Clinical Nutrition
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Nutrition explores the role of nutrition in the prevention, management, and treatment of various diseases and medical conditions. This course examines the principles of nutrient metabolism, assessment of nutritional status, and development of therapeutic diets tailored to individual patient needs. Students will analyze the physiological and biochemical basis of nutrition, review evidence-based guidelines, and discuss the collaborative relationship between healthcare professionals and dietitians in clinical settings. Case studies and practical scenarios are used to illustrate nutritional intervention strategies in areas such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disorders, and critical care.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by
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23 Chapters
2040 Verified Questions
2040 Flashcards
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Linda Kelly DeBruyne
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following nutrients are organic except:
A) vitamins.
B) fat.
C) protein.
D) minerals.
E) carbohydrates
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement about Dietary Reference Intakes is false?
A) The DRI are designed to merely prevent nutrient deficiency diseases.
B) The DRI focus on disease prevention.
C) The DRI focus on adequacy of nutrients.
D) The DRI apply to the diets of individuals.
E) The DRI reflect research from both the US and Canada.
Answer: A
Q3) The Dietary Reference Intakes reflect the collaborative efforts of scientists to produce a set of standards for the amount of energy, nutrients, and other dietary components that best support health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cold food should be stored at:
A) 40°F or colder
B) 55°F or colder
C) 80°F or colder
D) 140°F or colder
E) 40oF or warmer
Answer: A
Q2) The gallbladder:
A) reabsorbs water and salts.
B) churns food to chyme.
C) performs enzymatic digestion.
D) stores bile.
E) contains bacteria that produce Vitamin K.
Answer: A
Q3) Segmentation begins when a bolus enters the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you respond to the statement that honey is more nutritious than white sugar?
Answer: Honey contains glucose and fructose, just like white sugar. Honey differs from white sugar, though, in that some of the glucose and fructose molecules in honey are paired and some are free single sugars. Your body ultimately breaks them down into single sugars, so it makes no difference if they were paired when you ate them. Honey contains a few vitamins and minerals but not very many. Also, it is denser than crystalline sugar, so it provides more kcalories per serving.
Q2) Which of the following ingredients is a sugar alcohol?
A) polydextrose
B) maltitol
C) cellulose
D) aspartame
E) saccharin
Answer: B
Q3) Most dietary fiber provides little or no energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Today's recommendations for fat intake emphasize:
A) lowering the intake of all types of fat.
B) low-fat diets only for those at risk for heart disease.
C) replacing saturated and trans fats with unsaturated fats.
D) consuming no more than 20 grams of fat per day.
E) decreasing intake of omega-3 fatty acids.
Q2) hydrogenation
A)the term used to describe fats when they have deteriorated, usually by oxidation.
B)the process of a substance combining with oxygen.
C)compounds that protect others from oxidation by being oxidized themselves.
D)a chemical process by which hydrogens are added to monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fats to reduce the number of double bonds.
E)a type of artery disease characterized by accumulations of lipid-containing material on the inner walls of the arteries.
F)a general term for all diseases of the heart and blood vessels.
G)compounds that interfere with cholesterol absorption.
H)the body's fat, which consists of masses of fat-storing cells.
Q3) Discuss the potential benefits and risks of taking fish oil supplements.
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary protein will not be used efficiently and will not support growth if _____ are inadequate.
A) vegetables
B) essential fatty acids
C) kcalories
D) dairy foods
E) plant-based protein
Q2) Discuss potential problems with the use of amino acid supplements.
Q3) An important buffer in the maintenance of the acid-base balance of the blood is:
A) fatty acids.
B) lactic acid.
C) heme.
D) carbohydrate.
E) protein.
Q4) The end products of protein metabolism are excreted by the:
A) stomach.
B) liver.
C) colon.
D) gallbladder.
E) kidneys.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given that EER for women = [354 - (6.91 ´ age)] + PA ´ [(9.36 ´ wt) + (726 ´ ht)], estimate the energy requirements for Anne, an active 27 year old (PA = 1.27) who is 5 feet 4 inches tall and weighs 130 pounds.
