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Clinical Nutrition is the study of the role of nutrition in the prevention, management, and treatment of disease across the human lifespan. This course covers the principles of assessing nutritional status, the physiological basis of nutrition-related disorders, and the evidence-based dietary interventions for various medical conditions such as diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, renal disorders, gastrointestinal diseases, and critical illness. Students will learn to develop and implement individualized nutrition care plans, understand the interactions between food, nutrients, and medications, and explore the ethical and cultural considerations in clinical nutrition practice. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration and current research to inform best practices in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Q1) A good indicator that an individual's energy intake is appropriate is a healthy _____.
A) height
B) weight
C) elbow breadth
D) body composition
E) skin tone
Answer: B
Q2) An individual's Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) is deemed adequate in the absence of _____.
A) bone loss
B) weight gain or loss
C) obvious signs of malnutrition
D) body fat
E) tooth decay
Answer: B
Q3) Consuming nutrient-dense foods can help control one's kcalorie intake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Polysaccharides are composed almost entirely of _____ units.
A) sucrose
B) fructose
C) maltose
D) glucose
E) galactose
Answer: D
Q2) A person consumes 2600 kcalories per day and 50 grams of carbohydrate from concentrated sweets. According to the USDA Food Patterns recommendations, this person's sugar intake is within the guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is the equivalent of 1 teaspoon of white sugar?
A) 1 tablespoon of ketchup
B) 1 tablespoon of jelly
C) 2 oz. of a carbonated soft drink
D) 3 teaspoons of honey
E) 1 teaspoon of milk
Answer: A
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Q1) Which oil is a rich source of monounsaturated fat?
A) olive oil
B) coconut oil
C) sunflower oil
D) corn oil
E) chicken fat
Answer: A
Q2) The term "saturated fatty acid" means that ____.
A) its carbon chains contain fewer than ten carbons
B) the fat lacks glycerol
C) each carbon is filled to capacity with hydrogen atoms
D) the fat is solid at room temperature
E) the fat comes from animal sources
Answer: C
Q3) It is possible to consume too little fat.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The component that distinguishes one amino acid from another is its ____.
A) side group
B) backbone
C) size
D) shape
E) central spiral group
Q2) acid-base balance
A)maintenance of the necessary amounts and types of fluid and minerals in each compartment of the body fluids
B)swelling caused by accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces
C)compounds that release hydrogen ions in a solution
D)compounds that accept hydrogen ions in a solution
E)the balance maintained between acid and base concentrations in the blood and body fluids
F)the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution
G)too much acid in the blood and body fluids
H)too much base in the blood and body fluids
I)compounds that can reversibly combine with hydrogen ions to maintain a solution's acidity or alkalinity constant
J)produced in response to invasion by antigens
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Q1) The products of amylase digestion in the mouth are ____.
A) proteins
B) monosaccharides and lactose
C) polysaccharides and maltose
D) polysaccharides and sucrose
E) lipids and proteins
Q2) A nutrient or other substance must pass through the cells of the digestive tract wall before it actually enters the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the GI tract, bacteria produce ____.
A) amylase
B) pepsin
C) mucus
D) vitamin K
E) bile
Q4) Is eating raw seafood, like fish and oysters, ever safe?
Q5) Describe how the US government is working to help keep foods safe.
Q6) What is norovirus and how is it linked to personal hygiene?
Q7) Explain the benefits of intestinal flora to health.
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Q1) Calculate the approximate BMI of a male who is 5 feet 11 inches tall and weighs 210 pounds.
A) 23
B) 27
C) 30
D) 28
E) 31
Q2) Which health effect is a major consequence of purging?
A) excessive hair growth on the back
B) a ruptured spleen
C) dangerously high potassium concentrations
D) a ruptured esophagus
E) a ruptured appendix
Q3) Which factor is one of the three indicators established by obesity experts for evaluating health risks due to overweight and obesity?
A) a person's sleep habits
B) BMR
C) a person's alcohol consumption
D) waist circumference
E) family history

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Q1) Why doesn't weight-loss advice apply equally to all overweight people?
