Clinical Oral Pathology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Oral Pathology focuses on the identification, diagnosis, and management of diseases affecting the oral and maxillofacial regions. This course covers the clinical features, etiology, and progression of common and uncommon oral lesions, emphasizing diagnostic approaches, including clinical examination, radiographic analysis, and biopsy procedures. Students will learn to differentiate between benign and malignant conditions, understand the implications of systemic diseases on oral health, and develop treatment plans tailored to individual patient needs. The course underscores the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration and evidence-based decision-making in oral healthcare practice.
Recommended Textbook
Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen
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10 Chapters
758 Verified Questions
758 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Preliminary Diagnosis of Oral
Lesions
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65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is not considered a variant of normal?
A) Fordyce granules
B) Leukoedema
C) Linea alba
D) Pyogenic granuloma
Answer: D
Q2) A radiolucency that "scallops around the roots of teeth" is often used to describe which condition?
A) Traumatic bone cyst
B) Stafne bone cyst
C) Lingual mandibular bone concavity
D) Median palatine cyst
Answer: A
Q3) Your patient is diagnosed with a lingual thyroid. What is the next step on the treatment plan?
A) Biopsy
B) Surgical removal
C) Thyroid scan
D) Radiographic evaluation
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the office for an emergency visit complaining of a toothache in the left posterior mandible. On clinical examination you notice a gray-to-white patch on the left posterior buccal mucosa. On questioning, the patient tells you that this area is also painful. After reviewing the patient's medical history, you question the patient regarding his recent use of A) hydrogen peroxide.
B) aspirin.
C) antibiotics.
D) mouthwash.
Answer: B
Q2) This granular, erythematous papillary surface of the palatal vault was caused by A) poor oral hygiene.
B) an ill-fitting suction area of a maxillary denture.
C) the denture flange.
D) soaking the denture in caustic rinses.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Immunologic Oral Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral lesions accompanying skin lesions may occur in the following diseases except one. Which is the exception?
A) SLE
B) Pemphigus vulgaris
C) Lichen planus
D) Aphthous ulcers
Answer: D
Q2) In addition to a clinical diagnosis, which additional category is used in diagnosing aphthous ulcers?
A) Laboratory
B) Differential
C) Historical
D) Therapeutic
Answer: C
Q3) Wickham striae is a term used to describe the oral mucosal lesions of
A) linea alba.
B) frictional keratosis.
C) lichen planus.
D) erythema multiforme.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unilateral eruption of vesicles along the distribution of a sensory nerve seen in this adult patient is characteristic of
A) recurrent intraoral herpes simplex.
B) minor aphthous ulcers.
C) varicella-zoster or chickenpox.
D) herpes zoster or shingles.
Q2) Multiple tiny vesicles that progress to form painful ulcers
A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum
Q3) Which statement is true concerning a positive reaction to the PPD skin test?
A) The patient has active tuberculosis.
B) The patient is contagious.
C) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) The patient is in need of hospitalization.
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Chapter 5: Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dens in dente is a developmental anomaly often seen with A) extra cusps.
B) a periapical lesion.
C) tuberculated premolars.
D) supernumerary roots.
Q2) Odontogenesis in the human embryo takes place at approximately A) 5 weeks.
B) 2 months.
C) 3 months.
D) at birth.
Q3) What is the pseudocyst filled with salivary gland tissue that may be an extension of the sublingual gland?
A) Ranula
B) Static bone cyst
C) Lymphoepithelial cyst
D) Traumatic bone cyst
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Chapter 6: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribonucleic acid (RNA) contains uracil rather than the base _____ found in DNA.
A) adenine
B) guanine
C) cytosine
D) thymine
Q2) After metaphase of the first meiotic division
A) the chromosomes split at the centromere and separate from one another.
B) the chromosomes do not split at the centromere but separate from one another.
C) each member of the pair migrates to one of the new cells, each of which contains 46 chromosomes but twice the final amount of DNA.
D) each member of the pair migrates to one of the new cells, each of which contains 23 chromosomes but half the final amount of DNA.
Q3) A patient with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome will
A) show polydactyly on the radial side of the forearm.
B) be a little person.
C) lack an anterior maxillary vestibular sulcus.
D) lack a posterior mandibular sulcus.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diagnosis of oral osteosarcoma is dependent on A) clinical examination.
B) palpation.
C) radiographic interpretation.
D) patient symptoms.
Q2) In naming the neoplasm, the word sarcoma or carcinoma is used.
A)Benign
B)Malignant
Q3) Because the origin of these tumors is glandular epithelium, benign tumors of salivary gland origin are termed
A) adenomas
B) nevi
C) chondromas
D) lipomas
Q4) The ameloblastic fibroma
A) occurs most often in adults over 50.
B) occurs more commonly in males than females.
C) is most commonly located in the mandibular anterior region.
D) is most commonly located in the maxillary anterior region.
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Chapter 8: Nonneoplastic Diseases of Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aneurysmal bone cyst is a "pseudocyst" which means :
A) No epithelial lining exists.
B) The cyst does not appear on radiographic images.
C) The cyst is really a fibroma.
D) Malignant potential is present.
Q2) Which type of lesion occurs most often in black women older than age 40 and is characterized by disordered cementum and bone, typically affecting more than one quadrant of the maxilla and mandible in the posterior regions?
A) Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
B) Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
C) Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
D) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
Q3) Osteitis deformans and leontiasis ossea are other names for what chronic metabolic bone disease?
A) Central giant cell granuloma
B) Jaffe-Lichtenstein
C) Paget disease
D) Albright syndrome
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10
Chapter 9: Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify a common nutritional deficiency associated with anemia:
A) Calcium
B) Phosphorus
C) Iron
D) Vitamin D
Q2) Leukopenia most commonly involves
A) neutrophils.
B) basophils.
C) eosinophils.
D) monocytes.
Q3) Type A hemophilia is caused by a deficiency of factor _____.
A) VII
B) VIII
C) IX
D) X
Q4) Which condition necessitates emergency intervention?
A) Hemostasis
B) Ketoacidosis
C) Insulin shock
D) Myalgia
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Chapter 10: Orofacial Pain and Diseases Affecting the
Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sign
A)Method for evaluating and manipulating a joint via the insertion of a camera and instruments
B)Dry, crackling sound
C)Surgical puncture of a joint followed by lavage of joint space
D)Physical examination using pressure of the hand or fingers
E)Inability to fully open the mouth
F)Radiography of a joint after injection of opaque contrast material
G)Noninvasive diagnostic technique that uses radio waves to produce computerized images of internal body tissues
H)Listening to sounds within the body, using a stethoscope
I)Subjective evidence of disease or a physical disorder that is observed by the patient
J)Objective evidence of disease that can be observed by a health care provider rather than by the patient
K)Joint
L)Induced inadvertently by a medical or dental care provider or by medical treatment or a diagnostic procedure
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