A) 1700-1800
B) 2300-2400
C) 2600-2700
D) 3200-3300
E) 3500-3700
Q2) Which of the following are acidic, water-soluble compounds formed from the incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrate is not available?
A) amino acids
B) pyruvate molecules
C) carbon dioxide
D) ketone bodies
E) ammonia and urea
Q3) A smoker may weigh less than a non-smoker, but will likely have more visceral fat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate food to consume before a meal to increase one's feeling of fullness is:
A) a cup of cream of chicken soup.
B) an unbuttered roll.
C) a cup of vegetable soup.
D) a breadstick dipped in olive oil.
E) chips and salsa.
Q2) Ghrelin is a hormone produced in the stomach that acts much like leptin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major drawback of most fad diets is:
A) they promote false information about weight loss.
B) they do not create lifestyle changes to support long-term weight control.
C) they create false hopes among those who try them.
D) they usually require the purchase of dietary supplements.
E) they often suggest kcalorie intakes that are unsustainably low.
Q4) Belviq works by interacting with brain serotonin receptors to increase satiety.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of vitamin D in bone growth is to:
A) synthesize 7-dehydrocholesterol.
B) assist in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
C) mobilize calcium from the bone.
D) secrete calcitonin.
E) regulate the fat cells of adipose tissue.
Q2) Which form of vitamin A is involved in gene expression?
A) retinoic acid
B) retinol
C) retinal
D) retinol-binding protein
E) opsin
Q3) What can be concluded from the results of research on vitamin E supplementation?
A) There is not enough evidence to recommend taking supplements to prevent heart disease.
B) Sufficient evidence exists to recommend that everyone over 40 should take a supplement.
C) Large doses are more beneficial than low doses.
D) All people who have had a heart attack should take a supplement.
E) Vitamin E can be used in place of statins in people with high cholesterol.
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hallucinations commonly experienced during withdrawal from alcohol intoxication are believed to be due to a deficiency of:
A) magnesium.
B) phosphorus.
C) iron.
D) calcium.
E) potassium.
Q2) What is the minimum amount of urine the body must excrete each day to remove waste products?
A) 500 mL
B) 700 mL
C) 1000 mL
D) 2300 mL
E) 3000 mL
Q3) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
Q4) There is a correlation between high salt intake in people and high rates of hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how the body regulates blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lactating mother wants to breastfeed but she has a short-term prescription for antibiotics that have been shown to cross into breast milk and that could affect her baby. What solution is most appropriate in this situation to protect the health of this mother and her baby?
A) Have the mother continue to breastfeed and monitor for the medication's effects on the baby.
B) Tell the mother to discontinue breastfeeding until she has finished taking her medication.
C) Explain that the mother should discontinue taking the medication.
D) Have the mother use a breast pump and discard the milk until the medication is complete.
E) Encourage the mother to take her medication with a large glass of water.
Q2) A pregnant woman with low hemoglobin must take a 30 mg iron supplement. To enhance iron absorption, the woman should take the supplement _____.
A) just before bed at night
B) 30 minutes after a meal and with a glass of milk
C) during a meal
D) immediately after waking
E) between meals and with water or juice
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) No RDA for total fat has been established, but the DRI committee recommends a fat intake of 10 to 15 percent of energy for children 1 to 3 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Teenage boys experience a more intense growth spurt and develop more lean body mass than girls do.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compared to their well-fed peers, children who do not eat breakfast may _____.
A) gain excess weight
B) struggle with depression
C) have shorter attention spans
D) have poor peer relationships
E) suffer from developmental delays
Q4) What is the role of the "gatekeeper," as applied to nutrition?
Q5) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
Q6) Discuss the problems associated with providing nutritious lunches to students at school.
Page 13
Q7) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
Q2) Sarcopenia refers to _____.
A) loss of muscle mass
B) a vitamin deficiency
C) bone loss
D) malnutrition associated with aging
E) gradual loss of memory and reasoning ability
Q3) Martin is a 71-year-old patient who has asked about how he can stay healthy as he gets older. An effective strategy to suggest to Martin might be to _____.