A) fad diets only work for overweight, but not obese, individuals
B) only severely obese individuals should exercise
C) people vary in their weight tendencies
D) diabetics should not restrict calorie intake
E) not all overweight people will benefit from weight loss
Q2) What would you recommend to a person who is too busy to eat enough to maintain a healthy weight?
A) Eat one supersized meal per day.
B) Plan meals in advance and eat energy-dense appetizers.
C) Replace one meal each day with a high fat snack.
D) Replace one meal each day with a glass of fruit juice.
E) Add an extra session of resistance training to build muscle mass.
Q3) The psychological desire to eat is referred to as _____.
A) satiety
B) appetite
C) hunger
D) obesity
E) hypothalamism
Q4) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity.
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Q1) Children are most vulnerable to vitamin A toxicity because they need less of it and are more sensitive to overdoses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The active form of vitamin A that functions in vision is _____.
A) opsin
B) retinol
C) retinal
D) retinoic acid
E) tryptophan
Q3) Vitamin A plays a role in cell differentiation, which means that it _____.
A) helps cells differentiate between the vitamins
B) allows cells to specialize and mature so they can perform their intended functions
C) promotes the storage of fat-soluble vitamins
D) aids in excretion of water-soluble vitamins
E) allows cells to undergo apoptosis so they can perform their intended functions
Q4) How do the vitamins differ from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?
Q5) Name the antioxidant vitamins and describe how they function in the body.
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Q1) Of the foods listed, the best source of phosphorus is _____.
A) tofu
B) chicken
C) noodles
D) cheese
E) spinach
Q2) Supplement users are more likely to have excessive intake of _____.
A) the B vitamins
B) iron, zinc, vitamin A, and folate
C) vitamins A, D, E, and K
D) calcium, iron, vitamin C, and thiamin
E) selenium, chromium, and magnesium
Q3) Thirst and satiety are the two factors that govern water intake in healthy people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the body's mechanism for regulating water excretion.
Q5) Discuss the two minerals most likely to fall short in the diet, what can be done to remedy deficiencies, and why those remedies are important.
Q6) What is the mechanism by which fluoride exerts a caries-reducing effect?
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Q1) Trained muscles burn _____ fat and at higher intensities than untrained muscles, so they require _____ glucose to perform the same amount of work.
A) more; less
B) less; more
C) more; more
D) less; less
E) more; no
Q2) Why are exercise intensity and duration important for people trying to lose body fat?
Q3) Running at a pace of 6.5 miles/hour is an example of a(n) _____ physical activity.
A) vigorous-intensity
B) moderate-intensity
C) muscle-strengthening
D) anaerobic
E) catatonic
Q4) Why is it important to "refuel" as soon after physical activity as possible?
Q5) Sports anemia clears up without treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What are some benefits of physical activity during pregnancy?
A) It improves the overall fitness of the fetus.
B) It prevents or manages type 1 diabetes.
C) It prevents early onset vitamin D deficiency.
D) It may result in fewer discomforts during pregnancy.
E) It promotes an earlier delivery.
Q2) If a woman gains 30 pounds during pregnancy, the net amount of body fat she gains is about _____.
A) 1 pound
B) 7 pounds
C) 10 pounds
D) 15 pounds
E) 20 pounds
Q3) In which year was infant mortality the highest?
A) 1915
B) 1960
C) 1980
D) 2010
E) 2020
Q4) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.
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Q1) Children who skip breakfast tend to exhibit _____.
A) higher energy intakes
B) enhanced concentration
C) less apathy
D) lower test scores
E) higher energy intakes.
Q2) How might a pregnant woman's diet and health routine affect the health of her unborn fetus?
Q3) Restricting dietary sodium causes an immediate drop in most children's and adolescents' blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A leading cause of pediatric hypertension is _____.
A) a low intake of whole-grain foods
B) obesity
C) excessive sodium intake from soft drink consumption
D) type 1 diabetes
E) a high intake of fruits and vegetables
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Q5) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers.
Q6) Describe characteristics of vegetables preferred by children.
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Q1) Older adults face a greater risk of vitamin D deficiency than young people due to
A) low consumption of meat
B) low intake of vegetables
C) limited exposure to sunlight
D) low intake of fiber
E) higher intakes of fat
Q2) How is osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis related to diet and physical activity?
Q3) Dehydrated older adults are more susceptible to _____.
