads
Q2) von Willebrand's disease (vWD) and Bernard-Soulier syndrome represent disorders of platelet __________.
A) Aggregation
B) Adhesion
C) Secretion
D) Response
E) None of the above
Q3) A qualitative disorder of platelet secretion is __________.
A) Storage pool deficiency
B) Aspirin-like defects
C) May-Hegglin anomaly
D) A and B
E) All of the above
27
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical histories of patients with hemophilia A may indicate all of the following symptoms except:
A) Hemarthroses
B) Postoperative bleeding
C) Hematuria
D) Hypertension
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the treatment of choice in the acquired dysprothrombinemias?
A) Immunosuppressive drugs
B) Whole blood
C) Prothrombin complex concentrates
D) Hormonal therapy
E) None of the above
Q3) Which laboratory tests are normal in prekallikrein deficiency?
A) PT
B) TT
C) Bleeding time
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 28
Chapter 27:
Interaction
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) What is the overall effect of \(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>-anti-plasmin inhibitor?
A) Release free plasmin into circulation
B) Limits plasmin activity to the area of fibrin deposition
C) Inhibit clot lysis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The peripheral blood smear in DIC resembles that of:
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
C) Hemoglobin C disease
D) Megaloblastic anemia
E) None of the above
Q3) At concentration greater than 100 µg/mL, the FDPs are capable of:
A) Inhibiting platelet aggregation and release
B) Enhancing platelet aggregation and release
C) Enhancing platelet adhesiveness and release
D) Inhibiting platelet adhesiveness and release
E) None of the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) The primary aim of thrombolytic therapy is to activate __________.
A) Plasminogen into plasmin
B) Prothrombin into thrombin
C) Fibrinogen to fibrin
D) Factor VIII into hemophilia factor
E) Factor V into activated protein C
Q2) Clinical manifestations of heterozygous AT-III deficiency (such as thrombotic episodes before age 40) may occur in association with:
A) Surgery
B) Pregnancy
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Trauma
E) All of the above
Q3) The most popular laboratory test used in monitoring UH therapy is the
A) PT
B) APTT
C) Thrombin time (TT)
D) Fibrinogen degradation product (FDP)
E) Anti-Xa assay
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following regulates all clinical laboratory testing?
A) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
B) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a postanalytical factor?
A) Entering patient's results into the computer
B) Calculating patient's results
C) Transporting the specimen to the laboratory
D) Notifying physician of patient's results
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a shift?
A) Rerunning a control material
B) Not performing maintenance when due
C) Improperly prepared reagent
D) Analyzing a patient sample without a barcode
Q4) Which of the following is the most common source of laboratory errors?
A) Preanalytical factors
B) Analytical factors
C) Postanalytical factors
D) Nonanalytical factors
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Chapter
Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A technologist is performing a total cell count on a pericardial fluid. She prepares the undiluted fluid on a hemacytometer. An average of 170 cells was seen in the entire ruled area on each side of the hemacytometer. Calculate the total cell count.
A) 189 cells/µL
B) 425 cells/µL
C) 8500 cells/µL
D) 1237 cells/µL
Q2) Which of the following is not true of cytocentrifugation?
A) Cell differentiation is determined by Wright-Giemsa staining
B) A good cell recovery is possible.
C) Malignant cells are difficult to identify with this type of preparation.
D) The cytocentrifuge slide becomes a permanent record.
Q3) Which type of fluid surrounds the subarachnoid space?
A) Pericardial
B) Pleural
C) Peritoneal
D) Cerebrospinal
E) Synovial
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood containing a large number of ________ will yield false-positive results on the Ham's test.
A) Target cells
B) Spherocytes
C) Sickle cells
D) Ovalocytes
E) None of the above
Q2) A _______ ratio of whole blood to supravital stain is required for reticulocyte staining.
A) 1:5
B) 1:1
C) 1:10
D) 2:1
E) None of the above
Q3) The normal ESR range for adult females is _________.
A) 0-9 mm/hr
B) 0-15 mm/hr
C) 0-20 mm/hr
D) 0-30 mm/hr
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The platelet distribution width (PDW) measures uniformity of platelet size and is equivalent to the __________ for red cells.
A) MCV
B) RDW
C) MCHC
D) MCH
E) None of the above
Q2) Particles with a volume of greater than 36 fL and less than or equal to 360 fL are identified as __________ on a Coulter S Plus IV histogram analysis.
A) Granulocytes
B) Red blood cells
C) Mononuclear cells
D) Lymphocytes
E) All of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) vWF activity may become normal in patients with vWD:
A) During inflammation
B) During pregnancy
C) After transfusions with factor VIII
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The __________ is a measure of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation involving factors II, V, VII, and X (as well as fibrinogen).
A) APTT
B) Prothrombin time (PT)
C) Thrombin time (TT)
D) Reptilase time
E) None of the above
Q3) The reptilase test will be abnormally prolonged:
A) In hypofibrinogenemia
B) If heparin is present in the sample
C) When the patient is on anti-vitamin K therapy
D) If the patient has had a recent thrombotic episode
E) All of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In HIV infection, what is monitored to determine if antiviral treatment should be started?
A) CD8 absolute counts
B) CD3 percentage
C) CD4 absolute counts
D) CD8 percentage
Q2) In DNA analysis by flow cytometry, better quantitation of fluorescence is achieved by measuring:
A) The area of the pulse detected
B) The height of the pulse detected
C) The appearance time of the pulse detected
D) The extinction of the pulse detected
Q3) While evaluating data from an analysis, the analyst suspects spectral bleed-over has occurred. What can be done so that each detector only measures the signal for the appropriate fluorescent dye?
A) Increase the voltage to each detector
B) Properly set the fluorescence compensation control
C) Decrease the threshold setting
D) Remove the optical filters
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In complementary nucleotide pairing, an adenine can bind only with __________________ and guanine can bind only with _________.
A) Cytosine, thymine
B) Thymine, cytosine
C) Guanine, adenine
D) Glucine, thymine
Q2) Which of the following are clinical applications of in situ hybridization to cells or tissues immobilized on glass slides?
A) Determine the disease related location of foreign organisms
B) Detect and localize gene expression by targeting RNA transcripts
C) Detect point mutations such as the sickle cell anemia mutation
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Which substance acts as an intermediary to DNA in transmitting genetic information?
A) Oncogenes
B) Chromosomes
C) RNA (ribonucleic acid)
D) Nucleotides
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) LAP activity is not decreased in:
A) CML
B) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Hereditary hypophosphatasia
E) None of the above
Q2) Which constitutes a positive result with the acid phosphatase/tartrate resistant stain?
A) Two or more cells are found with a 4+ activity showing a bluish-black precipitate.
B) Two or more cells are found with a 4+ activity showing an orange-red precipitate.
C) >5 cells are found with a 4+ activity showing an orange-red precipitate.
D) >5 cells are found with a 4+ activity showing a bluish-black precipitate.
E) None of the above
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