A) drink 4 to 6 glasses of water a day
B) avoid extremes in temperature changes
C) utilize herbal preparations to control symptoms of aging
D) avoid caffeine intake through foods and beverages
E) maintain appropriate body weight
Q4) The most common drug that can affect nutrition in older people is _____.
A) alcohol
B) laxatives
C) antacids
D) aspirin
E) nicotine
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A coordinated program of treatment that merges the care plans of different health practitioners is a _____.
A) critical pathway
B) care map
C) clinical pathway
D) care plan
E) nutrition screening
Q2) Elevated blood levels of _____ may indicate a heart attack, brain tissue damage, or skeletal muscle injury.
A) red blood cells
B) chloride
C) C-reactive protein
D) creatine kinase
E) hematocrit
Q3) Mr. Wilson's low albumin level may indicate a depletion of _____.
A) body fat
B) body proteins
C) vitamin D
D) iron
E) calcium
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because Mr. Salazar is taking lovastatin, he should be counseled to avoid _____.
A) apple juice
B) sauerkraut
C) green leafy vegetables
D) milk
E) grapefruit juice
Q2) What menu selections would be appropriate for a patient placed on a clear liquid diet?
A) Chicken broth, apple juice, popsicle
B) Yogurt, cranberry juice, beef broth
C) Scrambled egg, coffee, orange juice
D) Jell-O, ice cream, coffee
E) Milk, applesauce, and cottage cheese
Q3) A patient is discouraged by the dietary restrictions for her low-sodium diet. The most appropriate response from the nurse is to _____.
A) emphasize foods the patient can eat
B) agree that the diet is unpalatable
C) allow the family to bring food to the patient
D) explain why the diet is necessary
E) tell the patient the she will contact the dietitian
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) A formula that approximates the osmolality of normal blood serum _____.
A) is called a hypertonic formula
B) is referred to as an isotonic formula
C) has an osmolality of approximately 500 milliosmoles per liter
D) is usually a hydrolyzed formula
E) often causes constipation with use
Q2) The nutrition support team determines how much carbohydrate, protein, fat, vitamins, minerals, and fluid they will administer to Mr. Edward. What component of Mr. Edward's peripheral nutrition infusion will provide the greatest number of kcalories in the smallest volume of fluid?
A) 250 mL of a 30% lipid emulsion
B) 250 mL of a 10% dextrose solution
C) 250 mL of a 10% amino acid solution
D) 250 mL of a 10% lipid emulsion
E) 250 mL of a 20% lipid emulsion
Q3) Identify specific conditions that necessitate the use of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) by central vein.
Q4) Name and discuss five metabolic complications that may result from parenteral feedings.
Q5) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) What method was developed for estimating energy needs in a patient with traumatic injuries?
A) Parkland formula
B) Jackson/Pollock method
C) Harris-Benedict equation
D) Lund-Browder formula
E) Ireton-Jones energy equation
Q2) The protein needs of a non-obese critically ill patient would be _____.
A) 0.8-1.0 g/kg body weight per day
B) 1.0-1.2 g/kg body weight per day
C) 1.2-2.0 g/kg body weight per day
D) 2.0-2.5 g/kg body weight per day
E) 2.5-3.0 g/kg body weight per day
Q3) Protein synthesis is inhibited by _____.
A) cortisol
B) eicosanoids
C) mast cells
D) phagocytes
E) aldosterone
Q4) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the symptoms of dumping syndrome and explain the sequence of events that results in these symptoms.
Q2) Peptic ulcers are a major cause of _____, which occurs in up to 15 percent of ulcer cases.
A) pain
B) dysphagia
C) gastrointestinal bleeding
D) reflux esophagitis
E) dry mouth
Q3) The medication M.L. takes is a proton-pump inhibitor medication that works by
A) decreasing gastric acid production
B) neutralizing gastric acid
C) coating the esophagus
D) preventing tissue inflammation
E) inhibiting the lower esophageal sphincter
Q4) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
Q5) Discuss how chronic illnesses contribute to oral diseases and how this affects nutritional health.