A) ambulatory distress
B) urinary tract infections
C) herniation
D) stomach ulcers
E) emphysema
Q4) How might a diet plan that is kcalorie restrictive actually help slow the aging process?
Q5) Iron-deficiency anemia is more common in older adults than in young people. A)True
B)False
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Q1) For an adult's height to be accurately measured, the person should stand ____.
A) erect without shoes
B) erect with shoes
C) with feet slightly apart
D) two inches away from the wall
E) with slightly bent knees
Q2) Preventing or treating malnutrition in patients hospitalized with acute illness may improve their medical outcomes because ____.
A) some illnesses lead to eating disorders
B) patients should lose weight while hospitalized
C) poor nutrition status weakens the immune system
D) most patients have limited energy stores
E) acute illnesses require longer hospital stays than chronic illnesses
Q3) Which factor is not a limitation of a 24-hour dietary recall?
A) the previous day's intake may not be typical
B) they are difficult to obtain
C) the person may not be able to accurately report portion sizes
D) they provide data for one day only
E) variations in diet
Q4) Describe the concept of NPO.
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Q1) People taking MAO inhibitors should avoid foods containing _____.
A) tyramine
B) phenylalanine
C) tryptophan
D) starch
E) high amounts of fat
Q2) Consistency in herbal supplements is not guaranteed because _____.
A) no manufacturers have attempted to standardize them
B) they are natural substances, so there can be no consistency
C) different growing conditions can affect the plants' chemical composition
D) the active ingredient in an herb must be isolated to be effective
E) the active ingredient is usually not identified
Q3) Which drug prevents cancer cells from obtaining folate?
A) methotrexate
B) ephedra
C) coenzyme Q
D) leucovorin
E) isoniazid
Q4) Why should mainstream health professionals learn more about complementary alternative medicine?
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Q1) A drawback to using specialized or disease-specific formulas is that _____.
A) they are expensive
B) they are not well tolerated
C) they cause high gastric residuals
D) they are not available for common chronic conditions
E) they are difficult to administer
Q2) A formula that approximates the osmolality of normal blood serum _____.
A) is called a hypertonic formula
B) is referred to as an isotonic formula
C) has an osmolality of approximately 500 milliosmoles per liter
D) is usually a hydrolyzed formula
E) is used only in special cases
Q3) The outer diameter of a feeding tube is measured in _____.
A) millimeters
B) French units
C) milliliters
D) English units
E) standard units
Q4) What type of nutrition support is appropriate for Ms. Johnson at this time? Why?
Q5) Describe the current procedure for administering a TPN feeding.
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Q1) The diet progression following bariatric surgery is _____.
A) liquid, pureed, soft, regular
B) liquid, mechanical soft, low-fat, regular
C) pureed, chopped, regular
D) pureed, chopped, soft, regular
E) pureed, soft, regular
Q2) To prevent oral diseases, it is recommended to _____.
A) chew gum with sugar to stimulate saliva production
B) put infants to bed with a nursing bottle of juice
C) brush teeth after each meal
D) consume starchy snacks
E) brush teeth twice a day for at least 2 minutes
Q3) Which of these conditions is not a risk factor for developing periodontal disease?
A) dental plaque
B) smoking
C) diabetes
D) atherosclerosis
E) HIV infection
Q4) Discuss the complications of gastritis.
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Q1) Food borne illnesses can cause _____.
A) osmotic diarrhea
B) steatorrhea
C) secretory diarrhea
D) chronic diarrhea
E) hyperosmotic diarrhea
Q2) The patient with a colostomy or ileostomy should restrict fluid intake.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During a flare-up of her disease, Noel should follow a ______ diet.
A) high-fiber, high-fat
B) low-sodium
C) low-fiber, low-fat
D) high-fat
E) low-sodium, low-fiber
Q4) Describe important components of nutrition management for people with ostomies.
Q5) Why was Mr. Fruge unaware of his condition until now?
Page 21
Q6) Mr. Fruge tells the dietitian that his mother had diverticulosis and he remembers that she was told to avoid nuts, seeds, and popcorn. How should the dietitian reply to this comment?
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Q1) The hydrogen breath test is often used to diagnose lactose intolerance, but it can diagnose malabsorption of other types of carbohydrate, as well.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ordinarily, the GI tract is protected from bacterial overgrowth by alkaline secretions which prevent bacterial reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The absorption of vitamins and minerals begins in the _____.
A) duodenum/jejunum
B) jejunum/ileum
C) ileum
D) colon
E) stomach
Q4) Explain the cause of Julia's impaired nutrition status.
Q5) Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) oil does not require bile for digestion and absorption.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Patients with ascites generally must restrict their intake of _____.
A) fat
B) carbohydrates
C) sodium
D) iron
E) potassium
Q2) Describe appropriate nutrition intervention before and after a liver transplant.
Q3) Of the following laboratory tests performed on Mr. Jamison, which one would you expect to see elevated?
A) albumin
B) transferrin
C) ammonia
D) HDL
E) erythropoetin
Q4) Which condition is caused by bilirubin accumulation in the bloodstream?
A) jaundice
B) ascites
C) hepatic coma
D) mental disturbances
E) cirrhosis
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Q1) Which symptoms are associated with the acute complications of diabetes?
A) hyperglycemia, vomiting, dehydration
B) vomiting, polyuria, infections of the urinary tract
C) hyperglycemia, dehydration, polyuria
D) dehydration, polyuria, lack of thirst
E) vomiting, polyuria, infections of the urinary tract
Q2) All of these food portions represent one portion of a carbohydrate-containing food except _____.
A) 1 medium apple
B) 1 slice of bread
C) 1 cup cooked pasta
D) 1 small baked potato
E) ½ cup cooked oatmeal
Q3) Women with gestational diabetes who are overweight or obese should be encouraged to _____.
A) engage in strenuous exercise
B) severely restrict carbohydrate intake
C) adjust energy intake as needed
D) limit protein intake
E) lose excess body weight
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Q1) In working with patients with disabilities, a valuable method for assessing current eating behaviors is _____.
A) interviewing the patients
B) directly observing patients during mealtimes
C) conducting nutrition histories
D) talking with the occupational therapist
E) interviewing the patient's family
Q2) The effect of _____ on cholesterol levels and CHD risk is controversial.
A) meat
B) fish
C) milk
D) eggs
E) nuts
Q3) The risk of atherosclerosis increases with all of these factors except _____.
A) smoking
B) exercise
C) aging
D) diabetes
E) hypertensive shear stress
Q4) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
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Q1) All of these factors can contribute to hypercalciuria except _____.
A) excessive calcium absorption
B) impaired calcium reabsorption
C) elevated serum levels of parathyroid hormone
D) impaired absorption of vitamin C
E) elevated vitamin D
Q2) Adults with chronic kidney disease frequently develop wasting and PEM.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with chronic kidney disease frequently develop vitamin and mineral deficiencies due to all of these reasons except _____.
A) restrictive diets
B) loss of vitamins during dialysis
C) steatorrhea
D) altered metabolism
E) blood loss associated with dialysis
Q4) Individuals at risk of PEM and wasting should consume foods with high energy density
A)True B)False
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Q1) Describe the causes of the four classic signs of inflammation.
Q2) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q3) Which compound is produced by white blood cells and participates in the inflammatory process?
A) glucagon
B) catecholamines
C) cytokines
D) cortisol
E) histamine
Q4) Which amino acid may improve infection, muscle mass, and mortality rates in critically ill patients?
A) leucine
B) glutamine
C) valine
D) isoleucine
E) glycine
Q5) Overfeeding an acutely stressed patient improves nitrogen balance and decreases lean tissue losses.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which substance improves lean tissue mass in HIV patients?
A) megestrol acetate
B) dronabinol
C) testosterone
D) antiretroviral agents
E) vitamin A and D
Q2) The cause of HIV-lipodystrophy syndrome is _____.
A) malnutrition
B) overeating
C) reproductive hormone imbalances
D) thyroid disorders
E) unknown
Q3) All of these conditions are HIV-related causes of wasting except _____.
A) anorexia
B) chronic diarrhea
C) altered metabolism
D) lipodystrophy
E) oral infections
Q4) Describe HIV-lipodystrophy syndrome and discuss current treatment strategies.
Q5) Discuss three strategies that might help a cancer patient cope with nausea.
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