Q6) Define dysphagia and explain the dietary treatment for this disorder.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute pancreatitis can result from high blood triglycerides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Kelly will require nutrition education aimed at eliminating gluten from her diet. The dietitian will teach Kelly to _____
A) avoid all cereal and grain products
B) substitute whole-wheat flour for enriched wheat flour when cooking
C) check ingredient lists on food labels carefully
D) avoid all milk and milk products
E) consume only the foods she has prepared herself
Q3) Beyond complications associated with lung tissue, the pancreas, and sweat glands in the patient with cystic fibrosis, which complication has also been associated with cystic fibrosis?
A) Decreased fertility
B) Cardiac arrhythmias
C) Elevated blood glucose levels
D) Poor wound healing
E) Vision loss
Q4) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
Q5) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that a healthy limit of alcohol intake for Brian would be _____.
A) no alcohol intake
B) no more than one drink per day
C) no more than two drinks per day
D) no more than three drinks per day
E) no more than four drinks per day
Q2) What signs or symptoms best describe ascites?
A) Yellowing of the sclera of the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes
B) Fluid accumulation in the abdomen
C) Inflammation of the liver
D) Elevated blood ammonia levels
E) Increased amounts of fat in the stool
Q3) High-fat foods may be restricted in patients with cirrhosis who are experiencing steatorrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) hepatitis
Q5) varices
Q6) hepatic coma
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome leads to profoundly high levels of blood glucose, mainly due to _____.
A) insulin resistance
B) inappropriate glucagon production
C) increased urine output
D) dehydration
E) vitamin K deficiency
Q2) Women with gestational diabetes who are overweight or obese should be encouraged to _____.
A) engage in vigorous exercise
B) adjust carbohydrate intake to 40-45 percent of daily kcalories
C) increase fluid intake to offset additional kcalories
D) limit protein intake to 5 percent of daily kcalories
E) lose weight through kcalorie reduction
Q3) The mode of action of sulfonylureas is to _____.
A) stimulate insulin secretion by the pancreas
B) decrease insulin resistance
C) improve glucose utilization
D) delay carbohydrate digestion and absorption
E) delay stomach emptying
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe malnutrition that develops as a consequence of heart failure is called _____.
A) cardiomyopathy
B) cardiomegaly
C) cardiac cachexia
D) tachycardia
E) endocarditis
Q2) Which team member works with the client to evaluate the need for special feeding devices and then teaches the client how to use the device?
A) speech-language pathologist
B) physical therapist
C) occupational therapist
D) dietitian
E) dietetic technician
Q3) The risk of atherosclerosis increases with which factor(s)?
A) smoking
B) exercise
C) hypotension
D) excess sun exposure
E) insufficient vaccinations
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Bradley's comprehension of the need for a lower-phosphorus diet is reflected by which statement?
A) "I will need to eat fewer fatty meats."
B) "I will need to avoid legumes."
C) "I will need to limit dairy products."
D) "I can eat all the bread I want."
E) "Becoming a vegetarian would best meet my protein needs."
Q2) Weight gain can become a problem when peritoneal dialysis continues for an extended period of time. This is likely due to _____.
A) the kcalories contributed by the dialysate
B) a less restrictive diet
C) food cravings experienced by the patient
D) the body's adaptation to dialysis
E) fluid retention in the peritoneal cavity
Q3) The potassium content of vegetables can be reduced through which process?
A) Steaming
B) Sautéing
C) Leaching
D) Boiling
E) Spraying
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Q1) A durable power of attorney is used to _____.
A) state the patient's wishes about treatments he does or does not want at the end of life
B) appoint a health care agent for the patient
C) withhold CPR in the event of cardiopulmonary arrest
D) allow a physician to write a DNR order
E) determine the decision-making capacity of the patient
Q2) Recurrent bacterial pneumonia is classified as an AIDS-defining illness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. The patient complains of chronic diarrhea. The nurse notes a 15-pound weight loss over a 4-week period. The most likely explanation for the patient's condition is _____.
A) AIDS enteropathy
B) candidiasis
C) herpes simplex virus
D) insulin resistance
Q4) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about foodborne illnesses?
Q5) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
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